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1588 Cards in this Set

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what immunosuppresant matches the following:

Derivative of 6-MP:
Nephrotoxic in 75% of pts:
Inhibits dihydrofolate reductase:
Derivative of 6-MP: Azathropine
Nephrotoxic in 75% of pts: Cyclosporine (prevent with mannitol)
Inhibits dihydrofolate reductase: MTX
what is the triad of sx of Wernicke's encephalopathy?

Triad for Korsakoff?
Wernicke:
Confusion
Opthalmoplegia
Ataxia

Korsakoff:
Memory Loss
Confabulation
Personality change
what enzyme is deficient in the following dz's?

Fructose intolerance:
essential fructosuria:
classic galactosemia:
Fructose intolerance: aldolase B
essential fructosuria: fructokinase
classic galactosemia: galactose-1-phosphate uridyltransferase
common unerlying cause of intussusception?

no milk production in postpartum period?

Pigmented hamartomas in the iris

Howell-Jolly bodies:
common underlying cause of intussusception: Meckel's diverticulum; adenovirus infection of Peyer's patches

no milk production in postpartum period: Sheehan

Pigmented hamartomas in the iris: NF

Howell-Jolly bodies: Asplenia
what might you see in a first trimester ultrasound of a fetus with Downs
increased nucal translucency
Anti-smooth muscle Abs are assoc with what?
Autoimmune hepatitis
which protozoa fits the following:

Ixodes tick is the vector:
Sodium stibogluconate is the tx:
Maltese cross seen in RBC:
severe diarrhea in AIDS:
Ixodes tick is the vector: bebesia
Sodium stibogluconate is the tx: Leschmania
Maltese cross seen in RBC: Babesia
severe diarrhea in AIDS: cryptosporidium

note: babesia is often a co-infection of Lyme and gives malaria like sx
What genes are responsible for skeletal development?
HOX
what is the result of a glycolytic enzyme def? What is the result of a def in pyruvate dehydrogenase
RBC hemolysis

Neurologic defects
to which lymph nodes does ca in the following areas met to?

Stomach:
Doudenum:
Sigmoid colon:
Rectum:
Testes:
Scrotum:
Stomach: Celiac
Doudenum: Superior mesenteric
Sigmoid colon: Colonic
Rectum: Inf iliac
Testes: para aortic
Scrotum: superficial inguinal
what is responsible for the release of renin?
JG apparatus, specifically the JG cells secrete it, while the macula densa senses the amount of Na
Owl's eye inclusions:
Owl's eye nucleus:
Owl's eye protazoan:
Owl's eye inclusions: CMV
Owl's eye nucleus: Hodgkins
Owl's eye protazoan: Giardia
give the breakdown of your % body water
60% total body water
40% ICF
20% ECF
what ligament contains the portal triad
hepatoduodenal
what is the water under the bridge idea?
ureters pass under the uterine artery or ductus deferens
What happens to CO, BP and GFR in pregnancy
CO: increase

BP: decrease then normalizes

GFR: increase
CL=
UV/P

u-urine conc of X
p=plasma conc of X
v=urine flow rate
what plexus in the digestive tract is responsible for glandular release?

what does motility
glands: Meissner's (submucosal)

motility: Auerbach's (myenteric)
FF=?
GFR/RPF
Name the drug class

Venlafaxine:
Fluvoxamine:
Terbinafine:
Venlafaxine: SNRI
Fluvoxamine: SSRI
Terbinafine: anti fungal for nails
GFR can be estimated with?

RPF?
GFR--creatinine

RPF--PAH
what are Brunner's glands and where are they located? what pathology are they assoc with
secrete alkaline mucus to neutralize acid

located in doudenum

hypertrophy of brunner's glands is seen in PUD
what segment of the renal tubule matches the following statement

reabsorbs 67% of fluid and electrolytes filtered by the glomerulus:

segment responsible for concentrating urine:

site of secretion of organic anions and cations:

always impermeable to water

permeable to water only in the presence of ADH
reabsorbs 67% of fluid and electrolytes filtered by the glomerulus: Prox tub

segment responsible for concentrating urine: Collecting duct

site of secretion of organic anions and cations: Prox

always impermeable to water: ascending loop

permeable to water only in the presence of ADH: collecting duct
most common cause of meningitis for the following age ranges--

newborn-6mo:
6m-6yr:
6y-60:
60+:
newborn-6mo: group b strep, ecoli, listeria

6m-6yr: strep pneumo, n. meningitis, enterovirus

6y-60: n. meningits, s. pneumo, hsv

60+: strep pneumoniea, listeria, G- rods
what segment of the renal tubule matches the following statement

site of Na/2Cl/K cotransport:

site of isotonic fluid reabsorption:

site responsible for diluting urine:

only site where glucose and amino acids are reabsorbed:

water reabsorption in the loop of henle:
site of Na/2Cl/K cotransport: ascending loop

site of isotonic fluid reabsorption: prox tub

site responsible for diluting urine: thick ascending

only site where glucose and amino acids are reabsorbed: prox tub

water reabsorption in the loop of henle: thin descending
what are Peyer's Patches? where are they
produce IgA to protect gut from pathogens

found only in the ileum
where are Ca and Mg reabsorbed? What happens with water here
Thick ascending limb

water cannot get in
CL=
(Vd x .7)/halflife
where in the kidney does PTH have its effect on Ca?
leads to calcium reabsorption in the early distal tubule
describe where the nerve,artery, vein, and lymph are in the femoral region
from Lateral to medial

Nerve-Artery-Vein-Empty Space-Lymph

NAVEL

venous near the penis
what is the role of principle cells and intercalated cells? where does this occur
Principle: reabsorb H2O/Na, secrete K

Intercalated cells: secrete H/HCO3, reabsorb K

collecting duct
underlies all other defense mechanisms
Repression
What are the 2 types of intercalated cells
Alpha: secrete Acid

Beta: secrete bicarb
describe where hernias occur with respect to the appropriate vessel
MDs don't LIe

Medial to the inferior epigastric=Direct hernia

Lateral to the inferior epigastric artery=Indirect
what affect does aldosterone have on the intercalated cells and principle cells of the collecting duct?
intercalated: stimulates H secretion

principle: Na reabsorption and K secretion
LD=?

MD=?
LD= Css x Vd

MD= Cl x Css
tx for hyperkalemia?
Insulin to shift K into cells

must also give glucose to prevent hypoglycemia
which type of hernia goes through the inguinal (Hesselbach's) triangle? what rings does it go through? who is it seen in more often?
Direct

external (superficial) ring only

older men
what diuretic would you use for a woman with HTN and osteoporosis?
Thiazide

saves Ca
what type of vasculitis is associated with young asthmatics?

necrotizing immune complex inflammation of visceral/renal vessels:
Churg Strauss

necrotizing immune complex inflammation of visceral/renal vessels: PAN
what is the acid base disorder

pH: 7.42
HCO3: : 32
pCO2: 64
Mixed

normal pH: 7.35-7.4
normal pCO2: 35-45
normal HCO3: 22
which type of hernia goes into the scrotum? what rings does it go through? who is it seen in more often?
Indirect

internal (deep) and external (superficial) inguinal rings

infants
what is the acid base disorder

pH: 7.66
HCO3: 36
pCO2: 30
combined alk

normal pH: 7.35-7.4
normal pCO2: 35-45
normal HCO3: 22
Vd=
drug IV / [drug in plasma]
what is the acid base disorder

pH: 7.10
HCO3: : 15
pCO2: 50
Combined acidosis

normal pH: 7.35-7.4
normal pCO2: 35-45
normal HCO3: 22
What do G cells make?

I cells?

S cells?

D cells?

what does each do (in general)
What do G cells make: Gastrin

I cells: CCK (protein/Fatty acids)

S cells: Secretin (anti-acid)

D cells: Somatostatin (anti-everything)
what is the acid base disorder

pH: 7.34
HCO3: : 31
pCO2: 62
resp acid with compensation

normal pH: 7.35-7.4
normal pCO2: 35-45
normal HCO3: 22
TX for the following:

Trypanosoma:
Leishmania:
Entamoeba:
Toxoplasma:
Trypanosoma: Nifurtimox
Leishmania: sodium stiboglugonate
Entamoeba: Met
Toxoplasma: Sulfdiazine Pyrimethamine
what is the acid base disorder

pH: 7.39
HCO3: : 12
pCO2: 22
mixed

normal pH: 7.35-7.4
normal pCO2: 35-45
normal HCO3: 22
what is necessary to take up B12? where does this occur
Intrinsic factor

ileum
what is the equation of anion gap?
Na - (Cl + HCO3)
antidote for t-PA streptokinase
amniocarpoic acid
what are the causes of increased anion gap
MUDPILES

Methanol (formic acid)
Uremia
Diabetic ketoacidosis
Paraldehyde/phenformin
Iron tablets or INH
Lactic acidosis
Ethylene glycol (oxalic acid)
Salicylates
what 3 things can lead to acid release in a gastric parietal cell? What are their 2nd messangers?
ACh: Gq/IP3
Gastrin: Gq/IP3
Histamine: cAMP
where do type 1, 2, and 4 RTA occur? what are K levels like
1: distal (collecting tubule can't excrete H); hypokalemia

Type 2: proximal (defect in prox tubule HCO3 reabsorption); hypokalemia

type 3: hypoaldosteronism or lack of collecting tubule response to aldosterone, hyperkalemic
tx for TCA cardiotox?

theophylline cardiotox?
TCA: alakalinize the urine/plasma

Theophylline: B-blocker
what effect will a renal stone that obstructs the ureter have on GFR and FF?
decrease both
hypercalcemia
Phenylalanine
Tryptaphan

can all activate what type of GI cell leading to release of what?
G cell

Gastrin
what is the maximal serum glucose conc at which glucose can be absorbed in the tubules
350micro grams/dL
where does fetal erythropoiesis take place
yolk sac
liver/spleen
marrow
what change in the metabolic panel might you see in a young pt on a B-agonist for status asthmaticus?
B-agonists will lead to hypokalemia
MOA of cimetidine?

Use?

Tox?
H2 blocker

PUD, gastritis, GERD

inhibit P450, gynecomastia
What diuretic can be used in the following situations:

Edema a/w nephrotic syndrome:
Increased intracranial pressure:
Edema a/w nephrotic syndrome: Loop

Increased intracranial pressure: Mannitol
what class of drug is :

Lamivudine:

Cefprozil
Lamivudine: NRTI

Cefoprozil: 2nd gen ceph
what type of diuretic are the following

Bumetanide:
Metolazone:
Bumetanide: Loop
Metolazone: Thiazide
MOA of omeprazole
Irreversibly inhibit H/K/ATPase in stomach/parietal cells

PUD, gastritis, GERD, ZE
if you have casts in the urine what does this tell you in general
that the problem is in the kidney
what is dipalmitoyl phosphatidylcholine?
surfactant
most common glomerular dz in HIV pts
FSGS
What is the triple therapy for H. pylori
MCAT

Metronidazole
Cimitidine
Amoxicillin
Tetracycline

FA also says Bismuth
EM shows tram-track. what is this and what is it associated with?
type I MPGN--associated with HBV and HCV

(also: SLE, subacute bacterial endocardititis, mixed cryoglobulinemia)
classic clinical presentation of thyroglossal duct cyst (where is it and does it move)
midline

moves on swallowing
EM shows dense deposits. What is this an what is it associated with?
MPGN type II

C3 nephritic factor
Prevention of NSAID induced peptic ulcers
Misoprostol
what 3 things can lead to using up complement?
Post strep
MPGN type II
SLE
a pregnant mom has eclampsia and appears that she is close to death. What might you measure in a baby to try and access fetal lung maturity? what shows that they are mature
lecithin-to-sphinogmyelin ratio of >2.0
which glomerular dz causes the following:

IF: granular pattern of immune complex deposition; LM: hyperceullar glomeruli:

LM: Segmental sclerosis and hyalinosis:
IF: granular pattern of immune complex deposition; LM: hyperceullar glomeruli: Acute post strep

LM: Segmental sclerosis and hyalinosis: FSGS
the following are antacids, what are the key side effects associated:

Aluminum hydroxide:

Magnesium hydroxide

Calcium carbonate
Aluminum hydroxide: constipation, seizure

Magnesium hydroxide: diarrhea, cardiac arrest

Calcium carbonate: hyerpcalcemia, and chelation of other drugs (tetracyclines)
GLomerular histology reveals multiple mesangial nodules. What is this indicactive of?
Diabetic glomerulonephropathy
what nerve is responsible for erection
pelvic

remember this is parasympathetic

Pelivic, Parasymp, Point
4 yo with facial edema and proteinuria. Tx?
this is MC

Corticosteroids
what provides parasympathetic innervation to the following:

Parotid:
Submandibular:
Sublingual:
Parotid: CN IX (tympanic nerve branch)

Submandibular: CN VII

Sublingual: CN VII
proteus causes stag horn calculi, what is the content of these stones
Ammonium magnesium phosphate
where are you most likely to aspirate a peanut
right lung

shorter, wider, taller bronchus
pt with gout or leukemia is likely to get what kind of kidney stone
uric acid
what is the most common location of malignant salivary tumor? benign?
ca: Sublingual

benign: parotid
what happens in acute interstitial nephritis? what will you see? what is it due to?
acute renal failure
will see eosinophillia

due to drugs (1-2 weeks after administration

kids: ABX
adults: NSAIDs

tx: 2 weeks corticosteroids
what 2 aneurysms causes the eye to look down and out
post cerebral artery (Weber syndrome)

posterior communicating

both cause CN III palsy
+4 blood in urine, no RBC on urine cell count...
Rhabdomyolysis / myoglobinuria
what makes up Hesselbach's triangle?
Inguinal ligament
Inferior epigastric a
Lateral border rectus abdominus
what causes prerenal azotemia? what will BUN/Cr be like?
decreased RBF (hypotension: dehydration,shock,renal vasoconstriction, hepatorenal syndrome)

BUN/Cr >20 (BUN is really high because you are trying to hang on to everything)
what perforates the diaphragm at different levels
I ate ten eggs at 12

T8: IVC

T10: Esophagus

T12: Aortic hiatus
what causes intrinsic renal failure? BUN/cr lvls?
acture tubular necrosis or ischemia/toxins

<15
treatment to this problem includes plasmapheresis and phototherapy
Criegler najar I
what causes post renal azotemia? what is BUN/Cr like?
outflow obstruction (stones, BPH, neoplasia, congenital anomalies)

>15
currant jelly stool
Intusucception
sorry, i couldn't help myself...

what are the 2 most common causes of chronic kidney dz
HTN

Diabetes
PAS (Periodic acid-Schiff stain) positive macrophages in intestial lamina propria. Man with joint pain, and neurologic and cardiac sx
Whipple's dz (Tropheryma whipplei--Gram-positive Actinobacteria)

Abx 10 days, 1 year TMP-SMX
ADPKD vs ARPKD

leads to potters:
hepatic fibrosis:
polycystic liver dz:
Berry aneurysms:
death can be due to malignant HTN:
leads to potters: AR
hepatic fibrosis: AR
polycystic liver dz: AD
Berry aneurysms: AD
death can be due to malignant HTN: (i had a question on this, it was an adult, and this is what killed him, so I am saying AD for now)
HYQ: pt in ER is having anaphylaxis--> you make an incision beneath thyroid cartilage to establish airway--> what strucutre was cut
Cricothyroid membrane
U waves on ECG is due to what
Low K
antibody to tissue translutaminase body
Celiac sprue

also antibodies to gliadin

leads to blunting of villi

can't eat wheat

assoc with dermatitis herpetiformis

increased T cell lymphoma risk

primarily affects jejunum (increase folate)
disoreintation stupor, or coma is assoc with what ion?
Na
aneurysm may cause bilateral loss of lateral visual fields
ant communicating
pt is getting an infusion with substance X. Later the pt has decreased DTRs, delirium, and cardiopulmonary arrest. What was substance X
Mg
describe type A and type B chronic gastritis (cause, location)
A: Autoimmune, fundus/body

B: H. pylori, antrum (increased risk of MALT lymphoma)
most common tumor of the urinary tract system?

histological appearance of renal cell ca?

histological appearance of chronic pyelonehpritis?

can assoc with schistosoma haematobium?
most common tumor of the urinary tract system: TCC

histological appearance of renal cell ca: Polygomal Clear Cell

histological appearance of chronic pyelonehpritis: Thyroidsim

can assoc with schistosoma haematobium: Bladder SCC
what is the protein problem in Kartageners
Dynenin arm defect

messes up cillia

look for sinus invertus
IF granular pattern of immune complex deposition; LM: diffuse capillary thickening
Membranous
Rugae are hypertrophied to look like brain gyri
Menetrier's dz
IF granular pattern of immune complex deposition; LM: hypercellular glomeruli
Post strep glomerulinephritis
what nerve is responsible for emission?

what about ejac?
emission: hypogastric

ejac: pudendal

both are sympathetic
HYQ: CT scan reveals massively enlarged kidneys bilaterally. Diagnosis?
ADPCKD
pain worse with meals, pt will be anorexic...what type of ulcer
Gastric

(doudenal is soothed by eating, will see weight gain)
what is responsible for the biconcave shape and flexibility of RBCs
spectrin
why do ACEi cause cough
ACE normally breaks down bradykinin

