• Shuffle
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Alphabetize
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Front First
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Both Sides
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Read
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
Reading...
Front

Card Range To Study

through

image

Play button

image

Play button

image

Progress

1/150

Click to flip

Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;

Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;

H to show hint;

A reads text to speech;

150 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back

What is the max speed of a CAT3 cable?

10Mbps

What is the max frequency of a CAT3 cable?

16Mhz

What is the max speed of a CAT5 cable?

100Mbps

What is the max frequency of a CAT5 cable?

100Mhz

What is the max speed of a CAT5e cable?

1000Mbps

What is the max frequency of a CAT5e cable?

100Mhz

What is the max speed of a CAT6 cable?

10Gbps

What is the max frequency of a CAT6 cable?

250Mhz

Name the bus that connects the CPU to the motherboard

Front side bus

Name the bus that connects the Northbridge to the RAM

Memory bus

Name the bus that connects the video card to the memory and CPU

AGP bus

Name the bus that connects the Southbridge to the hard disk drives

ATA bus

Name the bus that connects the PCI slots to the Southbridge

PCI bus

PCI expansion cards come in 32 and 64-bit versions and can reach speeds of up to _______.

533Mbps

PCI-X expansion cards can reach speeds up to ______.

1064Mbps

PCIe can reach speeds up to _______.

2Gbps

SATA 1 transfers data at a max of ________.

1.5GB/sec

SATA 2 transfers data at a max of ________.

3.0GB/sec

SATA 3 transfers data at a max of ________.

6.0GB/sec

Which RAID level does NOT provide fault tolerance?




a) RAID 0


b) RAID 1


c) RAID 5

a) RAID 0

Which RAID level supports improved read but NOT improved write?




a) RAID 0


b) RAID 1


c) RAID 5

b) RAID 1

What is the minimum number of disks for RAID 5?

3

Which RAID level adds duplexing?

RAID 1

Which RAID level includes parity calculations?

RAID 5

What is the storage capacity of CD-ROM? (data)

700MB

What is the storage capacity of DVD-ROM?

4.7GB

What is the storage capacity of Dual Layer DVD-ROM?

8.5GB

What is the storage capacity of Blu-Ray Single Layer?

25GB

What is the storage capacity of Blu-Ray Double Layer?

50GB

What is the storage capacity of Blu-Ray Triple Layer?

100GB

What is the storage capacity of Mini CD-ROM? (data)

194MB

What is the video resolution of VGA?

640x480

What is the video resolution of SVGA?

800x600

What is the video resolution of XGA?

1024x768

What is the video resolution of EVGA?

1024x768

What is the video resolution of SXGA?

1280x1024

What is the video resolution of UXGA?

1600x1200

What is the video resolution of WUXGA?

1920x1200

What is the video resolution of HDMI?

1280x1080

What is the video resolution of HDMI 780?

1280x720

Which connection type transmits, video, audio and USB signals to compatible monitors?

DisplayPort

_________ varies above and below zero volts and looks like a sine wave.

Alternating Current (AC)

________ has a constant voltage above or below zero.

Direct Current (DC)

The rate of voltage flow is _______.

Amperage

Voltage x Amperage = ?

Watts

The difference in potential between two points is ________.

Voltage

A ___________ includes 3.3, 5 and 12V DC voltages.

SATA Power Connector

The ____ connector powers the motherboard.

P1

SATA cable connectors have __ pins.

15

Which of the following are requirements of a virtualization workstation?




a) Fast multi-core processor


b) Support for hardware-assisted virtualization


c) High-end video card


d) Large power supply


e) 12-16GB RAM

A, B and E

Which of the following are requirements of a graphic CAD/CAM workstation?




a) Fast multi-core processor


b) Support for hardware-assisted virtualization


c) High-end video card


d) Large power supply


e) 8-16GB RAM

A, C and E

Which of the following are requirements of a audio/video editing workstation?




a) Dual monitors


b) 12-16GB RAM


c) Specialized audio/video card with dedicated processor


d) Large power supply


e) Large, fast hard drive


f) High-end cooling system

A, C, and E

Which of the following are requirements of a gaming PC?




a) Fast multi-core processor


b) High-end cooling system


c) High-end video card with onboard memory


d) Large power supply


e) 12-16GB RAM


f) High-end audio

A, B, C and F

_______ allows network traffic in only one direction at a time.

Half-duplex

_______ allows network traffic in both direction at the same time.

Full-duplex

What purpose do the twists in twisted-pair cables serve?