ACEi inhibits this and increased bradykinin leads to cough
Anisocytos=

Poikilocytosis=
Anisocytos= varying RBC size

Poikilocytosis= varying RBC shape
aside from reflux and chemicals, what 3 things can cause esophagitis
HSV
CMV
Candida
survival time of RBCs?

platelets?
RBC=120

Platelets=8-10

days
contralateral spastic hemiparesis
contralateral tactile and kinesthetic defect
tongue deviates toward lesion

where is the lesion? what artery is affedted
medial medullary syndrome

anterior spinal artery
what is the DNAAACP for eosinophils
Drugs
Neoplasm
Asthma
Allergic process
Addisons
Collagen vascular dz
Parasites
LLQ pain, fever, leukocytosis with bright red bleeding
Diverticulitis

tx is Abx (think about TMP-SMX + Met)
what type of cell are barr bodies in?
Neutrophils
What are the phagocytes for the following locations:

Brain:
Liver:
Joint:
Lung:
Brain: microglia
Liver: kupffer cell
Joint: A cells
Lung: Dust cells
3 common causes of small bowel obstruction
Adhesions (previous surgery)
Bluge/Hernia
Cancer/Tumors
what cell traditionally has memory and plays a role in immunizations

*
B lymphocyte
protozoal.helminth that matches the following:

Most common protozoal infection in US:

Most common helminithic in US:

snail host: swimmers itch:

transmitted in raw meat or infected cat feces
Most common protozoal infection in US: Giardia

Most common helminithic in US: Pinworm; enterobuis vermicularis

snail host: swimmers itch: Schistosoma


transmitted in raw meat or infected cat feces: toxoplasmosis
what is the bridge btw coagulation and complement pathway
factor XII
besides idiopathic what is another major cause of intussusception
Adenovirus--infects the Peyer's patches

look for red currant jelly stool (yummy)
why do you get purple toes etc with starting Warfarin
while warfarin will eventually inhibit 10,9,7,2, they accutely inhibit C and S leading to hypercoaguability

give Heparin for first few days to prevent this
contralateral loss of pain and temp, hoarseness, Horner;s...what is this due to?
PICA--Wallenbergs

lateral medullary syndrome
MOA of heparin
inhibits thrombin (factor II)

co factor of antithrombin
what is the embroylogic reason for Hirschsprungs dz?
Failure of neural crest cell
warfarin or heparin

which if either can be used in pregnancy
Heparin
how do you calculate physiologic dead space
VD= Tidal volume x (PaCO2-PeCO2)/PaCO2
pt is on anticoagulant and develops thrombocytopenia which was it?

Tx? MOA?
heparin- Heparin induced thrombocytopenia (causes hypercoaguable state)

Lepiruidn or bivalirudin--directly inhibit thrombin
pt has stomach distention with "double bubble". What would you see as a sx? what is this associated with
bilious vomiting

Down Syndrome

this is duodenal atresia
what drug inhibits ADP induced expression of GpIIb/IIIa
Clopidogrel

Ticlopidine
what does pulmonary fibrosis , insufficient surfactant, and pulmonary edema do to lung compliance?

Emphysema?
Decrease

Emphysema: increase
what are the following RBCs seen in

Basophilic stippling:

Bite Cells:

Schistocyte/helmet cell:

Target Cells:

Heinz bodies:

Howell-Jolly bodies:
Basophilic stippling: Lead

Bite Cells: G6PD

Schistocyte/helmet cell: DIC/TTP/HUS/traumatic hemolysis

Target Cells: HbC dz, Asplenia, liver dz, thalassemia (THAL)

Heinz bodies: G6PD def

Howell-Jolly bodies: asplenia (sickle cell, ITP, splenic trauma)
what 2 things can cause failure to pass meconium?
Hirschsprungs
CF
what is the change in the Hb of sickle cell
Glu-->Val in B chain
what structure in the seminiferous tubule secretes androgen binding protein, anti-mullerian hormone, and inhibin?

what hormone activates these
Sertoli cell

makes the blood testis barrier

support sperm synthesis

FSH
4 causes of microcytic hypochromic anemia...what is the MCV
MCV<80

Iron def
Thalassemia
Lead poisoning
sideroblastic

CKD -apparently starts normocytic
old man with pain after eating and bloody stool
ischemic colitis
marrow hyperplasia leading to chipmunk facies and crew cut xray
B-thal major
which form of hemoglobin is better for carrying O2? dumping it?

what factors lead to dumping O2?

what way does this move the O2 curve
carry: relaxed

dump: taut
-low pH/increase H, 2,3 BPG, increased temp & CO2

shift to the right
tx for lead poisoning in adults/kid
adult: dimercaprol

kid: succimer
What drug is used for the tx of diabetic and post surgery gastroparesis? MOA? Tox?

*
Metaclopramide

D2 receptor antagonist (increase resting tone, contractility, LES tone, motlility)

Tartive dyskinesia (also lowers seizure threshold)
hypocellular bone marrow with fatty infiltration....
Aplastic anemia

(pancytopenia--anemia, neutropenia, and thrombocytopenia)
Ipsilateral facial n paralysis, ipsilateral loss of taste from ant 2/3 tongue, ipsilateral dearness and tinnitus, nystagmus. Ipsilateral loss of pain/temp with ipsilateral horners

what is this and what artery
Lateral inferior pontine syndrome

AICA
if you have sickle cell or hereditary spherocytosis, what can lead to aplastic crisis?
parvo B19
pt with hyperpigmented mouth, lips, hands and genitalia. What else will you see? How is this dz inherited? Increased risk of?
This is Peutz-Jeghers

nonmalignant hamartomas throughout the GI tract

AD

increased risk of CRC and other visceral malignancies
what can you use in the treatment of sickle cell anemia?
Hydroxyurea to increase HbF

bone marrow transplant is curative
what treats Methemoglobin
Methylene blue (or vit C)
what are the 5 causes of megaloblastic anemia
Methotrexate
AZT
Phenytoin
Liver dz
Ethanol

MAPLE
list was is altered btw each step

Normal colon --( )-->Colon at risk-( )-->Adenoma--( )-->Carcinoma
normal colon

LOSS of APC

colon at risk

K-RAS MUTATION

adenoma

LOSS of p53

Caricinoma
what is the cause of anemia given the following statement:

Microcytic anemia reversible with B6:

HIV positive pt with macrocytic anemia:

normocytic anemia and elevated creatinine :
Microcytic anemia reversible with B6: sideroblastic anemia

HIV positive pt with macrocytic anemia: Zidovudine

normocytic anemia and elevated creatinine : kidney failure
what anti-hypertensive drug cause the following:

Dry mouth, sedation, severe rebound HTN:

Metabolic alkalosis:
Dry mouth, sedation, severe rebound HTN: Clonidine

Metabolic alkalosis: Loop diuretic
pt presents with painful abdomen, port red urine, polyneuropathy, and psychological disturbances. What is this and what drug might they be on? enzyme affected
Acture intermittent porphyria

Barbiturates

porphobilinogen deaminase
what causes FAP? What does it lead to? What is always involved? What other physical symptom will you see
AD mutation of APC gene

100% progress to CRC

always involves rectum

Pigmented lesions on retina
man presents with blisters on sun exposed areas of his body and he has darkening of his face with a large amount of hair. What does he have? affected enzyme?
Porphyria cutanea tarda

Uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase
how can methemoglobin tx cynaide poisoning? how do you get this methemoglobin
Nitrites oxidize hemoglobin to methemoglobin (Fe 3)

this then binds up cyanide
decreased Gp1b-->defect in platelet to collagen adhesions
Bernard soulier dz
FAP + osseous and soft tissue tumors, retinal hyperplasia
Gardner's syndrome
GpIIb/IIIa antibodies-->peripheral platelet destruction
Idiopathic thrmobocytopenic purpura (ITP)
contralateral hemianopia with macular sparing
posterior cerebral artery
decreased GpIIb/IIIa -->defect in platelet to platelet aggregation
Glanzmann's thrombasthenia
HYQ: 40 year old woman presents wtih having to defecate 4 times a day for several months with a constant low grade abdominal pain that is somewhat relieved by defectaion. Colonoscopy is normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?
IBS
pt has neurologic and renal sx, fever, thrombocytopenia, and microangiopathic hemolytic anemia...what does he have? what is deficient?
Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP)

def of ADAMTS 13 (vWF metalloprotease)-->degrades vWF thrombosis
HYQ:

42 yo woman with fibroids is chronically tired. Most likely diagnosis? changes that have occured in the O2 content and sat?
Anemia

No change in O2 content or sat
what are some of the causes of DIT
STOP Making New Thrombi

Sepsis (G-)
Trauma
Obstetric
Pancreatitis
Malignancy
Nephrotic syndrome
Transfusion
HYQ: 50 yo man complains of diarrhea. On exam, his face is plethoric and a heart murmur is detected. What is diagnosis
Carcinoid
What is the rate-limiting step in heme synthesis
aminolevulinic acid synthase
what cell in men secretes testosterone

what hormone activates these cells
leydig

LH
what are the following tests associated with:

Hams:
DEB:
Heinz body:
D-Dimer:
Basophilic stippling:
Osmotic fragility test:
(+) ristocetin test:
Hams: Paroxsymal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
DEB: Fanconi's anemai
Heinz body: G6PD
D-Dimer: DIC
Basophilic stippling: Thalassemia, ACD, Iron def, LEAD POISONING
Osmotic fragility test: hereditary spherocytosis
(+) ristocetin test: vWF dz
tx for esophageal varicies?
B-blockers

(propranolol or nadolol)
Hodgkin vs Non-Hodgkin

Reed-Sternberg Cells
Bimodal distribution:
Assoc with HIV
B symptoms:
Mostly involves B cells:
Peripheral nodes, noncontiguous spread:
Local nodes: contiguous spread:
Reed-Sternberg Cells: H
Bimodal distribution: H
Assoc with HIV: NH
B symptoms: H
Mostly involves B cells: NH
Peripheral nodes, noncontiguous spread: NH
Local nodes: contiguous spread: H
HTN Pt is shown to have hypoxia and CXR reveals an enlarged heart..most likely cause of hypoxia?
Heart failure
what is the most common type of AML and the translocation associated?
M3 type

t(15,17)
increased PT/INR, decreased LDL/HDL, and decreased platelets...what might be the cause
Liver failure
Leukemia buzzwords:

Smudge cell:
Children:
TRAP:
Philadelphia chromosome:
Auer Rods:
Smudge cell: CLL
Children: ALL
TRAP: Hairy cell
Philadelphia chromosome: CML
Auer Rods: AML
what cerebral artery can lead to bitemporal hemianopia?
Anterior communicating a
What is most likely to cause progression to AML
CML
what is the size cut off for micro and macronodular cirrhosis? what is the cause for each
micro: nodules <3mm, metabolic insult (alcohol, hemochromatosis, wilsons)

macro: >3mm, liver injury (postinfectious or drug induced hepatitis)
What drug targets the Philadelphia chromosome? what is this treating?
Imatinib

CML
what constitutes pulmonary HTN (pressures)
resting >25mmHg

or >35 during exercise
what leukemia/lymphoma is most likely to cause bone pain
ALL
ALT>AST =

AST>ALT =
ALT>AST = viral hepatitis

AST>ALT = alcoholic hepatitis
Birbeck granules ("tennis rackets" on EM)
Langerhans cell histiocytosis
what thalamic nuclei is assoc with the following:

cerebellum (dentate nuc) and basal ganglia--> motor cortex

mamillothalamic tract--> cingulate gyrus

integration of visual auditory, and somesthetic input:

Memory loss results if destroyed
cerebellum (dentate nuc) and basal ganglia--> motor cortex: VL

mamillothalamic tract--> cingulate gyrus: anterior nucleus

integration of visual auditory, and somesthetic input: pulvinar

Memory loss results if destroyed: medial dorsal
woman says she itches when she is in the shower. She says she has pain in her hands/fingers that is relieved with aspirin. what does she have
polycythemia vera
how do kids get reyes syndrome
have viral infection (especially VZV or influenza B) and they are given salicylates

causes hepatoencephalopathy
give the hematological dz that matches the following:

AML assoc with Downs:

Leukemia with more mature cells and less than 5% blasts:

PAS + acute leukemia:
AML assoc with Downs: M7 AML

Leukemia with more mature cells and less than 5% blasts: Chronic leukemia

PAS + acute leukemia: ALL
inactivation of the BMPR2 gene will lead to what?

**
Primary pulmonary HTN

this gene normally inhibits vascular smooth muscle proliferation

poor prognosis
give the hematological dz that matches the following:

Greater than 20% blasts in marrow:

myleodysplastic/proliferative disorders may progress to:

numerous basophils, splenomegaly, and negative for leukocyte alkaline phosphatase (LAP):
Greater than 20% blasts in marrow: acute leukemia

myleodysplastic/proliferative disorders may progress to: AML

numerous basophils, splenomegaly, and negative for leukocyte alkaline phosphatase (LAP): CML
what causes nutmeg liver
right sided HF and Budd-Chiari syndrome
give the hematological dz that matches the following:

most common neonatal leukemia:

associated with the BCR-ABL genes:

assoc with sjogren, hashimoto's thyroiditis, and h pylori:
most common neonatal leukemia: M7 AML

associated with the BCR-ABL genes: CML

assoc with sjogren, hashimoto's thyroiditis, and h pylori: Marginal cell MALToma
Patient is aware and awake but cannot move or communicate verbally due to complete paralysis of nearly all voluntary muscles in the body except for the eyes
Basilar

locked in syndrome

CN III is spared
give the hematological dz that matches the following:

acute leukemia positive for peroxidase:

solid sheets of lymphoblasts in marrow:

PAS (-) acute leukemia:
give the hematological dz that matches the following:

acute leukemia positive for peroxidase: AML

solid sheets of lymphoblasts in marrow: ALL

PAS (-) acute leukemia: AML
What is Budd-Chiari syndrome
occlusion of the IVC or hepatic veins leading to congestive liver dz

absence of JVD distinguishes it from CHF
describe the following in DIC

BT:
PT:
PTT:
Platelet count:
BT: increase
PT: increase
PTT: increase
Platelet count: decrease
MOA of Bosentan?

Use
competitively antagonize endothelin 1 receptors

decrease pulmonary vascular resistance (Pulmonary HTN)
HYQ: 11 year old child presents with a chronic non-healing ulcer on his foot and imaging shows a small calcified spleen. What drug can improve his sx?
This is sickle cell

Hydroxyurea
alpha 1 antitrypsin def leads to 2 problems...where
lungs (panacinar emphysema)

and hepatocellular ER
what accumulates if you have a failure of Meiosis I? II?
I: primary spermatocytes

II: secondary spermatocytes
compare primary biliary cirrhosis and primary sclerosing cholangitis in the following ways

Autoimmune:
p-ANCA
AMA:
Men:
Women
Assoc with autoimmune:
Increased risk of cholangiocarcinoma:
Autoimmune: PBC
p-ANCA: PSC
AMA: PBC
Men: PSC
Women: PBC
Assoc with autoimmune: PBC
Increased risk of cholangiocarcinoma: PSC
PAO2=
150 - (PACO2/.8)
Cirrhosis
Diabetes mellitus
Skin pigmentation

what is this? what can lead to this?
Hemochromatosis

chronic transfusion therapy (B-thal or sickle cell)

increased ferritin, iron, and decreased TIBC
Nimodipine is a CCB that can be used to tx what
vasospasm of blood vessels due to subarachnoid hemorrhage
60 year old female with rheumatoid arthritis and no alcohol history presents with fatigue and right abdominal pain, lab studies reveal high levels of ANA and ASMA, elevated serum IgG lvls, and no viral serologic markers
Autoimmune hepatitis
What is the difference btw hypoxemia and hypoxia and ischemia?
Hypoxemia: decreased alveloar O2 content

Hypoxia: decreased O2 delivery to tissue

Ischemia: loss of blood flow
LKM1 antiboides=
Autoimmune hep

Anti-liver kidney microsome type 1 antibody
inhibits ribonucleotide reductase
hydroxyurea
total or subtotal atrophy of the small bowel villi, plasma cells, and lymphocyte infiltration into the lamina propria and epithelium and hyperplasia/elongation of crypts
Celiac sprue
compare V/Q at the base and apex of the lung
Base=.6 (wasted perfusion)

Apex=3 (wasted ventilation)

note: both ventialation and perfusion are greater at the base of the lung than at the apex
ERCP reveals alternating strictures and dilation
Primary sclerosing cholangitis
shaken baby syndrome will cause what type of hematoma
subdural

also associated with falls
What type of stone is seen in pts with alcoholic cirrhosis, advanced age and biliary infection?

what about obesity, chrons, cystic fibrosis, native american origin:
What type of stone is seen in pts with alcoholic cirrhosis, advanced age and biliary infection: Pigment stones

what about obesity, chrons, cystic fibrosis, native american origin: Cholesterol stones
what is going on when V/Q approaches zero? can you tx with O2?

what is going on when V/Q is near infinity? can you tx with O2?
what is going on when V/Q approaches zero: airway obstruction (shunt) can you tx with O2: NO

what is going on when V/Q is near infinity: blood flow obstruction (physioloic dead space) can you tx with O2: yes
Murphy's sign will show what
Cholecystitis-inflammation of the gallbladder

insipratory arrest on deep palpation due to pain
MOA of flutamide?

Use?
competitive inhibitor of androgens at the testosterone receptor

prostate cancer
air seen in biliary tree imaging...cause?
gallstone
Opening snap
mitral stenosis
what causes acute pancreatitis

2 major complications?
GET SMASHED

Gallstones
Ethanol
Trauma
Steroids
Mumps
Autoimmune dz
Scorpion sting
Hypercalcemia/Hyperlipidemia
ERCP
Drugs

DIC and ARDS
what leads to parenchymal hematoma?

where do they occur?
HTN

basal ganglia and internal capsule
pt comes in with steatorrhea, vitamin D deficiency, and DM. What would you likely see in his history
Alcoholism

this is chronic pancreatitis
most common opportunistic infection in AIDS
pneumoncystis jiroveci pneumonia
what is Courvoisier's sign? what is it associated with?
obstructive jaundice with palpable gallbladder

pancreatic adenocarcinoma

note: this is assoc with cigs, but not EtOH
use of macrolides
Pneumonia
URI
STDS
MOA of ondansetron?

use?

tox?
5HT3 antagonist

post op vomiting (or cancer pts doing chemo, or morning sickness)

headache (remember sumatriptan relieved headaches)
osteomyelitis with IV drug use
pseudomonas or S. aureus
DOC for morning sickness in preggo lady
Ondansetron

5HT3 antagonist
what type of hemorrhage would be seen in a newborn
Intraventricular hemorrhage in the newborn
what are the tumor markers for pancreatic cancer (2)
Ca 19-9

CEA
most common malignant ovarian tumor? marker? histo finding?
Serous Cystadenocarcinoma

CA125

Psommoma body
most common salivary tumor? second? most common location?
pleomorphic adenoma
mucoepidermoid carcinoma
parotid gland

(warthin is second most common benign)
T/F with BPH you have hypertrophy of the prostate
FALSE

Hyperplasia
triad of hemochromatosis?
Cirrhosis
DM
Skin pigmentation
give the most common pt with

ALL
CLL
AML
CML
ALL: child
CLL: adult over 60
AML: adult over 60
CML: adult 35-50
difference btw wet and dry beri beri?

what are they due to?
Dry: neuopathy with myelin degeneration (toe drop, wrist drop foot drop, muscle weakness)

Wet: peripheral vasodilation-->high-output cardiac failure-->peripheral edema (cardiomegaly)

B1 thiamine deficiency
a young obese female with headaches that are worst in the morning and papilledema....How do you diagnose this problem
elevated CSF pressure

Pseudotumor cerebri

first line tx is acetazolamide (also consider removing vitamin A)
give the name of the following vitamins:

B1:
A:
B5:
B6:
E:
B1: thiamine
A: retinal
B5: pantothenic acid
B6: pyridoxine
E: alpha-tocopherol
Philideplphia chromosome t(9;22) (bcr-abl)
CML
give the other name:

B9
B3
B2
C
B12
B9: Folic acid
B3: Niacin
B2: Riboflavin
C: ascorbic acid
B12: cobalamin
ligament that connects ovary to lateral pelvic wall:

ligament that connects uterine fundus to labia majora:

connectes uterus, fallopian tubes, and ovaries to side wall

ovary to lateral uterus

cervix to side wall of pelvis
ligament that connects ovary to lateral pelvic wall: Suspensory

ligament that connects uterine fundus to labia majora: Round

connectes uterus, fallopian tubes, and ovaries to side wall: Broad

ovary to lateral uterus: Ligament of the ovary

cervix to side wall of pelvis: Cardinal
pt has fissuring at the corner of the mouth along with glossitis and dermatitis...what is deficient
Riboflavin
iron
niacin
folate
B12
most common Primary tumor arising in bone (adults)
multiple myeloma
small child with swollen belly...what is the problem
Kwashiorkor--protein malnutrition

will have skin lesions and edema

Kwashi is squashy (edema)
Oligoclonal bands are seen in what?

what is the gold standard of diagnosing this problem?
Multiple sclerosis

MRI
energy malnutrition resulting in tissue and muscle wasting
marasmus

complete nutrient deficiency
most common cause of primary hyperaldosteronism
adenoma of adrenal cortex
HYQ: vitamin c is necessary for the hydroxylation of which amino acids in collagen synthesis?
Proline and Lysine
alpha 1 antagonist used to treat BPH?
Tamsulosin

hits the alpha 1AD receptor specific to prostate
What vitamins have a function similar to reduced gluathione?
E
A
C
top 3 causes of primary hyperparathyroidism
Adenoma
Hyperplasia
Carcinoma
HYQ: an alcoholic develops a rash, diarrhea, and altered mental status. What does he have and what is the causes
Pellegra

B3 deficiency

(could be hartnups!)
muscle weakness and atrophy with CSF showing lymphocytic pleocytosis with elevation of protein
Poliomyelitis
which vitamin deficiency matches the following description:

Increased RBC fragility:

Peripheral neuropathy, angular cheliosis, glossititis:

Bitot's spots, keratomalacia, xerophthalmia:
Increased RBC fragility: E

Peripheral neuropathy: B12

Bitot's spots, keratomalacia, xerophthalmia: vitamin A
most common cause of pulmonary HTN
COPD
Which vitamin matches the following statement:

Can be used to treat acne and psoriasis:

used in oxidation/reduction reactions:

given prophylactically to newborns:

can be sued to elevate HDL and lower LDL:
Can be used to treat acne and psoriasis: vitamin A

used in oxidation/reduction reactions: Niacin/ riboflavin (b3)

given prophylactically to newborns: vitamin K

can be sued to elevate HDL and lower LDL: Niacin
melanocytes and chromafin cells are made from what?
Neural crest
what are the sx of zinc deficiency
poor wound healing, hair loss
recurrent inflammation/thrombosis of small/medium vessles in extremities
Buerger's dz (smoking)
what vitamins should vegetarian hippies supplement in their diet
B12
tx for acute scanning speech, intention tremor, and nystagumus?

chronic
this is acute MS

acute: corticosteroids

chronic: B-interferon
S3 is associated with what
Increased ventricular filling (L->R shunt, mitral regurg, LV failure, CHF)

Think ventricular dilation

dilated cardiomyopathy
what BPH drugs work fastest? Which will lower your PSA
fastest: alpha blockers

lower PSA: 5alpha reductase inhibitors
S4 is associated with what
Stiff/hypertrophic ventricle

(aortic stenosis, restrictive cardiomyopathy)
What happens in internuclear ophthalmoplegia?

what is this associated with?

will convergence be normal?
lesion in the medial longitudinal fasiculus

medial rectus palsy on attempted lateral gaze

assoc with MS

convergence is normal, the medial rectus works, its just a problem in the MLF
major cause of secondary hyperparathyroidism
hypocalcemia of chronic kidney dz (can't make vit D)
what cell is affected by LH and FSH respectively in females? Which does each make
LH-->Theca-->Androstendione (has 17alpha)

FSH-->Granulosa-->Estrogen (has aromatase)
most common cause of SIADH
small cell carcinoma of the lung
defect in superoxide dismutase 1 is associated with what?

tx?
ALS (upper and lower MN dmg)

Riluzole
most common site of diverticula
sigmoid colon
what will happen with PSA in prostate cancer
decreased fraction of free PSA
most common sites of atherosclerosis
abdomina aorta
coronory a
popliteal
carotid
pt with staggering gait, frequent falling, nsytagmus, hammertoes.
Autsomal recessive trinucleotide repeat...

Freidreich's ataxia (frataxin gene--FRAT)
most common stomach ca
adenocarcinoma
Hemosiderinuria + thrombosis =
Paraoxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
T(14,18):

t (8; 14):

t(9;22):

t(11,14):
T(14,18): follicular lymphoma (bcl 2)

t (8; 14): Burkkits (c myc)

t(9;22): Philadelphia (bcr-abl; assoc with CML)

t(11,14): Mantle cell lymphoma
What happens in Brown-Sequard syndrome
hemisection of spinal cord

ipsilater UMN signs

ipsilateral loss of dorsal column

Contralateral pain and temp loss

ipsilateral loss of all sensations at lvl of lesion

LMN signs at level of lesion
most important sequale of temporal arteritis
ipsilateral blindness due to thrombosis of ophthalmic artery

can also lead to polymyalgia rheumatica
What consideration must you make when evaluating prostatitis
<35 --> Gonorrhea/ Chlamydia cause

>35-->UTI bugs
what is a tumor marker for seminoma
Placental Alkaline Phosphatase
40 yr man gets early dementia and uncontrollable movements of his upper extremities. What portion of his brain do you expect to see atrophy
Caudate

this is Huntingtons
tumor of the adrenal medulla in kids
adrenal neuroblastoma (homer-wright rosettes)
what is an indicator of fetal well being
estriol
most common type of hodkins? non-hodgkins
Hodgkins: Nodular sclerosis

Non: Diffuse large cell
male pt presents with involuntary flailing of one arm...where is the lesion
hemiballismus--> contralateral subthalamic nucleus
Viral encephalitis affecting temporal lobe
HSV
malignant, painless testicular enlargement with fried egg appearance
Seminoma
t(11, 22)
Ewing
pt cannot abduct her left eye on lateral gaze and convergence is normal. She is also having trouble smiling. In what part of the CNS is there a lesion
Pontine lesion
tachypnea, tachycardia and confusion in a hospital setting
PE
lytic bone lesions on xray
Multiple myeloma
HYQ: pt suffers a stroke after incurring multiple long bone fractures in a skiing accident. What caused the infarct
Fat embolism
when does babinski sign disappear in babies?
1st year of life
Hallmark of COPD
Decreased FEV1/FVC

(I say less than .8... I know you said a different number)
Schiller Duval bodies
Yolk Sac

young kids (3 y)
productive cough for 3 consecutive months in 2 years. What is this? histologically what can you see
Chronic Bronchitis

Gland depth/total thickness of bronchial wall (Reid index >50)
what is the moro reflex?

rooting?
moro: hang on for life, abduct then draw together

rooting: move head toward side if you stroke cheek (looking for nipple)
what causes centriacinar and panacinar emphysema respectively
centriacinar: smoking

panacinar: alpha-1-antitrypsin def (look for a 20 yo with ephysema)
pt presents with vertigo, tinnitus, and hearing loss?
Meniere's dz
how long does the corpus luteum maintain pregnancy with progesterone in the presence of bHCG?
6-7 weeks

after this the placenta runs house
what hormones use steroid receptors?
VET CAP

Vit D
Estrogen
Testosterone
Corisol
Aldosterone
Progesterone

also T3/4
DD for eosinophilla
DNAAACP

Drugs
Neoplasm
Atopy (allergy, asthma, churg strauss)
Addisons
Acute interstitial nephritis
Collagen vascular dz
Parasites
Lactulose is used for what?

MOA?
tx for urea cycle related hyperammonemia

broken down by bacteria and makes an acidic pH. Traps the ammonia in the gut and takes it out with it (can also pull it from the blood)
Triad of MS
Intention tremor
Scanning speech
Nystagmus
what drug can help treat Crigler Najar syndrome
Phenobarbital

increases glucuronyl transferase activity
what crainial nerve nuclei are in the midbrain?
CN III and CN IV
inability to export absorbed lipids as chylomicrons leading to failure to thrive, steatorrhea, acanthocytosis, ataxia, and night blindness
Abetalipoproteinemia

tx: vitamin E
what drugs tend to cause tardive dyskinesia
Typical antipsychotics
what hormones use cAMP?
FLAT CHAMP

FSH
LH
ACTH
TSH
CRH
hCG
ADH
MSH
PTH
what is the long acting B-agonist for asthma? tox?
Salmeterol

can lead to desensitization of B receptors
What amino acid is the precursor to the following molecule:

HIstamine:
Porphyrin, heme:
NO:
HIstamine: histidine
Porphyrin, heme: glycine
NO: arginine
what kind of drug is butorphanol?

use?
Partial agonist at opioid mu receptor

used for pain
1st line tx for trigeminal neuralgia
Carbamazepine
Reinke crystals, androgen producing, gynecomatia in men, precocious puberty in boys...
Leydig cell tumor
What amino acid is the precursor to the following molecule:

GABA:
SAM:
Creatine:
GABA: glutamate
SAM: methionine
Creatine: arginine
pt with abnormal uterine bleeding leading to iron def anemia. You biopsy and see whorled pattern of smooth muscle bundles
Leiomyoma
Methicillin, NSAIDs, and furosemide can cause what
interstitial nephritis
MOA of Theophylline
inhibits phosphodiesterase decreasing cAMP hydrolysis

metabolized by P450, blocks actions of adenosine
rate limiting enzyme for the following:

HMP shunt:
Bile acid synth:
Heme synth:
HMP shunt: Glucose-6-P-dehydrogenase
Bile acid synth: 7-alpha-hydroxylase
Heme synth: aminolevulanic synthase
MOA of Tramadol
weak opioid agonist and inhibits 5HT and NE (tram it all in)

chronic pain
MOA of Sumatriptan?

Use?

Tox?
5HT1B/1D agonist (vasoconstriction)

acute migraine, cluster headache

tox: coronary vasospasm, contraindicated in ppl with angina
what crainial nerve nuclei are in the pons?
CN V, VI, VII, VIII
HYQ: pt with PKU shouldn't have phenylalanine, what else should you do to the diet
increase tyrosine
pt with tinnitus, dizziness, headaches, and GI distress. What drug caused this
Quinine

Quinadine
severe menstrual related pain
endometriosis

often results in infertility

seen most commonly on ovary--chocolate cyst
MOA of ipratropium

use?
competitive blocker of M receptors

asthma/COPD
1st line tx of cluster headache
O2
Low MAC does what to potency? what does this do to Km
raises potency

lowers Km
HYQ: 2 yo girl with increased abdominal girth, failure to thrive, and skin/hair depigmentation...
Kwashiorkor
what changes in to vmax and or Km do you see in the following:

competitive antag:

noncompetitive antag:
competitive antag: increase Km (decrease potency)

noncompetitive antag: decrease vmax and efficacy
nephrogenic Diabetes insipidus can be caused by what
Lithium (demeclocycline too)
what kind of drug is atomoxetine? use?
SNRI

ADHD
HYQ: pt with genetic dz in which the tx includes protein restriction to prevent mental retardation, ketoacidosis, and death. Diagnosis?
Maple syrup urine dz
MOA of cromoyln...?

can you use it for acute attacks?
prevents release of histamine from mast cells

NO, takes days to start working
blown pupil should make you think
Uncal herniation
name the major side effect of the following inhaled anesthetics

Halothane:

Methoxyflurane:

Enflurane:
Halothane: hepatotox

Methoxyflurane: nephrotox

Enflurane: proconvuslant
HYQ: 18 yo F has moderate generalized abdominal pain, normal WBC, no fever. She has paresthesias in lower extremities. Dg?
Acute intermittent prophyria
what crainial nerve nuclei are in the medulla?
CN IX, X, XI, XII
neutrophils fail to respond to chemotactic stimuli
Job or leukocyte adhesion def
most common herediatry bleeding disorder
vWillebrand disease
HYQ: 45 yo male alcoholic gets blistering lesions in sun exposed areas especially the dorsum of the hands. He also has hypertrichosis of the face. Diagnosis
Porphyria cutanea tarda
1st line tx of chronic asthma
corticosteroids
what primary brain tumor is assoc with polycythemia?
Hemangioblastoma

(VHL)
what drug would you consider using for a pt that is going to have endoscopy
Midazolam
MOA of cyclosporine?

use?

tox?
inhibits calcineurin and prevents production of IL-2

suppresses organ rejection

predisposes to viral infections and lymphoma; nephrotox (preventable with mannitol)
Old man with tumor on the ball
testicular lymphoma
what anti-depressant lowers the seizure threshold
Buproprion

smoking cessation
MOA of Leuprolide?