Prevent signals from crossing over into other wires

Fiber-optic cables use ________ instead of electrical signals.

Light pulses

___________ can travel much farther, have larger bandwidth and are immune to EFI, RFI and crosstalk.

Fiber optic signals

Which network topology uses a central hub or switch that connects to each device?

Star

Which network topology has all devices connected on the same electrical circuit?

Bus

Which network topology has each device connected to two others?

Ring

Which is the most expensive network topology to install?




a) Mesh


b) Star


c) Bus


d) Ring

a) Mesh

Which of the following topologies go down completely if one device or cable fails?




a) Bus


b) Mesh


c) Ring


d) Star

a) Bus and c) Ring

What is the most common network topology?

Star

What is Step 1 of TCP/IP protocol?

TCP protocol breaks data into packets

What is step 2 of TCP/IP protocol?

Packets travel from router to router over the internet according to IP protocol

What is step 3 of TCP/IP protocol?

TCP protocol reassembles the packets into the original data

Which layer in TCP/IP handles addressing?

IP

An IP address is composed of what two components?

Network identifier and host identifier

Which IP address type is 32 bits and has four numbers separated by three dots, with numbers between 0 and 255?

IPv4

Which IP address type is 128 bits that appear as eight groups of four hexadecimal characters separated by colons?

IPv6

______________ differentiate between network and host ID in a given IP address

Subnet masks

255 in a subnet mask corresponds to _________.

The network ID

0 in a subnet mask corresponds to ________.

The host ID

Devices on the internet have registered ________ IP addresses

Public

Devices on internal networks use ________ IP addresses

Private

The range 10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255 corresponds to what class of private IP addresses?




A


B


C

A

The range 172.16.0.0 to 172.31.255.255 corresponds to what class of private IP addresses?




A


B


C

B

The range 192.168.0.0 to 192.168.255.255 corresponds to what class of private IP addresses?




A


B


C

C

_________ addressing refers to direct one-to-one data traffic, or data being sent from one system to another.

Unicast

__________ addressing refers to one-to-all data traffic, or one system sending data to all others on a network.

Broadcast

________ addressing refers to one-to-many traffic, or one system sending data to multiple systems.

Multicast

Which of the following is NOT a type of IPv4 addressing?




a) Broadcast


b) Multicast


c) Midicast


d) Unicast

c) Midicast

__________ is used to dynamically assign IP addresses and other TCP/IP configuration data to devices.

DHCP

A _________ IP address is manually assigned and manually changed.

Static

The well known ports are ports _ to ___.

0 to 1023

In TCP and UDP, port numbers start at _ and end at _.

0; 65,535

Registered ports have numbers between _ and _.

1,024; 49,151

Dynamic ports are numbered _ to _.

49,152 to 65,535

__________ ports are used by internal services and processes.

Dynamic/ephemeral

__________ ports are used by companies to identify applications; many are assigned by IANA.

Registered

____________ ports are used by specific protocols and services and assigned by IANA.

Well-known

FTP protocol's port numbers are _ and _.

20, 21

The port number for both SSH and SSH Port Forwarding is?

22

The port number for Telnet is?

23

The port number for SMTP is?

25

The port number for DNS is?

53

The port number for TFTP is?

69

The port number for RDP is?

3389

The port number for HTTP is?

80

The port number for POP is?

110

The port number for IMAP is?

143

The port number for both HTTPS and SSL is?

443

The port number for SMTPS is?