3 uses
GnRH analog with agonist properties when used pulsatile, antag when used continuous

1. infertility (pulsitile)
2. prostate cancer (continuous)
3. uterine fibroids (continuous)
MOA of tacrolimis

use?

tox?
binds to FK binding protein and inhibits IL2 secretion

organ transplant (or topically for eczema)

tox: nephro tox and peripheral neuropathy
what drugs are good for aspirin induced asthma?

which can be used in 1 year olds?
Lukast drugs

block leukotriene receptors

lil guys can use Montelukast
what allele is assoc with Alzheimer's dz?

why is it so common in Downs
APP gene

found on chrom 21, downs has 3 copies
Thiopental vs ketamine:

Cerebral bloodflow
Thiopental: decreased cerebral blood flow

ketamine: increased cerebral bloodflow
MOA of sirolimus?

use?
binds mTOR, inhibits IL2

immunosuppression after kidney transplant
if the vagus is lesioned, what can you look at to observe this? how will it move
uvula will deviate away

(one side of the palate is working and pulling it up, the other side is not, so it deviates away)
post menopausal vaginal bleeding
endometrial hyperplasia or endometrial carcinoma
HLA b27 associations
PAIR

Psoriasis
Ankylosing sponylitis
IBD (ulcerative colitis)
Reiters
MOA of Azathoprine?

tox
precursor of 6MP, interferes with metabolism and synth of nucleic acid

remember allopurinol will prevent breakdown
CF and Kartagener's dz can predispose people to this form of COPD
Bronchiectasis: chronic necrotizing infection of bronchi->permanently dilated airways, purulent sputum, recurrent infections hemoptysis
43 yo man with dizziness and tinnitus. CT shows enlarged internal acoustic meatus....
acoustic schwanoma
DOC for rapid anesthesia induction?
Propofol
Muromonab MOA?

use?
MAB that binds CD3 of T cells

immunosuppresion after kidney transplant
where are Meiosis I and II arrested in? until what happens
Meiosis I: prophase until ovulation

Meiosis II: metaphase until fertilization
what TB drug has an increased risk of seizure?
Isoniazid
what effect does sex hormone binding globulin have in males and females respectively
if SHBG is increased in men-->gynecomastia

decreased SHBG in female-->hirsutism
which immunosuppressant fits the following:

Precursor of 6MP:

may prevent nephrotox with mannitol:

inhibits calcinuerin:

metabolized by xanthine oxidase:
Precursor of 6MP: Azathroprine

may prevent nephrotox with mannitol: Cyclosporine

inhibits calcinuerin: Cyclosporine

metabolized by xanthine oxidase: Azatthoprine
mom looks like she might die and you are considering delivering the baby early. What could you give mom to help prevent neonatal respiratory distress syndrome
steroids to mature the type II pneumocytes

note: can give the preemie baby artificial surfactant after birth
High triglycerides causes what
pancreatitis
if the hypoglossal n. is damaged, what will indicate the lesion?
tongue will deviate towards the side of the lesion
HLA DR3/4
DM 1
RA
SLE
Coal miners, silicosis, asbestosis

Affects upper lobes:
Likely to become cancer:
Eggshell calcification of hilar lymph node:
Affects lower lobes:
Golden-brown fusiform rods:
Affects upper lobes: Coal, Silicosis
Likely to become cancer: Asbestosis (bronchogenic or mesothelioma)
Eggshell calcification of hilar lymph node: Silicosis
Affects lower lobes: Asbestosis
Golden-brown fusiform rods: Asbestosis
nerve blockade

which is knocked out first
small or large?

myelinated or unmyelinated?

size or myelin?
Small> large

myelin> un

size> myelin
what testicular tumor fits the following

composed of cytotrophoblasts and synctiotrophoblasts:

histologic appearance similar to kiolocytes:
histologically may have alveolar or tubular appearance sometimes with papillary convolutions:
composed of cytotrophoblasts and synctiotrophoblasts: choriocarcinoma

histologic appearance similar to kiolocytes: seminoma

histologically may have alveolar or tubular appearance sometimes with papillary convolutions: Embryonal
definitive diagnosis and tx of this uterine pathology is by laproscopy
endometriosis

look for pelvic pain with menstruation
in a tension pneumo, what way will the trachea deviate
away from the lesion
side effect of bupivicaine?
severe cardiotox

local anesthetic
2 things that can lead to bilateral Bell's palsy
Guillan Barre and Lyme
holosystolic murmur
VSD, tricuspid regurg, mitral rgurg
most common lung cancer in a non-smoking female? where is it located
Adenocarcinoma

Peripheral
Opiod used for cough suppresant:

tx diarrhea?
Dextramathorphan

loperamide
where are the following hormones secreted:

Progesterone:

Parathyroid hormone:

Estadiol
Estriol
Estrone
Progesterone: ovary

Parathyroid hormone: chief cells of the parathyroid
Estadiol: ovary
Estriol: placenta
Estrone: fat
defective tyrosine kinase genes (what immunodef)
Bruntons
decreased breath sounds, dullness and decreased fremitus. what does this pt have?
Plueral effusion
what drug is IV and does not induce histamine release like morphine
fentnyl
what nerve does the following:

monitors the carotid body and baroreceptors

sensation to ant. tongue:
monitors the carotid body and baroreceptors: IX

sensation to ant. tongue: V3
most common cause of secondary HTN
Renal dz

chronic kidney dz or renal a. stenosis
Common bacterial cause of COPD exacerbation
H. influ
give Rate limiting enzyme of the following:

Glycolysis
Gluconeogenesis
TCA cycle
Glycogen synthesis
Glycogenolysis:
Glycolysis: Phosphofructokinase 1

Gluconeogenesis: Fructose 1-6 bisphosphate

TCA cycle: Isocitrate dehydrogenatse

Glycogen synthesis: glycogen sythnase

Glycogenolysis: glycogen phosphorylase
55 yo man on tx for BPH has increased testosterone and decreased DHT as well as gynecomastia and edema...medication?
Finasteride
infertility, obestiy, amenorrhea, hirsutism...

what are LH, FSH, and testosterone lvls like?

tx?
LH increased
FSH decreased
Testosterone increased

this is PCOS

tx: clomiphine, OCPs, weight loss
tx for atypical pneumonia

**
Macrolide
give Rate limiting enzyme of the following:

HMP shunt:

De novo pyrimidine synth:

De novo purine synth:

Urea cycle:
HMP shunt: G6PD

De novo pyrimidine synth: Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase II

De novo purine synth: Glutamine PRPP amidotransferase

Urea cycle: Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I
Weber: Right
Rinne L: AC>BC
Rinne R: BC>AC

Diagnosis?
conductive hearing loss R
young female with HTN
OCPs
3 most common locations of lung cancer mets?
brain
bone
liver
give Rate limiting enzyme of the following:

Fatty acid synth:

fatty acid oxidation

ketogenesis:

cholesterol sythesis:
Fatty acid synth: Acetyl-CoA carboxylase (ACC)

fatty acid oxidation: Carnitine acyltransferase I

ketogenesis: HMG-CoA synthase

cholesterol sythesis: HMG CoA reductase
what is premature ovarian failure
menopause before age 40
what hormones have an alpha and beta subunit? which makes it unique
alpha: TSH, LH, FSH, hCG

Beta makes it unique
common causes of ARDS
shock
infection
toxic gas inhalation
acute pancreatitis
aspiration
heroin OD
this is used to transfer methyl units and is required for the conversion of NE to EPI
S-adenosyl-methionine (SAM)
Weber: Left
Rinne L: AC>BC
Rinne R: AC>BC

Diagnosis?
sensory neural hearing loss R
infection secondary to blood transfusion
hepatitis C
what is pulsus paradoxus? causes?
systolic BP drops by >10mmHg with inspiration

Asthma
COPD
Croup
Tamponade
what turns PEP (phosphoenol pyruvate) into pyruvate
Pyruvate kinase
infertile pt with bag of worms
varicocele

vericose vein of the balls
pt with hirsutism obesity and amenorrhea has an increased risk of what
endometrial cancer

this is PCOS
HYQ: 75 year old has 60 pack year history has difficulty standing up from bed when he wakes and has difficulty raising his arms in the AM to wash his hair. What is going on?
Lambert Eaton due to small cell lung Ca
what enzyme is def in von Gierkes dz...what cant you do then?
Glucose-6-phosphatase

this is the last enzyme to make glucose in gluconeogenesis
Weber: midline
Rinne L: BC>AC
Rinne R: BC>AC

Diagnosis?
bilateral conductive hearing loss
what is eisenmenger's syndrome
late cyanotic shunt (uncorrected L->R becomes R->L)
what is the tx for CML
Imatinib
pt with severe fasting hypoglycemia, glycogen in liver, increased blood lactate and hepatomegaly. What enzyme is def?
this is Von Gierke's dz

glucose-6-phosphatase
tx for pediculosis capitis
permithrin
pyrethin
lindane
CO=

what is it via the Fick principle?
SV x HR

via fick:

Rate of O2 consumption / (arterial O2 content - venous O2 content)
what is the cause of G (-) rod in 80 man
E. coli
pt with cardiomegaly and systemic findings leading to early death....this is a glycogen storage dz that has what enzyme def?
Pompe's dz

lysosomal alpha 1,4 glucosidase
in conductive hearing loss, which side will the sound lateralize to?

what about sensorinuerual
conductive: same side

sensorineural: opposite
malignancy associated with noninfectious fever
Hodgkins
describe the morphology of Listeria

**
Gram positive bacilli
you think a guy has von gierke's dz but find that he does not have increased blood lactate and is not def in glucose 6 phosphate. What does he have? enzyme def?
Cori's dz

debranching enzyme (alpha 1,6, glucosidase)
what is the MOA of clomiphene

use?
partial agonist at pituitary estrogen receptor in the hypothalamus

ends up preventing normal feedback inhibition

leads to increased release of LH and FSH which stimulates ovulation

used to tx infertility and PCOS
what kind of cyst is associated with choriocarcinoma, moles, or twins
Theca-lutein cyst
Describe the FEV1, FVC, and FEV1/FVC ratio for both obstructive and restrictive dz

***
Obstructive:
FEV1: decreased
FVC: Decreased
FEV1/FVC: decreased
(<.8)

Restrictive
FEV1: decreased
FVC: even more Decreased
FEV1/FVC: normal or increased (>.80)
pt has pain after working out with cramps. what enzyme is deficient
McArdle's dz

skeletal muscle glycogen phosphorylase
what causes congenital cataracts
rubella
most common malignant skin tumor
Basal Cell
what is the hallmark of restrictive lung dz
*
Decreased total lung capacity
What glycogen storage dz matches the following:

Glycogen phosphorylase deficiency:

Glucose 6 phosphatase def:

lactic acidosis, hyperlipidemia, hyperuricemia:

alpha 1,6 glucosidase def

alpha 1, 4 glucosidase def
Glycogen phosphorylase deficiency: McArdle

Glucose 6 phosphatase def: Von Gierke

lactic acidosis, hyperlipidemia, hyperuricemia: von Gierke

alpha 1,6 glucosidase def: Cori

alpha 1, 4 glucosidase def: Pompe
what will prevent the LH surge?
OCP prevents estrogen surge, thus preventing LH surge and ovulation
what hormone stimulates release of prolactin
TRH
Phenylalanine is the precursor for what

*
Tyrosine

Dopa-->Mealnin

Dopamine

NE

Epi
What glycogen storage dz matches the following:

cardiomegaly

diaphragm weakness

increased glycogen in the liver, severe fasting hypoglycemia

hepatomegaly, hypoglycemia, hyperlipidemia, normal kidneys and lactate
cardiomegaly: Pompe (kid)

diaphragm weakness: Pompe (adult)

increased glycogen in the liver, severe fasting hypoglycemia: von Gierkes

hepatomegaly, hypoglycemia, hyperlipidemia, normal kidneys and lactate: Cori
Sudden painless onset of flashing light
retinal detachment
Most common causes of MR
FAS
Downs
F X
Tyrptophan is the precursor to what 2 things? what do they make?

*
Niacin--->NAD/NADP

Serotonin-->Melatonin
What glycogen storage dz matches the following:

Painful muscle cramps, myoglobinuria with strenous exercise:

Severe hepatosplenomegaly, enlarged kidneys:
Painful muscle cramps, myoglobinuria with strenous exercise: McArdle

Severe hepatosplenomegaly, enlarged kidneys: von Gierkes
what is the male homologue of the following female structure:

Vestibular bulbs:
labia minora:
bartholin glands:
Vestibular bulbs: corpus spongiosum
labia minora: ventral shaft of penis
bartholin glands: bulbourethral
tumor marker for dysgerminoma?
hCG, LDH
Glycine is a precursor for what

*
poryphrin-->heme
what are the 4 fates of pyruvate
Alanine
Lactate
Oxaloacetate
Acteyl-CoA
dementia often a/w frequent falls and or syncope
Dementia with Lewy bodies
mets to bone
PT barnum loves kids

Prostate
thyroid
Testes
Breast
Lung
Kidney
Arginine is a precursor for what 3 things

*
Creatine
Urea
NO
in the electron transport, how many ATPs do you get from NADH and FADH2?
NADH: 3

FADH2: 2
A

B

D

cells of the pancreas release what
A: glucagon

B: insulin

D: somatostatin
Cat scratch:

Dog/cat bite:

Puppy feces:
Cat scratch: Bartonella

Dog/cat bite: Pasturella

Puppy feces: Yersinia
Glutamate is a precursor for what 2 things

*
GABA

Glutathione
Use of NAD?

NADPH?
NAD: Catabolic processes

NADPH: anabolic processes (steroid and FA synth; resp burst, P450, glutahione reductase)
Dementia + visual hallucinations=

dementia + personality changes and/or aphasia
Dementia + visual hallucinations= Lewy Body Dementia

dementia + personality changes andor aphasia= Picks dz
mets to brain
Lung
Breast
Skin
kidney
GI
enzyme for phenyalanine to tyrosine?
phenyalanine hydroxylase
what is the purpose of the HMP shutn (pentose phosphate pathway)
produce NADPH
mucin secreting signet cell adenocarcinoma of the ovary...where did it come from
Krunkenberg tumor

GI
Furosemide and thiazides can cause what problem
gout
woman develops intense muscle cramps and darkening of her urine after exercise...what does she have
McArdels dz

Glycogen 6 phosphatase
tumor that contains cells from 2 or 3 germ layers
Teratoma

dermoid cyst-most frequent benign ovarian tumor
what three amino acids are used in the golgi
SAT

serine
asparagine
threonine
enzyme for tyrosine to dopa
tyrosine hydroxylase
what type of murmur will be louder with inspiration
tricuspid

more blood flow into RA

mitral will get worse with EXPIRATION
what enzyme takes Glucose 6 P to NADPH?
Glucose-6-P dehydrogenase
coarse facial features, clouded corneas, restricted joint movement due to failure of addition of mannose-6-phosphate
I-cell dz

will see Inclusion bodies
what usually precedes Guillain Barre
resp or GI illness
what are the components (consider sperm/egg) for

complete mole:

partial:
complete mole: 2 sperm empty egg

partial: 2 sperm 1 egg
most common cause of mitral valve stenosis
Rheumatic heart dz
COPI vs COPII with respect to the Golgi
COPI: Golgi --> ER (retrograde)

COPII: RER-->cis-Golgi (anteriograde)
dopamine to NE? (enzyme
Dopamine B hydroxylase
pts MRI reveals replacement tissue in the sella turcica with CSF...
Empty cella syndrome

pituitary is mostly gone

somehow it is subclinical
what are Heinz bodies and what are they seen in?
Oxidized Hemoglobin precipitated within RBC

G6PD
what protein is involved in transporting an endocytosed vesicle from the plasma membrane to the endosome?
Clathrin
MOA of mifepristone...use?
Competitive inhibitor of progestins at progesterone receptor

termination of pregnancy
HTN, bruising or bleeding from the gums and jaundice
HELLP

Hemolysis
Elevated LFTs
Low Platelets
what common drug class can lead to stimulation of prolactin release

what is the major sx associated with this?
antipsychotics (DA antagonists)

due to the tonic inhibition of prolactin by dopamine

major sx: HYPOGONADISM (inhibits GnRH)
what molecule targets proteins in the ER for lysosomes
Mannose-6-phosphate

failure of addition leads to I cell dz
pt has pheneylacetate, phenyllactate in the urine and tissues. also has mousy body odor, fair skin, and MR. Enzyme responsible
phenylalanine hydroxylase def

this is PKU (AR)

must begin tx in the 1st 3 weeks of life

note: maternal PKU is lack of proper diet during preggo, kid gets microcephaly, MR, growth retardation, and congenital heart defects
demyelinating dz in young women
MS
pt has benign essential fructosuira...what enzyme is defective?
fructokinase
what effect do ACE/ARBs have on preload and afterload
decrease both
What is Marcus Gunn disorder
inability to constrict the pupil when light shone in the eye

afferent pupillary n damage
what supplies both wernikie and broacas area
middle cerebral
mixed UMN/LMN dz
ALS
immotile cilia due to a dynein arm defect. Results in male and female infertility, bronchiectasis, and reucrrent sinusitis. What does this pt have? what else might you see
Kartagener's syndrome (primary cilliary diskinesia)

Situs inversus

the kindergarten cop hit you so hard your organs are reversed
pt with dark connective tissue, brown pigmented sclera, urine black on standing. Enzyme problem?
Homogentisic acid Oxidase

this is Alkaptonuria (ochronosis)
continuous machine like murmur
PDA
pt has hypoglycemia, jaundice, cirrhosis, and vomiting after eating fruit. What do they have, what enzyme is the problem, and what is the tx?
Fructose intolerance

Aldolase B

decrease intake of fructose and sucrose (fructose+glucose)
first line tx for pre-eclampsia seizures
Magnesium sulfate
corticosteroids and heparin can cause what
Osteoprosis
where is the lesion

agraphia and acalculia

eyes look away from side of lesion

Dysarthria

Intention tremor
agraphia and acalculia: left parietal

eyes look away from side of lesion: PPRF

Dysarthria: cerebellar vermis

Intention tremor: cerebellar hemisphere
benign ovarian tumor that looks like bladder tissue
Brenner tumor
microtubule polymerization defect resulting in decreased phagocytosis. Pt will have pyogenic infections, partial albinism, and peripheral neuropathy
Chediak Higashi syndrome
enzyme def in albinism?
Tyrosinase
causes of DIC
STOP Making New Thrombi

Sepsis
Trauma
Obstetric
Pancreatitis
Malignancy
Nephrotic syndrome
Transfusion
pt with failure to thrive, jaundice, hepatomegaly, and infantile cataracts with MR. What does this pt have, what enzyme is absent, and what is the tx
Classic galactosemia

galactose-1-phosphate uridyltransferase

exclude galactose and lactose (galactose + glucose) from diet
4 major actions of PTH
increase bone resorption of calcium and phosphate

increase kidney resorption of Ca

decrease kidney reabsorption of phosphate

increase 1,25 OH2 vit D production in the kidney
what antiepileptic drugs are teratogens? 3
Phenytoin
Carbamazepine
Valproic acid
child with hydrocephalus, what 2 tumors could it be? what distinguishes
Medulloblastoma: Homer wright rosettes

Ependymoma: Perivascular pseudorosettes
most common cause of myocarditis?
Coxsackie B

or echovirus
what cell membrane lipid is converted to arachidonic acid by phospholipase A2
Phosphatidylinostitol
pt has increased homocysteine in the urine, MR, tall stature, kyphosis, lens sublux...

what enzyme is def? (2 possible)

tx?

*
this is homocystinuria

2 enzymes:
Cystathionine synthase deficiency
Homocysteine methyltransferase

tx: decrease methionine, increase cystiene, increase B12/folate, increase B6
Extremely tender thyroid gland:

Pretibial myxedema:

palpation of single thyroid nodule:

Recent study using IV contrast dye:
Extremely tender thyroid gland: De Quervian's subacute thyroiditis

Pretibial myxedema: Graves

palpation of single thyroid nodule: Toxic thyroid adenoma

Recent study using IV contrast dye: Jod-basedow phenomenon
osmotic diarrhea, cramps, and bloating following diary products
Lactase deficiency: lactose intolerance
painless bleeding in any trimester...
placenta previa--attachment of placenta to lower uterine segment

Multiparity adn prior C section predispose
what portion of the heart can enlarge leading to compression of the recurrent laryngeal n.
Left atrium
bitemporal hemianopia in a child...supratentorial
Craniopharyngioma

calcification is common
neuropathy + AV node block
2nd stage lyme dz
what enzyme do corticosteroids inhibit that prevents the formation of arachidonic acid?
Phospholipase A2
what enzyme is missing in the dz that causes maple syrup urine dz? what amino acids aren't degraded
alpha-ketoacid dehydrogenase

I Love Vermont

Ile, Leu, Val
most common dietary deficiency
iron

microcytic anemia

most common vitamin def (folate/B9)
why do you get hypoglycemia in ethanol metabolism?
can't undergo gluconeogenesis

NADH is produced when you drink and converts pyruvate to lactate and oxaloacetate to malate

so you dont have any products for gluconeogenesis
what 5 things can lead to mitral regurg?
ischemic heart dz

mitral valve prolapse

LV Dilation

endocarditis

Rhematic fever
what antiseizure drug causes agranulocytosis
Carbamazepine

(others: clozapine, colichine, PTU/metimazole)
what primary brain tumor fits the following description:

polycythemia
a/w VHL
foamy cells high vascularity
Hemangioblastoma
most common neoplasm in kids?
1. ALL
2. cerebellar astrocytoma
MOA of Zileuton
inhibits lipoxygenase from making leukotrienes
Hartnup dz leads to what? how
Pellagra (niacin B3 def); Diarrhea, dementia, dermatitis

causes tryptophan excretion in urine-->tyrptophan is a precursor to Niacin (B3)
what are the X-linked immunodeficiencies ?
WBC

Wiskot
Bruton
CGD
SCIDS

and hyper IgM
1 g of protein = how many kcal?

carb=

fat=

ethanol=
protein: 4

carb: 4

fat: 9

booze: 7
massive bleeding after delivery
placenta accreta

placenta attached to myometrium. Have to take out the uterus
what drugs are assoc with SJS
Seizure
Sulfa
-cillin drugs
what primary brain tumor fits the following description:

Pseudopalisading necrosis

(what else has this appearance)
Glioblastoma multiforme

(basal cell ca)
Call-Exner bodies are seen in what
Granulosa cell tumor

causes precocious puberty in kids or endometrial hyperplasia in adults
MOA of Zafrilukast and montelukast
inhibit leukotrienes from causing bronchoconstriction
Deficiency of aldolase B:

Deficiency of cystathione synthase:

Inherited defect in tubular amino acid transporter:
Deficiency of aldolase B: Fructose intolerance

Deficiency of cystathione synthase: Homocystinuria

Inherited defect in tubular amino acid transporter: Cystinuria/hartnups
diverticulum of the pharynx
Zenkers
acetoacetate and b-hydroxybutyrate are what? seen when? rate limiting enzyme?
Keytone bodies

fasting (low blood sugar)

rate limiting enzyme: HMG Co-A synthase
what is renal osteodystrophy
secondary hyperparathyroidism due to renal failure

Renal dz
Decrease Vit D
Decrease Ca
Increase PTH (pull it from bone)
Phosphate increase because kidney can't get rid of it
what are the haptotoxic antiepileptics
Carbimazibine
Valproic acid
Most common type of thyroid cancer? histologic finding?

Hashimotos thyroiditis is a risk factor

Cancer arising from parafollicular C cells
Papillary; Little orphan annie eyes

Hashimotos thyroiditis is a risk factor: Lymphoma

Cancer arising from parafollicular C cells:Medullary
most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in kids? adults?
kid: MC

Adults: Membranous
COX will lead to the formation of endoperoxides which can then lead to 3 things, one of them is the following. What does it do:

Prostacyclin (PGI2)
decrease platelet aggregation/vasodilation

decrease uterine tone
tx-decreased dietary methionine increased cystine and B6:

hypoglycemia, jaundice, cirrhosis:

tx- acetazolamide to alkalinize urine:
tx-decreased dietary methionine increased cystine and B6: Homocystinuria

hypoglycemia, jaundice, cirrhosis: fructose intolerance

tx- acetazolamide to alkalinize urine: cystinuria (to prevent stones)
Ejection click
aortic/pulmonic stenosis
How many ATP are generated during aerobic metabolism?

anaerobic?
Aerobic (32/30)

Anaerobic (2 ATP and lactate)
pregnant woman with previosu c-sectoin is at increased risk for what
placenta accreta and previa

grows into the scar
girl under the age of 4 with spindle shaped tumor cell that is desmin positive
Sarcoma botryoides
what heart sounds are considered benign when there is no evidence of dz? 4
split S1

split S2 on inspiration

S3 in a pt younger than 40 (or preggo)

early quiet systolic murmur
how do you diagnose Acromegaly
measure serum IGF (GH is pulsatile, not helpful)
COX will lead to the formation of endoperoxides which can then lead to 3 things, one of them is the following. What does it do:

Prostaglandins (PGE2)
decrease vascular tone
increase pain
Increase uterine tone
increase temp
tx-increased intake of ketogenic nutrients (fats):

tx-exclude galactose and lactose from diet:
tx-increased intake of ketogenic nutrients (fats): pyruvate dehydrogenase def

tx-exclude galactose and lactose from diet: galactosemia
Food poisoning due to exotoxin, happens quickly 24 hours
S. aureus

B. Cerus
primary energy source in a pt who hasn't eaten in 2 days
FA
what type of study compares a group of ppl with a dz to a group w/o
Case control

measures Odds ratio
antileptics that work via GABA? give 3
phenobarbital
benzos
gabapentin

(valproic acid, topiramate, tiagabine,vigabatrin, levetiracetam)
what thyroid cancer has the most common mutation in the BRAF gene (serine/threonine kinase)
Papillary carcinoma
which ER is associated with synthesis of secretory proteins, and thus are found in mucus secreting goblet cells and antibody secreting cells?

Which is used for steroid synth and detoxification of drugs/poison
secretory: Rough

Detox: Smooth (seen in liver and adrenal cortex)
COX will lead to the formation of endoperoxides which can then lead to 3 things, one of them is the following. What does it do:

Thromboxane (TXA2)
increase platelet aggregation and vasoconstriction
this is the most common urea cycle disorder. It is x-linked and you will see tremor, slurring of speech, somnolence, vomiting. What do they have?
ornithine transcarbamoylase def (OTC)

orotic acid will be increased in blood and BUN will be decreased
most common gynecologic malignancy in US
endometrial carcinoma
arrange the following molecules from most exergonic with loss of phosphate to least exergonic loss of phosphate: AMP, ATP, PEP
PEP>ATP>AMP
what is dinoprostone
PGE2 analog causing cervical dilation and uterine contraction

induce labor
Expired tetracyclines can lead to what problem
Fanconi syndrome

peeing out stuff you shouldn't (glucose, phos, etc)

Heavy metals and Wilson's can do this too
When is S4 heard? what does it mean
atrial kick in late diastole

due to high atrial pressure associated with ventricular hypertrophy
arachadonic acid is made into what from COX and LPO (immediate step after)
LPO: Hydroperoxides

COX: Endoperoxides
most common Heart murmur, congenital
mitral valve prolapse
pt with High PTH, hypocalcemia, short 4/5th digits, short stature. What does the pt have. How is it inherited?
Pseduohypoparathyroidism (albrights herditary osteodystrophy)

AD

kidney is unresponsive to PTH
which vein drains directly into the IVC, Right adrenal or left?
Right

same is true for gonads
What hormones use cAMP
FLAT CHAMP

FSH
LH
ACTH
TSH
CRH
hCG
ADH
MSH
PTH
top 2 helminth infections in the US

tx?
1. enterobius vermicularis (pin worm)
2. ascaris lumbricoides

use bendazoles to tx
Ritodrine/terbutaline do what
B2 agonists that relax uterus

reduce premature uterine contractions
early diastolic murmur heard best along the left side of the sternum
pulmonic regurg
what uses cGMP as secondary signal
vasodilators

ANP, NO
multiple blood transfusion or hereditary HFE mutation (can result in CHF, "bronze diabetes" and increased risk of hepatocelluar carcinoma)
Hemochromatosis
crescendo-decrescendo systolic ejection murmur following ejection click

S1 ----CLICK---murmur----S2
aortic stenosis

will have weak pulses compared to the heart sounds and syncope
what is the precursor to cholesterol?

what makes cholestrol into pregnenolone
Acetate

Desmolase
what uses IP3 as secondary messanger
posterior pituitary stuff

GnRH, Oxytocin, ADH, TRH
most common cause of hepatocellular carcinoma
Cirrhotic liver (oftern assoc with hepatitis B and C)
bloody nipple discharge
intraductal papilloma
What are the 3 acute phase cytokines
IL-1
IL-6
TNF alpha
IGF, FGF, and PDGF use what 2ndary messenger? what else uses this
intrinsic tyrosine kindase

Insulin
what passes through the cavernous sinus
Things that go through the superior orbital fissure + foramen rotundum

CN III, IV, V1, V2, VI

also the cavernous portion of the internal carotid artery

pituitary
What are the 3 functions of vitamin D
increase gut absorption of Ca

increase gut absorption of Phosphate

increase bone resorption of Ca and phosphate
what are the 5 functions of cortisol
maintains BP (upregulates alpha 1 receptors on arterioles)

decrease bone formation

anti-inflammatory

decrease immune function

increase gluconeogenesis/lipolysis/proteolysis
what type of collagen are the following--

tendon
skin:
cartilage:
uterus:
nucleus pulposis:
bone:
granulation tissue:
basement membrane:
fetal tissue:
tendon: 1
skin: 1/3
cartilage:2
uterus: 3
nucleus pulposis: 2
bone: 1
granulation tissue:3
basement membrane: 4
fetal tissue: 3
injury to CN III will lead to the eye resting in what direction
down and out (still have SO, and LR)
rock hard mass, worst and most invasive, also most common breast malignant tumor
Invasive ductal
late diastolic murmur heard best along the left side of the sternum
tricuspid stenosis
hydroxylation of specific proline and lysine residues requires what in order to synthesize collagen
Vitamin C
pt gets a furruncle on the filtrim...what can this lead to
Carvernous sinus syndrome

can affect any of the structures within the sinus

Things that go through the superior orbital fissure + foramen rotundum

CN III, IV, V1, V2, VI

also the cavernous portion of the internal carotid artery

pituitary
why does pregnancy lead to increased contractility?
increased preload
what is Cushing's disease
pituitary adenoma leading to increased ACTH and thus cortisol
what inhibits collagen synthesis
glucocorticoids

this is why you can use them to tx keloids
where would you get pain for the following sinuses

sphenoid:

ethmoid:

frontal:

maxillary:
sphenoid: deep in the head

ethmoid: behind you eye

frontal: eyebrow

maxillary: cheeks
Peau d'orange
Inflammatory
dilated cardiomyopathy
CHF
mitral regurg

can all lead to what
S3 heart sound
what type of collagen is affected in Ehlers-Danlos
Type III
what does ELISA test
determine if a particular antibody is present
2 most common causes of primary hyperparathyroidism
solitary parathyroid adenoma

parathyroid hyperplasia
describe what happens with a low and high dose dexamethasone suppression test in the following:

Cushing dz:

Ectopic ACTH:

Adrenal:
Cushing dz:
low-increase cortisol
high-decreased cortisol

Ectopic ACTH:
neither suppress cortisol release (increase cortisol)

Adrenal:

neither suppress cortisol release (increase cortisol)
male with hearing problem and visual disturbances is peeing blood. collagen effected?
Type IV

Alports
what is locus heterogeneity?
mutations at different loci can produce the same phenotype
Bilateral malignant breast tumor

where does it met to?
invasive lobular

mets to peritoneum
rumbling late diastolc murmur with opening snap
mitral stenosis
what normally inhibits elastase
alpha-1-antitrypsin
ragged red muscle fibers seen on biopsy
mitochondrial myopathy
what 5 things can aortic stenosis be due to
congenital bicuspid valve (clinically important after age 40)

senile or degenerative calcification (after age 60)

chronic Rheumatic valve dz

congenital unicuspid aortic valve

syphillis
aside from pheochromocytoma, what can be seen in both MEN 2A and 2B?
Medullary thyroid carcinoma
what is a cysteine protease the cleaves after aspartic residues (and executes apoptosis)
Caspase
osmolar fragility with RBCs
Hereditary spherocytosis
breast dimpling suggests
suspensory ligament involvement
sense of emptiness, loneliness, impulsiveness
borderline personality disorder
which of the following is associ w/ extrinsic or intrinsic apoptosis

Mitochondrial:
Ligand:
utilizes caspase:
utilizes bcl and bax:
Mitochondrial: Intrinsic
Ligand: Extrinsic
utilizes caspase: Extrinsic
utilizes bcl and bax: Intrinsic
sublux of the lens:

retinal detachment:
sublux of the lens: marfans

retinal detachment: ehlers danlos
what cancers are assoc with hypercalcemia
SCC (lung, head neck, esophagus, cervix)

renal cacrcinoma

Multiple myeloma

Breast cancer
actinic (solar) keratosis predisposes to
precursor to squamous cell carcinoma

5-FU can treat this
post surgical why do you keep bandages on for 24 hours
to let epithelialization occur (heal the skin)
adenoma sebaceum, cardiac rhabdomyoma, astrocytoma
Tuberous sclerosis
nipple retraction suggests
lactiferous duct involvement
pansystolic murmur best heard at the 4th-6th left ICS
tricuspid regurg
What are 2 important supplements for wound healing
Zinc

Vitamin C
what happens in

NF1:

NF2:
NF1: neural tumors and pigmented iris hamartoma

NF2: bilateral acoustic scwhanomas (neuromas)
painless jaundice
cancer on the head of the pancreas
acute gastric ulcer assoc with CNS injury
Cushing ulcer
compare trasudate vs exudate in the following manners--

Protein:

Due to hydrostatic pressure

Due to lymph obstruction
Protein:
Transudate: low protein
Exudate: high protein

Due to hydrostatic pressure: Transudate

Due to lymph obstruction: Exudate
a/w mitral valve prolapse, liver dz, berry aneurysms
ADPCKD
signet ring cells and ER+ and PR+ breast pathology
Lobular carcinoma insitu
hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
aortic stonosis
chronic HTN with LV
post MI

what might you hear
S4 heart sound
What are the 3 major things you should think of when you see apple green birefringence?
Restrictive cardiomyopathy
Alzheimers
Multiple Myeloma

all amyloid
you suspect a pt to have CF. How is it inherited? Common infection? another effect in males? diagnosis is made how (numbers please). Tx?
AR

Pseudomonas

Infertility

Sweat test Cl>60mEq

tx: N-acetylcysteine
4Bs of T3?
Brain maturation
Bone Growth
Beta-adrenergic effects
BMR increased
acute gastric ulcer associated with severe burns
Curling ulcer
Which arachidonic acid product causes the following effect