465

The port number for IMAPS is?

993

The port number for POP3S is?

995

Which protocols are assigned to port number 22?

SSH and SSH Port Forwarding

Which protocols are assigned to port number 443?

HTTPS and SSL

Which protocol has two port numbers, 20 and 21?




(name and abbreviation)

File Transfer Protocol (FTP)

What are the three common encryption protocols?




(name and abbreviation)

Secure Shell (SSH), Transport Layer Security (TLS) and Secure Socket Layer (SSL)

The language used to display web pages is ?




(name and abbreviation)

Hypertext Markup Language (HTTP)

__________ is a primary system of mapping host names to IP addresses.




(name and abbreviation)

Domain Name System (DNS)

________ is used by internal networks to resolve host names to IP addresses.




(name and abbreviation)

Windows Internet Name System (WINS)

____________ protocol is used only in Microsoft networks to connect and log onto remote systems

Remote Desktop

The _________ identifies the default path out of a network (on a router).

Default gateway

The _________ and _________ wireless standards allows speeds up to 54Mbps

802.11a; 802.11g

The _________ wireless standard allows speeds up to 11Mbps

802.11b

The _________ wireless standard allows speeds up to 150Mbps per channel or up to 600Mbps total

802.11n

The upcoming __________ wireless standard allows speeds up to 500Mbps per channel or 1Gbps total

802.11ac

Which wireless protocol allows frequencies of 2.4 AND 5.0Ghz?

802.11n

Which wireless protocols have frequencies of 2.4Ghz?

802.11b and 802.11g

Which wireless protocol has a frequency of 5.0Ghz?

802.11a

Which wireless protocol has a range of ~30m or 100 feet?

802.11a

Which wireless protocol has a range of ~35m or 115 feet?

802.11b

Which wireless protocol has a range of ~38m or 125 feet?

802.11g

Which wireless protocol has a range of up to ~70m or 230 feet?

802.11n

A ____________ has a transmitter and receiver that work as a bridge to a wired network for wireless devices

Wireless access point

A ___________ is a wireless access point with additional features, such as wired connections, internet connectivity, a switch component, DHCP, NAT, etc.

Wireless router

_____________ allows a router to direct messages to particular ports or computers

Port forwarding

_____________ allows a router to direct messages to a particular port for a specific time period

Port triggering

The ______ is a buffer zone configured in the WiFi router that is used to protect systems that have access to the Internet without putting the system directly on the internet




(name and abbreviation)

Demilitarized zone (DMZ)

Step 1 of the laser printer imaging process is called?

Processing

Step 2 of the laser printer imaging process is called?

Charging

Step 3 of the laser printer imaging process is called?

Exposing

Step 4 of the laser printer imaging process is called?

Developing

Step 5 of the laser printer imaging process is called?

Transferring

Step 6 of the laser printer imaging process is called?

Fusing

Step 7 of the laser printer imaging process is called?

Cleaning

During which stage of the laser printing process is toner permanently pressed into the paper?




(name)

Fusing

During which stage of the laser printing process is a print job sent to the raster image processor to create the raster image?

Processing

During which stage of the laser printing process is a negative charge (typically between -500 and -600 VDC) applied to the imaging drum?

Charging

During which stage of the laser printing process is a highly focused laser beam used to expose the imaging drum with the raster image?

Exposing

The charge on the toner particles is ___________

Negative

The charge on the raster image areas of the imaging drum is __________

Positive

The charge on the non-laser etched areas of the imaging drum is ___________

Negative

Two fuser rollers are used to apply ________ and _________ to the toner particles

Heat; pressure

During which stage of the laser printing process is the charge on the imaging drum neutralized?

Cleaning

Which class of fire extinguisher is used to neutralize flammable gases and liquids?




A


B


C


D

B

Which class of fire extinguisher is used to neutralize an electrical fire?




A


B


C


D

C

Which class of fire extinguisher is used to neutralize a paper or wood fire?




A


B


C


D

A