Increased bronchial tone:
decreased bronchial tone:
increased platelet agg:
decreased platelet agg:
increased uterine tone:
decreased uterine tone:
increased vascular tone:
decreased vascular tone:
Increased bronchial tone: leukotrienes
decreased bronchial tone: PGE2
increased platelet agg: thromboxane
decreased platelet agg: PGI
increased uterine tone: PGE2
decreased uterine tone: PGI
increased vascular tone: Thromboxane
decreased vascular tone: Cyclin/glandin
which lysosomal storage dz is assoc with renal failure
Fabrys

tx: dialysis
moa of Anastrozle/exemestane

use?
aromatase inhibitors

postmenopausal women with breast cancer
high pitched diastolic murmur with a widened pulse pressure
aortic regurg
what is responsible for rolling, tight binding and diapedis
rolling: selectins
Tight bind: integrins:
diapedis: PECAM
what are the only 2 x linked recessive lysosomal storage dz?

how are the others inherited
Fabry's and Hunters

all others are AR
mid systolic click with late systolic crescendo murmur
mitral prolapse
alternating areas of transmural inflammation and normal colon
Skip lesions of Chron's dz
GFAP is a marker for what
Glioblastoma
most common lysosomal storage dz
Gauchers
state if the following are due to progesterone or estrogen:

makes thick mucus to prevent sperm entry:
induces LH surge:
Uterine smooth muscle relax:
Follicle growth:
maintenance of preggo:
hepatic synthesis of transport proteins:
withdrawal leads to menstruation:
makes thick mucus to prevent sperm entry: P

induces LH surge: E

Uterine smooth muscle relax: P

Follicle growth: E

maintenance of preggo: P

hepatic synthesis of transport proteins: E

withdrawal leads to menstruation: P
dude has an MI. gets out of bed and does 50 push ups to show the nurses he hasn't. What defense mech?
Denial
in the CNS, what cells fuse to form multinucleated giant cells in an HIV pt
Microglia
what forms the ANS, DRG, cranial nerves, celiac ganglian, and melanocytes?
Neural crest
which lysosomal storage dz's are a/w early death (by age 3)
Tay Sach
Neimann Pick
Krabbe
enlarged epithelial cells with excessive eosinophilc granular cytoplasm= Hurthle cell...seen in?
Hypothyroidism
how is hnRNA processed b4 it leaves the nucleus (3)
Poly A tail

5' Cap

Splicing introns
most common cause of dissecting aneurysm
HTN
what neural cell looks like fried eggs on HE
oligodendroglia
skin papule in AIDS pt caused by bartonella
Bacillary angiomatosis
describe the inheritence pattern for the following

Albinism:
Hereditary spherocytosis:
Duchennes
NF1:
Hemophilia A:
Hemophilia B:
CF:
Tuberus sclerosis:
PKU:
Thalessemias:
Sickle Cell:
hemochromatosis:
G6PD:
Albinism: AR
Hereditary spherocytosis: AD
Duchennes: X
NF1: AD
Hemophilia A: X
Hemophilia B: X
CF: AR
Tuberus sclerosis: AD
PKU: AR
Thalessemias:AR
Sickle Cell:AR
hemochromatosis: AR
G6PD: X
what ovarian tumor matches the following statement:

estrogen secreting-->precocious puberty

Lined with fallopian tube like epithelium:

Call-exner bodies:
estrogen secreting-->precocious puberty: granulosa-theca

Lined with fallopian tube like epithelium: serous cystadenoma

Call-exner bodies: granulosa-theca
given the drug reaction, give the causal agent

atropine like side effects
TCAs
person with abnormal valves has to get prophylactic tx for what bug when they get dental procedures?
strep viridans
what cells are destroyed in Guillain barre syndrome and NF2
schwann cells
enlarged thyroid cells with ground-glass nuclei
ophan annie eye nuclue

papillary carcinoma of the thyroid
elfin facies, MR, super nice to strangers
Williams syndrome

microdeletion of long arm of chrom 7

Will Ferrel in Elf
Ejection Fraction =
SV/EDV
given the drug reaction, give the causal agent

coronary vasospasm (2)
cocaine

sumatriptain
most common cause of aortic aneurysm
Atherosclerosis
what nervous system cell matches the following:

damaged in MS

macrophages of the CNS

Form multinucleated giant cells in the CNS when infected with HIV
damaged in MS:

macrophages of the CNS: microglia

Form multinucleated giant cells in the CNS when infected with HIV: Microglia
hypochromic microcytic anemia
iron def
lead poisoning
thalassemia
ACD
Excess fibro fatty deposits amongst muscle
Duchennes Muscular Dystrophy
which cell type has aromatase and 17alpha respectively
aromatase: Granulosa (estrogen)

17 alpha: theca (androsteindione)
given the drug reaction, give the causal agent

flushing (4)
VANC

vancomycin
adenosine
niacin
CCB
what is the c wave of jugular venous pulse
RV contraction (closed tricuspid valve bulging into atrium)
What type of sensory corpuscle does the following---

Position sense, static touch, adapts slow:

Position sense, dynamic fine touch, adapts quick:

vibration and pressure:

pain and temp:
Position sense, static touch, adapts slow: Merkel

Position sense, dynamic fine touch, adapts quick: Meissner's

vibration and pressure: Pacinian

pain and temp: Free nerve endings
what type of bacteria is periplasm found in? What is important about it
Gram negative

includes B-lactams
two pts have the same mutation on chrom 15 but have diff phenotypic expressions. One pt received the mutation from the father while the other got it from the momma. What is this an example of?
Imprinting
pot bellied, pale, puffy caced kid with protruding umbilicus and protuberant tongue
Cretinism
given the drug reaction, give the causal agent

agranulocytosis (6)
clozapine
carbamazepine
colchicine
propylthiouracil
methimazole
dapsone
ascending aoritc aneurysm is associated with what
3 syphillis

marfans
muscle length monitoring:

muscle tension:
length: spindle

tension: golgi
increased alpha fetoprotein in amniotic fluid
anencephaly
spina bifida
gastrochesis and omphalocele
which lysosomal storage dz is a demyelinating dz?
Metachromatic leukodystrophy
when does bHCG show up in the urine
2 weeks post conception

4 weeks LMP
given the drug reaction, give the causal agent

Aplastic anemia (5)
chloramphenicol
benzene
NSAIDs
Propylthiouracil
methimazole
pt has colon cancer, later gets splinter hemorrhages and janeway lesions. cause?
endocarditis due to S. bovis
what pathway do you target when treating for psychosis with drugs? (positive sx)
mesolimbic pathway
eosinophilic cytoplasmic inclusion in the liver
mallory body (alcoholic liver dz)
Which lysosomal storage dz is characterized by the following enzyme def:

alpha L iduronidase
Hurler's and Scheies
pt has wide pulse pressure with a diastolic mumur heard right after S2
aortic regurg
given the drug reaction, give the causal agent

Hemolysis in G6PD pts (6)
IS PAIN

Isoniazid
Sulfonamides
Primaquine (all quine drugs)
Aspirin
Ibuprofen
Nitrofurantoin
atrophy of the mamillary bodies
Wenicke's encephalopathy (thiamine def causing confusion)
what 2 things are needed to make GABA
Glutamate and B6
intranuclear eosinophilic droplet-like bodies
cowdry type A bodies (HSV, CMV, yellow fever)
Which lysosomal storage dz is characterized by the following enzyme def:

Iduronate sulfatase
Huniters
congenital adrenal hyperplasia + hypotension
21 hydroxylase def
given the drug reaction, give the causal agent

Megaloblastic anemia (3)
have a blast with PMS

Phenytoin, Methotrexate, Sulfa drugs
CD 16:
CD 19:
CD 3:
CD 16: macrophage + NK
CD 19: B-cells
CD 3: All T cells minus NK
what hypothalamic nuclei are responsible for the following:

Hunger:
Satiety:
Cooling/Parasympathetic:
Heating, sympathetic:
Circadian rhythm:
Hunger: Lateral area
Satiety: Ventromedial
Cooling/Parasympathetic: Anterior
Heating, sympathetic: Posterior (her hot posterior makes me wanna shoot my load)
Circadian rhythm: Suprachiasmatic
what forms the aorticopulmonary septum?
neural crest
Which lysosomal storage dz is characterized by the following enzyme def:

Arylsulfatase A
metachromic leukodystrophy
pt has flu and later gets hypothyroid
Subacute thyroiditis (De Quervains)
given the drug reaction, give the causal agent

Cough
ACI inhibitor

give an ARB!
autosplenectomy (fibrosis and shrinkage)
sickle cell anemia
what are the motor nuclei of the thalamus
VA/VL
iron containing nodules in alveolar septum
ferruginous bodies (asbestos: increase chance of mesothelioma)
Which lysosomal storage dz is characterized by the following enzyme def:

alpha galactosidase A
Fabres
congenital conjugated hyperbilirubinemia (black liver)
Dubin Jonhnson
given the drug reaction, give the causal agent

Thrombotic complications
OCPs
what causes Libman-Sacks endocarditis?
SLE causes LSE
a cerebellar lesion will affect what side of the body
ipsilateral
esoinophilic cytoplasmic inclusion in the nerve cell
lewy body
Which lysosomal storage dz is characterized by the following enzyme def:

Galactocerebrosidase
Krabbes
what defense mech underlies all other defense mechs?
Repression
given the drug reaction, give the causal agent

Pulmonary fibrosis
Bleomycin
Amiodarone
Busulfan
bacterial meningitis-

adult/elderly:

newborns and kids:
adult/elderly: N. meningitidis

newborns and kids: Group B strep/e.coli (newborns) kids: strep pneumo
which portion of the cerebellum is associated w/ voluntary movements of extremities?

balance?
voluntary move: Lateral

balance: medial
large lysosomal vesicles in phagocytes
Chediak higashi dz
Which lysosomal storage dz is characterized by the following enzyme def:

Glucocerebrosidease
Gauchers

MOST COMMON
cause of Constrictive pericarditis in developing worlds
TB
given the drug reaction, give the causal agent

Thrombocytopenia (2)
Heparin
H2 Blockers
what is the v wave of jugular venous pulse
increased atrial pressure due to filling against a closed tricuspid
what happens with activation of the substantia nigra pars compacta
activates the direct pathway

which inhibits GPi

which then allows for movement (inhibit the inhibitory path)
vouluntarily choosing not to think about a piece of bad news...
suppression
Which lysosomal storage dz is characterized by the following enzyme def:

Hexosaminidase
Tay Sachs
fixed rock hard painless goiter
Riedel's thyoiditis

thyroid replaced by fibrous tissue
given the drug reaction, give the causal agent

Acute cholestatic hepatitis
Macrolides (erythromycin)
benign melanocytic nevus
spitz nevus (most common in first 2 years)
what happens in the indirect pathway
inhibits GPe (which was inhibiting the GPi)

this leads to activation of the GPi which then inhibits movement

INDIRECT INHIBITS MOVEMENT
low serum ceruloplasmin
wilson's dz
Which lysosomal storage dz is characterized by the following enzyme def:

Sphingomyelinase
Neimann Pick
most common cause of early cyanosis
TOF, Trans great veseels, TA
given the drug reaction, give the causal agent

Focal to massive hepatic necrosis (4)
halothane

valproic acid

acetaminophen

amanita phalloides (mushroom)
major criteria for RF?
Joints (migratory polyarthritis)
Heart (pancarditis)
Nodules (subcutaneous)
Erythema marginatum (serpinginous skin rash)
Sydenham's chorea (chorea of face, tongue, upper limb)
what effect does the subthalamic nucleus have on movement
inhibits it

(by activating GPi, which inhibits movement)
eosionphilic globule in the liver
councilman body (viral hepatitis or yellow fever)
Characterized by accumulation of GM2 ganglioside
Tach sachs

due to def in hexosaminidase
this murmr follows an opening snap and is best heard at the 5th ICS mid clavicular line
Mitral stenosis
given the drug reaction, give the causal agent

Gynecomastia (5)
Some Drugs Create Awesome Knocers

Spironolacatone
Digitalis
Cimitidine
Alcohol (chronic use)
Ketoconazole
bleeding disorder with GpIb def
Bernard soulier dz
the lenticulostriate arteries (which come from the middle cerebral a.) supply what
the basal ganglia
lumpy bumpy appearance of glomeruli
poststrep glomerulonephritis
Dermatin suflate accumulates in what
hurlers,

hunters,

scheies
most common cause of death in CML
blast crisis

AML
given the drug reaction, give the causal agent

Hypothyroidism (2)
Lithium
Amiodarone
what type of study compares a group w a given exposure or risk factor ro a group without
Cohort

measures relative risk
pt has a stroke and then has sudden wild flailing of the left arm

what is this and where is the lesion
Hemiballismus

right subthalamic nucleus
what will form the lungs, liver, pancreas, and thymus?
endoderm
which lysosomal storage dz's are common among ashenzi jews
tay sachs

neimann pick

gaucher
tx for thyroid storm?
B blocker (propranolol)
what is primidone
anticonvulsant

used to treat resting tremor
brain tumor (adults)

location

most common causes
supratemporal

mets>astrocytoma (glioblastoma multiforme)>meningioma>schwannoma
motor and sensor loss to the legs...what artery
ant cerebral
lytic ("hole punched") bone lesions on xray
multiple myeloma
crinkled paper cytoplasm
Gauchers
Death in SLE
lupus nephropathy
eosinophilic inclusion bodies in cytoplasm of hippocampal nerve cells
rabies virus
EKG showing electrical alternans tells you what
cardiac tamponade
motor and sensory loss to the face...what artery
middle cerebral a
mammary gland "blue domed" cyst
fibrocystic change of breast
Cherry red spot on retina (3)
Tay Sachs

Neimann Pick

Central retinal a. occlusion
When does S3 heart sound occur. What does it mean?
early diastole during rapid ventricular filling phase. Associated with increased filling pressures and dilated ventricles

normal in children and preggo women
proportion of all ppl WITHOUT the dz who test negative=
specificity

T/(TN+FP)
most common cause of breast cancer
Infiltrating ductal carcinoma
vision...what artery
posterior cerebral a
monocolonal Ab spike (4)
Multiple myeloma (m protein IgG or IgA)

monoclonal gammaopathy of undertermined significance

Waldenstroms macroglobulinemia

primary amyloidosis
wide splitting of S2=?

Fixed splitting?
wide splitting of S2= pulmonic stenosis or RBBB

Fixed splitting= ASD
2 greatest causes of dementia
AZ
Multiple infarcts
extracellular amyloid deposition in gray matter of brain
senile plaques (Az dz)
brain tumor (kids)

location

most common
Infratentorial

Astro>medullo>epindyoma
a lesion where would cause the following:

can't write, calculate or distinguish L/R:

reduced levels of arousal and wakefulness:

Wernicke Koraskoff:
can't write, calculate or distinguish L/R: left parietal lobe

reduced levels of arousal and wakefulness: reticular activating system

Wernicke Koraskoff:: mammillary bodies
monoclonal globulin protein in blood/urine
bence jones proteins
what is the underlying mech and cause of the following:

Kussmauls vs Pulsus paradoxus
Kussmal:
Mech: decreased RV capacity
Dz: constrictive pericarditis

Pulusus paradoxis
Mech: decreased capacity of LV
Dz: tamponade
which anti hyperthyroid drug can you give to a preggo lady
Propylthiouracil

methimazole is a teratogen
What makes the spleen?
mesoderm

also makes muscle, bones, CT, and serous linings of the body
most common benign breast tumor
Fibroadenoma
pt is hypovolemic. He is given an IV and then gets acute paralysis, dysarthria, dysphagia, and diplopia. What happened?
Central pontine myelinolysis

caused by rapid correction of hyponatremia
mucin filled cell with peripheral nucleus
signet ring (gastric carcinoma)
HOXD13 mutation leads to what
synpolydactyly (extra fused digit btw 3rd and 4th fingers)
cardiac primary tumor in kids
rhabdomyoma
giant B cells with bilobed nuclei with prominent inclusions
Reed sternberg cells (hodgkins lymphoma)
man comes in with multiple syncopal episodes. MRI shows a ball valve obstruction of the LA
Myxoma (tumor)

primary in adult
cardiac manifestation of lupus
Libman-Sacks endocarditis
narrowing of bowel lumen on barium radiograph
"string sign" (chron dz)
paradoxic splitting (where P2 is heard before A2) is associated with what?
LBBB
primary Cardiac tumor of adults
Myxoma
What is the key btw Binge Eating Disorder and Compulsive eating disorder?
neither have purging, both have loads of eating

Binge: defense mech, have negative feelings towards food

Compulsive: think about food constantly, form of obsessive compulsive disorder
most frequent primary cardiac tumor in kids
Rhabdomyomas (tuberous sclerosis)
chronic atrophic gastritis predisposes you to what
gastric carcinoma

also pernicious anemia
needle shaped negatively birefringent crystals
gout
what is the dif btw conduct disorder and oppositional defiant disorder
conduct: behavior violating social norms

oppositional: against authority
describe the GLUT that is used for the following, list if insulin responsvie

RBC:

Adipose tissue:

Brain:

Liver:

B islet cells:
RBC: GLUT 1

Adipose tissue: GLUT 4 (insulin responsive)

Brain: GLUT 1

Liver: GLUT 2

B islet cells: GLUT 2
glomerulus like structure surrounding vessel in germ cells
chiller duval bodies (yolk sac tumor)
pt in MVA presents with chest pain, dyspnea, tachycardia, tachypnea what is going on
tension pneumo
nodular hylanie deposits in glomeruli
Kimmelstiel-Wilson nodules (diabetic nephropathy)
what are the 2 mechanisms of damage associated with diabetes
Nonenzymatic glycosylation (small and large vessle dz)

Osmotic dmg (neuropathy, cataracts)
leading caus of birth defects and mental retardation?
ALCOHOL

FAS
what antiaryhthmic is used for WPW
procainamide and amiodarone
nutmeg appearance of liver
Chronic passive congestion of liver due to RHF
what enzyme takes glucose to sorbitol?

sorbitol to fructose?
Aldose reductase

sorbitol dehydrogenase
"hair on end" crew cut appearance xray
B-thalassemia, sickle cell anemia
prophylactic tx for bacterial endocarditis?
IV Vancomycin
psuedopalisading tumor cells on brain biopsy
glioblastoma multiforme
tx for neuropathic pain assoc with diabetes
gabapentin

pregabalin (also txs fibromyalgia)
what will a competitive inhibitor do to Km?

what will a noncompetetiive inhibitor do to V max?
increase it (decreases potency)

decrease (decrease efficacy
when can you see bHCG in the urine?

what developmental stage will the baby be in
within 2 weeks

2 germ layers: bilaminar disk
RBC casts in urine
acute glomerulonephritis
compare type 1 DM vs 2 in the following ways

Strong genetic disposition:

insulin needed for tx:

HLA DR3/4

Ketoacidosis:

increased resistance to insulin
Strong genetic disposition: 2

insulin needed for tx: 1

HLA DR3/4: 1

Ketoacidosis: 1

increased resistance to insulin: 2
inflammatory heart nodules
Aschoff bodies

focal myocardial inflammation with multinucleated giant cells
what heart path fits the following-

Diffuse myocardial inflammation with necrosis and mononuclear cells:

ST elevations in all leads:

Disordered growth of myocytes
Diffuse myocardial inflammation with necrosis and mononuclear cells: myocarditis

ST elevations in all leads: Pericarditis

Disordered growth of myocytes: hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
onion skin periosteal reaction
ewing sarcoma
what kind of infection are you susceptible to in DKA
rhizopus
aminoglycosides will cause what fetal problem
CN VIII tox
what class antiarythmia are the following:

disopyramide
procainamide
quinidine
IA

Police department questioned
periosteum raised from bone creating triangular area
codmans triangle on xray (osteosarcoma, pyogenic osteomylitis)
MOA of glyburide?

Use

Tox?
close K channel in B-cell membrane--> LEADS TO INSULIN RELEASE

early type 2 DM

tox: hypoglycemia
hexagonal double pointed needle like crystals in broncial secretions
Charcot Leyden crystals; eosinophilic granules

bronchial asthma
focal myocardial inflammation with multinucleate giant cells
aschoff cells of RF
podocyte fusion on EM
minimal change dz

child with nephrotic syndrome
MOA of Glipizide?

Use

Tox?
close K channel in B-cell membrane--> LEADS TO INSULIN RELEASE

early type 2 DM

tox: hypoglycemia
what is the diff btw

Transsexualism
Transvestisms
Transsexualism: desire to live as opposite sex, feel trapped in wrong body

Transvestisms:parahilia; wearing clothes of the opposite sex (wear it for sexual arousal)
what is Km? assoc with affinity?
Km is concentration at 1/2 Vmax

decreased Km-->increased affinity
polished ivory like appearance of bone at cartilage erosion
eburnation (osteoarthritis resulitng in bony scleorsis)
MOA of Glimepiride?

Use

tox
close K channel in B-cell membrane--> LEADS TO INSULIN RELEASE

early type 2 DM

tox: hypoglycemia
high levels of D dimer
DVT, PE, DIC

fibrin breakdown products
pt has a granuloma on the hard palate, hematuria, and hemoptysis
Wegner's granulomatosis

c-ANCA

tx: cyclophosphamide + corticosteriod)
protein aggregates in neurons from hyperphosphorylation of protein tau
neurofibrillary tangles (Az, CJD)
MOA of metformin?

tox?
decrease gluconeogenesis for diabetes 2

lactic acidosis
what problem will valproate or carbamazepine cause in preggo
inhibition of intestinal folate absorption

Neural Tube defect
what class antiarythmia are the following:

Mexiletine
Tocainide
Lidcaine
IB

The Little Man
25 year old pregnant lady in 3rd trimester has normal BP when standing/sitting. When supine her BP drops to 90/50. Diagnosis?
compression of IVC
MOA of pioglitazone?

tox?
increase insulin sensitivity viar PPAR gamma

tox: weight gain, edema (rare hepatotox)
Hilar lymphadenopathy, peripheral granulomatous lesion in middle or lower lung lobes (can calcify)
Ghon complex (primary TB)
perforation of the nasal seputm has 2 causes
wegner's granulomatosis

COCAINE (like it was 1980)
where does HSV 1 lay dormant?

2?

VZV?
1: trigeminal ganglia

2: S2/S3 ganglia

VZV: DRG
MOA of rosiglitazone?

tox?
increase insulin sensitivity viar PPAR gamma

major tox is MI
proportion of all ppl with dz who test positive=
Sensitivity

TP/(TP+FN)
what does the notochord devlop into?

what do these structures give rise to?
neuroectoderm and neural plate

Neural plate gives rise to neuroal tube (CNS) and neural crest cells

Notochord becomes nucleus pulposus of the IV disk
doctor gives amoxacillin to a pt with suspected strep. Later the pt gets a rash. Why
he had mono not strep
MOA of sitagliptin/saxagliptin
decrease glucagon secretion and increase insulin

used in DM2 by affecting GLP1
honeycomb lung on xray
Interstitial fibrosis
granulomatous vasculitis with eosinophilia
Churg-Strauss syndrome

p-ANCA
3-5 days of fever in a child followed by rash. What HHV is this?
Roseola: HHV 6
given the following characteristic list the DM 2 drug

lactic acidosis:

most common side effect is hypoglycemia:

not assoc with weight gain, often used in overweight diabetics:
lactic acidosis:

most common side effect is hypoglycemia: Sulfonylurea

not assoc with weight gain, often used in overweight diabetics: Metformin
what vessel do the umbilical arteries come off of?
Internal illliac

remember this is blood back to the momma
what class antiarythmia are the following:

Encainide
Propafenone
Flecainide
IC

For Pushing Ectasy
HHV 8=
kaposi
given the following characteristic list the DM 2 drug

Also helps lower triglycerides and LDL cholestrol levels:

not safe in hepatic dysfunction or CHF:

should not be used in pts with serum creatinine elevation:

Metabolized by liver, excellent choice for pts with renal dz:
Also helps lower triglycerides and LDL cholestrol levels: Metformin

not safe in hepatic dysfunction or CHF: Metformin/Glitazone

should not be used in pts with serum creatinine elevation: Metformin

Metabolized by liver, excellent choice for pts with renal dz: Glitazone
hypersegmented neutrophils
megaloblastic anemia (B12 or folate def)
vasculitis in young asthmatic
Churg strauss syndrome

p-ANCA
MOA of acyclovir
phospohrylated by thymidine kinase and inhibits viral DNA polymerase

Ganciclovir has similar mech
3 side effects of insulin administration
Lipodystrophy
Weight gain
Hypoglycemia
what NT changes will you see in:

depression
decresase NE, 5HT, and dopamine
female is born and has no issues for the first 6 mo of life. Later you see a delay in head growth and social withdrawal. You start to see constant repetitive hand movements. Pt progresses to have limited mobility. What do they have? Genetics
Rett disorder

X linked dominant
2 tx for Hep C
Alpha interferon

ribaviron
three drugs that you can use to treat nephrogenic diabetes?
Hydrochlorothiazide

Indomethacin

Amiloride
MAP=
2/3 diastolic + 1/3 systolic
lower extremity palpable purpura, arthralgia of the knees, and abdominal pain...what is it and what does it follow?
Henoch-schonlein purpura

follows URI

note: can also have IgA Nephropathy
what do the s, c, and e Ab mean in hepatitis
s: Hep B infection

c: core, history of active dz

e: active viral replication, high transmissibility
in Diabetes insipidus...

Urine specific gravity<

serum osmolaility>
Urine specific gravity<1.006

serum osmolaility>290
what do the 1-6 aortic arches become
1: maxillary artery (branch of external carotid)

2: stapedial artery and hyoid

3: common carotid and proximal part of internal carotid

4: on left-arotic arch; on righ-proximal part of right subclavian

6: proximal part of pulmonary arteries and on left only the ductus arteriosus
side effects of amiodarone
pulmonary fibrosis
hepatotox
hypothroid/hyperthyroid
blue man
photosens
what Ag will be seen in early hep B infection that is assoc with Anti-HBcAb

late?
early: IgM

late: IgG
what heart problem is associated with carcinoid syndrome? what will be raised in the urine? tx?
Right sided valvular dz

5-HIAA

octreotide
1. heart sound with congestive HF

2. Chronic HTN
1. S3

2. S4
little asian baby with fever, conjunctivitis, cracking lips, and strawberry tongue. Where else will they have rash?

why is it so severe?

tx?
Kawaskai dz

peeling of the hands (desquamation)

so severe: coronary aneurysm

tx: IVIG and high dose aspirin to prevent coronary problems

mneomonic:
CRASH and Brun
Conjuctivitis
Rash
Adenopathy
Strawberry
Hand and feet swelling
Burning fever for 5 days
when is the only time you can have positive Anti-HBsAb and negative E and C?
Immunization
loss of pain and temp, hoarseness, horners syndrome. What is this? due to?
Wallenburg's syndrome

due to occlusion of one of the posterior inferior cellebellar arteries (PICA)
what test shows if you have a capsule on a bacterium
quelling
when is a baby highly susceptible to teratogens?

what is going on here
3-8

organogensis
pink eye cause
adenovirus
what tumors are assoc with MEN2A
Medullary ca of thyroid, pheo, parathyroid
What is the heart ejection fraction=
EF= SV/EDV
hepatitis B with vasuclitis
polyarteritis nodosa
what DNA virus causes the following

gingivostomatitis

human progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy

Oral hairy leukoplakia
gingivostomatitis: HSV 1/2

human progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy: JC virus

oral hairy leukoplakia: EBV
2 cancers assoc with RET gene mutation
MEN 2A/B
What developmental structure matches the following:

fetal plancental structure that secretes hCG:

maternal component of the placenta:
fetal plancental structure that secretes hCG: syncytiotrophoblast

maternal component of the placenta: decidua basalis
desquamated epithelium casts in sputum
Curschmann's spirals (bronchial asthma; whorled mucous plugs)
child with aseptic meningitis after swimming in a pool...cause
echovirus
G-C bond has how many H bonds?

A-T?

which has higher melting temp
G-C: 3

A-T: 2

G-C higher melting temp
with what type of congenital heart defect would increasing afterload be beneficial
R->L shunt
young asian female with poor pulses in extremity
Takayasu's arteritis
fever, black vomitus, jaundice

what piece of anatomy will look weird
yellow fever

tongue:red at the tip, white on the sides
rate limiting enzyme in pyrimidine synthesis
Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase II (CPS2)
what NT changes will you see in:

Anxiety
Increase NE, decrease GABA, decrease 5HT
what type of study collects data from a group of ppl to assess frequency of dz at a particular point in time
Cross sectional study

measures dz prevalence
break bone fever, muscle joint pain, headache, retro orbital pain....what is the test for this?
Dengue Fever

Tourniquet Test: put BP cuff on, leave it there for 10 min, look for excess petichae
what drug inhibits ribonucleotide reductase for cancer or sickle cell anemia
hydroxyurea
what deviation is assoc with the following-

Inferior wall MI:

Acute right heart strain (PE):
Inferior wall MI: Left axis

Acute right heart strain (PE): Right axis
elderly female, unilateral headache, jaw pain on chewing
Temporal arteritis

assoc with molymyalgia rheumatica (severe joint pain)
what is the role of hemagglutinin and nueraminidase
hemagglutinin: promotes viral entry

neuraminidase: promotes progeny virion release

for influenza virus
megaloblastic anemia that cannot be treated w B12 or folic acid =
Orotic aciduria

can't make UMP (erotic hUMP)

failure to thrive

no hyperammonemia
what structure divides the trunucus arteriosus into the pulmonary trunks and aortic trunks. derivative of?
aorticopulmonary septum

neural crest
disarrayed granulosa cells in eosinophilic fulid
call-exner bodies (granulosa-theca cell tumor of the ovary)
high pitched brassy cough in a young kid with asthma like sx
RSV bronchiolitis
Lesch-Nyhan is due to defective purine salvage owing to absence of what
HGPRT

He's got purine recovery trouble

X linked recessive
what can show you a normal axis
positive deflection in limb lead I and II
what is the diff btw strawberry and cherry hemangioma
Strawberry: benign, in kids, outgrow it

Cherry: bening, elderly, does not regress
what drug is OK to use in adults (esp after bone marrow transplant) but is NOT good for kids with RSV
Ribavirin
how does UV light damage DNA
creates thymine dimers on same strand of DNA

cannot repair it (no nucleotide excision repair)

AR
what kind of test do you want for screening? diagnosis?
screen: high sensitivity

diagnose: high specificity
what embryological structure leads to formation of the adenohypophysis?
surface ectoderm

(ant pituitary)

also you get gland formation
pt has cough, rhinitis, and conjunctivits. what do they have? what else could you see
rubeola (measles)

look for koplik spots: due to immune response
what are the stop codons
UGA
UAG
UAA
what bug can cause AV nodal block
Lyme dz: bb
cystic hygroma is associated with what
Turners

cavernous lymphangioma of the neck
parotitis orchitis, and meningitis
Mumps
mutations of TATA or CAAT lead to what
these are promotors

decreasing them will lead to decreased amount of gene transcribed
what is the order of fetal erythropoiesis?
yolk sac
liver
spleen
bone marrow
dysplastic squamous cervical cells with muclear enlargement and hyperchromasia
koiliocytes (HPV: predisposes to cervical cancer)
MOA of amantadine
blocks viral penetration and uncoating (M2 protein)
alpha amantin, which is found in death cap mushrooms, can lead to problems in what organ? how
Liver failure

inhibit RNA polymerase II (can't make mRNA)
in the aortic arch, what do the baroreceptors respond to? what nerve does it use? where does the message go to?
responds only to increased BP

vagus to medulla
necrotizing immune complex inflammation of visceral/renal vessles
primary pauci immune cresentic glomerulonephritis
MOA of Zanamivir?

Use?
inhibit neuraminidase, decreasing release of progeny virus

Influenza A and B
what do the different RNA polymerases make
RMT

I: rRNA
II: mRNA
III:tRNA
what NT changes will you see in:

AZ?
Decrease ACh
man yells at his family when he has a bad day at work...
displacement
MOA of oseltamivir?

Use?
inhibit neuraminidase, decreasing release of progeny virus

Influenza A and B
which are expressed, exons or introns
Exons

done by spliceosomes
in the carotid sinus, what do the baroreceptors respond to? what nerve does it use? where does the message go to?
responds to increase or decrease in BP

glossopharyngeal n to solitary nucleus of medulla
polypoid red lesion found in pregnancy or after trauma
Pyogenic granuloma
MOA of Ribavirn?

use? 2
inhibits synthesis of guanine nucleotides by competitively inhibiting IMP dehydrogenase

RSV (in adults), chronic hep c
what is the role of Aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase?
responsible for accuracy of amino acid selection
Match the following:

Truncus arteriosus
Bulbus cordis
Primitive ventricle
Primitive atria
Left horn of sinus venosus
Right horn of SV
Right common cardinal vein and right anterior cardinal vein

With the following:
Portion of the left ventricle
Trabeculated left/right atrium
Ascending aorta/pulmonary trunk
SVC
Coronary sinus
Smooth part of RA
Right ventricle and smooth parts of L/R ventricle
Truncus arteriosus:
ascending aorta and pulmonary trunk

Bulbus cordis
RV and smooth parts of L/R ventricle

Primitive ventricle
portion of left ventricle

Primitive atria
trabeculated left and right atrium

Left horn of sinus venosus
coronary sinus

Right horn of SV
smooth part of RA

Right common cardinal vein and right anterior cardinal vein
SVC
cowdry type A bodies aka enlarged cells with intranuclear inclusion bodies
owls' eye appearance on CMV
milk maid blisters, due to?
Cowpox
what 2 drugs inhibit 50s peptidyltransferase?
chloremphenocol

streptogramins
what is a plasmid?
DNA particle separate from normal bacterial DNA. Makes abx resistance enzymes
benign painful red blue tumor under fingernails
Glomus tumor
what is Cushings Triad
HTN, bradycardia, respiratory depression

occurs after intracranial pressure constricts arterioles leading to cerebral ischemia-->HTN-->reflex brady

think about an intracranial hemorrhage!
What amino acid frequently has more coding sequences in the mRNA than are represented in the peptide that is created from that mRNA
methione

it is the start sequence that gets cleaved
Antidote for TCAs?

Theophylline?

Heparin
TC: NaHCO3 (plasma alkalinization)

Theophylline: B-Blocker

Heparin: Protamine
what allows HIV to bind to macrophage (what does the HIV have and what receptor does it use)

what does it bind on CD4 cells?
gp120

binds the CCR5 on macrophages

CXCR4 on CD4
which of the following makes cleft lip vs palate

1. failure of fusion of the lateral palatine process, nasal septum and/or the median palatine process

2. Failure of fusion of the maxillary and medial nasal process
1. Palate

2. Lip
Vd=?
amount of drug given iv/[drug plasma]
antidote for Ethanol, methanol, and ethylene glycol
Fomepizole

inhibits alcohol dehydrogenase
what is an R5 virus
HIV that only uses CCR5 receptor
what is brief psychotic disorder?
schizophrenia for less than 1 month, usually stress related
what is pulmonary capillary wedge pressure?
approximation of left atrial pressure

in mitral stenosis, PCWP>LV diastolic pressure

measured with Swan-Ganz catheter
oxalate crystals makes you think of what
ethylene glycol (antifreeze)
candida, toxoplamosis, and histoplasmosis are things you have to worry about in AIDS at what CD4 level?
<100
what nerves innervate the branchial arches?
1: V2/V3
2: VII
3: IX
4&6: X and superior laryngeal n.
what is an adult type coarctation of the aorta commonly associated with?
bicuspid aortic valve
Antidote for cyanide posioning
Nitrite, hydroxocobalamin, thiosulfate
MOA of the navir drugs?
Protease drugs

assembly of virons depends on HIV 1 protease, blocking this, they can't recognize their own rNA--> can't make new virus

tox: GI intolerance, P450 inhibition (but actually helps keep other meds around longer)
if a screening test has a 1% false-negative rate. What is the sensitivity of the test?
1-FN

so 99%
Nitroglycerine helps treats angina how
causes decrease in preload so that you decrease the O2 demand
which spinal tract does the following

voluntary motor command from motor cortex to head/neck:

alternate routes for the mediation of voluntary movement:


important for postural adjustments and head movements:

Proprioceptive info for the cerebellum:
voluntary motor command from motor cortex to head/neck: corticobulbar tract

alternate routes for the mediation of voluntary movement: reticulospinal tract/rubrospinal tract

important for postural adjustments and head movements: vestibulospinal


Proprioceptive info for the cerebellum: dorsal/ventral spinocerebellar tracts
MOA of zidovudine and didanosine
NTRI

competitively inhibit nucleotide binding to reverse transcriptase and terminate the DNA chain
What CN innervates the tongue in the following ways:

Taste in anterior 2/3
taste in post 1/3
motor
sensation ant 2/3
sensation post 1/3
Taste in anterior 2/3: VII
taste in post 1/3: IX
motor: XII
sensation ant 2/3: V3
sensation post 1/3: IX
what NT changes will you see in:

huntington
decrease GABA and ACh
schizophreniform disorder?
1-6 months
what drug can be used to prevent HIV in the fetus
zidovudine

can cause Bone marrow suppression
how does the presentation of a branchial cleft cyst differ from that of a thyroglossal duct cyst?
branchial clef: in lateral neck

thyrogolossal: midline neck, moves with swallowing
how does LPS cause vasodilation
activates iNOS leading to NO activation

this activates Guanylyl cyclase

leads to activated mysoin phophatase which leads to myosin relaxation
Maintenance dose=
MD= Css x CL
what anti HIV drug has the side effect of pancreatitis and peripheral neuropathy
didanosine

NTRI

competitively inhibit nucleotide binding to reverse transcriptase and terminate the DNA chain
failure of the lateral fold to close can cause what 2 problems
Gastroschisis

Omphalocele

note: omphalocele has way more associated abnormalities

AFP will be elevated
loud S1 and wide fixed split S2 =
ASD
schizoaffective disorder
2 weeks of stable mood + psychotic sx plus a major depressive, manic, or mixed episode
what kind of drugs are nevirapine, declavirdine, and efavirenz?

class tox?
NNRTI

bind to reverse transcriptase at diff site then NRTI.

RASH
what does a horseshoe kidney get caught under
the inferior mesenteric artery

function is normal
first line therapy for HTN in pregnancy? MOA?

what are the 3 other drugs you can use
Hydralazine- vasodilates arterioles>veins; reduces afterloads

(nifedipine, labetalol, methyldopa)
physician looking for risk factors for pancreatitis. he interviews 100 hospitalized pts with pancreatitis, and 100 without. What type of study?
Case control
what kind of drug is Enfuvirtide? MOA
Fusion inhibitor

bind viral gp41, inhibit fusion with CD4 cells
bilateral renal agenesis-->oligohydraminos-->pulmonary hypoplasia
Potter's syndrome
write out the TP TN chart
+ -
+ TP FP

- FN TN
what can happen at the following time periods after using an antipsychotic:

4 hr:
4 d:
4: wk:
4 mo:
4 hr: acute dystonia
4 d: akineisia
4: wk: akathisia (restlessness)
4 mo: tar dive dyskinesia
miraviroc MOA?
binds CCR5 and inhibits GP120

used in HIV
what gene is responsible for inhibiting mullerian development
SRY on Y chromosome
what anti HTN drug causes hypertrichosis
Minoxidil
what gram + organism has LPS?
Listeria
list the antiretroviral drug classes/drugs that cause the following:

SE-lactic acidosis:
SE-GI intolerance
SE-megaloblastic anemia
SE-rash
SE-bone marrow suppression
SE-occupational HIV exposure tx:
SE-lactic acidosis: NRTIs
SE-GI intolerance: Protease inhibitors
SE-megaloblastic anemia: Zidovudine (NRTI)
SE-rash: NNRTI
SE-bone marrow suppression: Zidovudine (NRTI)
SE-occupational HIV exposure tx: Zidovudine (NRTI)
what is exstrophy of the bladder assoc with?
Epispadias
baby is born with a widely split S2 and tricuspid regurg. What drug was mom likely on?
Lithium

this kid has ebsteins anomaly
pt with mental issue is started on new drug. They get rigidity, myoglobinuria, ANS instability, hyperpyrexia. What do they have? Tx?
Neuroleptic malignant syndrome

dantrolene (or bromocriptine)
what HIV drugs can cause rearrangement of fat and hyperglycemia

(you could see a buffalo hump)
Protease inhibitors

(Navirs)
woman comes with 2 lumps in the labia majora....
Androgen insensitivity syndrome

those lumps weren't lady humps, they were balls.
what drug causes first dose orthostatic HTN?
alpha 1 blockers
group of ppl that smoke and do not smoke are followed over 20 years, every 2 years is determined who develops cancer and who does not. Type of study?
cohort
staph a can be normal flora where?

normal flora of oropharynx:

dental plaque:

colon:
staph a: nose

normal flora of oropharynx: viridans strep

dental plaque: strep mutans

colon: bacteroides fragilis
34 year old male w/ testicular ca. Metastatic spread occurs by what route
para-aortic lymph nodes
what NT changes will you see in:

SZ
increase dopamine
in addition to malignant hyperthermia and NMS what can dantrolene tx?
Serotonin syndrome
clostridium perfringes can cause food poisoning from eating what?

can lead to?
from reheated meat dishes

gas gangrene
what is the female homolog of

prostate gland:

corpus spongiosum:
prostate gland: Glands of scene

corpus spongiosum: vestibular bulb
what drug will cause dry mouth sedation and severe rebound HTN? MOA
clonidine

alpha 2 agonist
pt has a kidney problem and clearance is reduced with unchanged Vd. What effect will this have on loading dose and maintenance dose?
LD stays the same

maintenance dose goes down
give the cause of the following:

most common cause of atypical pneumonia:

most common cause of pneumonia in 1 year or younger:

most common cause of pneumonia in college, military, and prision:

most common cause of viral pneumonia:

pontiac fever:
most common cause of atypical pneumonia: Mycoplasma

most common cause of pneumonia in 1 year or younger: RSV

most common cause of pneumonia in college, military, and prison: Mycoplasma

most common cause of viral pneumonia: RSV

pontiac fever: Legionella
what germ layer gives rise to the following:

retina:
salivary glands:
tyhmus:
anterior pit:
cranial nerves:
retina: neuro ectoderm
salivary glands: surface ectoderm
thymus:endoderm
anterior pit: surface ectoderm
cranial nerves: neural crest
what 2 heart defects are seen with 22q11 disorders
TA

Tetrology
what atypical antipsychotics are assoc with weight gain and diabetes? (3)
quetiapine, olanzapine, clozapine
meningitis + purpura
N. meningitis
anticentromere abs
CREST
at what point must you surgically repair an abdominal aorta aneurysm ?
5cm or >
What does it mean if your relative risk (RR) is <1

RR>1?

RR=1?
RR<1: dz is less likely to occur in the exposed group

RR>1: dz more likely to occur in exposed group

RR=1 : no difference in risk btw the 2 groups
which has a higher opening pressure, bacterial or viral meningitis
bacterial

everything is worse in bacterial
antihistone abs
drug induced SLE
which bugs hinflux capsule
Strep pneumo
Kleb
H influ
Neisseria
Salmonella
Group B strep
atypcial antipsychotic that causes agranulocytosis
clozapine
positive nitrite test shows what?
gram negative bacterial UTI
c-ANCA:

p-ANCA:
c-ANCA: wegener's

p-ANCA: microscopin polyangitis, churg-strauss
primary effect of Statins? MOA? major tox?
decrease LDL

HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor

hepatotox and rhabdomyolysis
what complement mediates anaphylactic shock
C3a

hypotension and edema
neonate born with chorioretinitis, hydrocephalus, and intracranial calcifications, what did mom have
toxoplasma
antiplatelet abs
ITP
heart defects seen in congenital rubella? 3
septal defects, PDA, pulmonary artery stenosis
SZ + mood disorder
schizoaffective
3 things that happen in a baby who has congenital rubella
PDA
Cataracts
Deafness
anti-toposomerase abs
diffuse systemic scleroderma
drug of choice to raise HDL?

side effect of this drug
Niacin

flushing of the face (can be treated with aspirin)
what is the difference btw reliability and validity
reliability: reproducible test

validity: accuarcy
unilateral hearing loss is due to what TORCH infection
CMV

can also cause seizures
azurophilic granular needles in leukemic blasts
auer rods (AML)
what NT changes will you see in:

Parkinson's dz
decrease dopamine

increase 5HT and ACh
what is dissociative fugue?
abrupt change in geographic location with inability to recall past, confusion about personal identity

assoc with traumatic circumstances
neonatal manifestation of baby who was born to a mom with vesicular painful lesions on the vagina
Temporal lobe enchephalitis

due to HSV
basophillic nuclear remnants in RBCs
Howell-jolly bodies (splenectomy or nonfunctional spleen)
best drugs to lower Triglycerides

moa?

tox?
"Fibrates" (gemfibrozil, clofibrate, bezafibrate, fenofibrate)

upregulate LPL to increase TG clearance

causes hepatotox (don't use with statin!)
how many half lives does it take to get to 94%?
4 half lives

(at one half life: 50%, 2: 75%, 3:87.5%,)
baby has snuffles (what are these) and metaphyseal dystrophy and periostitis. What do they have?
congenital syphilis

snuffles=desquamation of hands and feet
bloody tap on LP
subarachnoid hemorrhage
increased alpha fetoprotein = (2)
Neural tube defect

or anterior abdominal wall defects
what must you have to diagnose bipolar (I v II)
I: at least 1 manic episode

II: at least 1 hypomanic episode
what are the W's of fever in the post op period
Wind: collapse lung
Water: UTI
Wound: infection
Walking: DVT
Wonder Drugs: Abx
Brown tumor of bone
hemorrhage (hemosiderin) causes brown color of osteolystic cysts. Due to:
Hyperparathyroidism
Osteitis fibrosa cystica
use for gemfibrozil? MOA? tox?
lowers triglycerides

upregulate LPL to increase TG clearance

causes hepatotox (don't use with statin!)
what is Berkson's bias
study on pts that have been hospitalized ...bias of sx
total parenteral feeding can lead to what nosocomial infection
candidia
cardiomegaly with apical atrophy
chagas

trypanosoma cruzi
prevalence vs incidence:

looks at new and old cases
Prevalence

Prevalence= incident x dz duration
Prevalence>for chronic dz

(incidence is NEW incidents)
what is cyclothymic disorder
dysthymia and hypomania; midler form of bipolar lasting 2 years
what are the following like for TB/fungal meningitis:

Opening pressure:
protein:
glucose:
lymph or PNS:
Opening pressure: increase
protein: increase
glucose: decrease
lymph or PNS: increase lymphocytes

this is the same as bacterial but with increased lymphocytes instead of PMNs
anticentromere abs
CREST
what lipid lowering agent matches the following:

GI discomfort, bad taste:
Best effect on HDL
Best effect on triglycerides
Best effect on LDL
GI discomfort, bad taste: bile acid resins
Best effect on HDL: Niacin
Best effect on triglycerides: Fibrates
Best effect on LDL:Statin
neutrophil chemotactic facto?
C5a
list the following as protease inhibitor, NRTI, or NNRTI:

Ritonavir:
Didanosine
Declavirdine:
Zidovudine:
Abacavir:
Lamivudine:
Nelfinavir:
Efavirinz:
Ritonavir: PI
Didanosine: NRTI
Declavirdine:NNRTI
Zidovudine:NRTI
Abacavir: NRTI
Lamivudine: NRTI
Nelfinavir: PI
Efavirinz: NNRTI
antihistone abs
drug induced SLE
cape like bilateral loss of pain and temp sensation in upper extremities and preservation of touch
Syringomyelia

seen with Chiari II
what are 3 important side effects of lithium
Hypothyroid

Ebsteins anomaly

Nephrogenic diabetes insidious
what will xray show on aortic dissection?
medialstinal widening

look for tearing chest pain radiating to the back
c-ANCA:

p-ANCA:
c-ANCA: wegener's

p-ANCA: microscopin polyangitis, churg-strauss
what NT changes will you see in:

Mania
increase NE, 5HT, DA

opposite of depression
What is Lead-time bias?

what is the Hawthorn effect?
early detection confused with increased survival

Hawthorn: changing your behavior because you know you are being studied
anti-hypertensive drug of choice for aortic dissection
B-blocker
antiplatelet abs
ITP
branchial clefts, arches, and pouches are derived from what?
CAP covers outside from inside:

Clefts=ectoderm
Arches=mesoderm
Pouches=endoderm
What are some of the mood stabilizers used to treat bipolar? 5
lithium
valproate
carbamazepine
lamatrigine
olanzapine (atypical antipsychotics)
DOC for prinzmetal angina
CCB (DHP-nifidipine)
anti-toposomerase abs
diffuse systemic scleroderma
CL=
(.7xVd)/t1/2
do charged or uncharged species get urinated out?
charged
likely cause of the following chest pain:

rapid onset sharp pain in 20 yo w/ dyspnea:

sharp pain lasting hours-days and is somewhat relieved by sitting forward:

most common cause of non-cardiac chest pain:

acute onset dyspnea, tachycardia, and confusion in a hospitalized pt:
rapid onset sharp pain in 20 yo w/ dyspnea: spontaneous pneumo

sharp pain lasting hours-days and is somewhat relieved by sitting forward: pericarditis

most common cause of non-cardiac chest pain: GERD


acute onset dyspnea, tachycardia, and confusion in a hospitalized pt: PE
azurophilic granular needles in leukemic blasts
auer rods (AML)
what does the 1st branchial cleft make?

2-4?
1: external auditory meatus

2-4: temporary cervical sinuses
how long must you have sx to be diagnosed with:

manic episode:
major depressive episode:
Schizophrenia:
manic episode: 1 week
major depressive episode: 2 weeks
Schizophrenia: 6 months
Goal of antianginal therapy
reduction of myocardial O2 consumption
basophillic nuclear remnants in RBCs
Howell-jolly bodies (splenectomy or nonfunctional spleen)
compare delirium and dementia in the following way:

change in consiousness:
reversible:
onset:
associated with memory change:
EEG:
change in consiousness:
delirium: wax/wane of consciousness
Dementia: no change in consciousness

reversible:
delirium is

onset:
delirium: rapid
dementia: gradual

associated with memory change:
Dementia

EEG:
delirium: abnormal
dementia: normal
what is a positive skew
mean>median>mode

asymmetry with tail on the right
in an evolution of MI:

0-4 hours:
4-24 hours:
2-4 days:
5-10 days:
10+ days:
0-4 hours: no visible change

4-24 hours: contraction bands

2-4 days: Hyperemia, Neutrophils, extensive coag necrosis

5-10 days: yellowing, risk for free wall rupture, tamponade, papillary muscle rupture, and interventricular septal rupture due to macrophage degradation; granulation tissue

10+ days: risk for ventricular aneurysm due to contracted scar
bloody tap on LP
subarachnoid hemorrhage
what does the 1st branchial arch make
M's & T's

Meckels cartilate, mandible, malleus, madibular ligament

muscles of amstication

CN V2 and V3
what is dysthymia?
milder form of depression lasting 2 years

normally only have 2 sx
most specific protein marker for MI?
Cardiac troponin I

rises after 4 hours, around for 7-10 days
Brown tumor of bone
hemorrhage (hemosiderin) causes brown color of osteolystic cysts. Due to:
Hyperparathyroidism
Osteitis fibrosa cystica
what is the equation for relative risk? what study was this for?
a/(a+b) / (c/(c+d))

cohort
Diptheria toxin does what?
inactivates elongation factor (EF-2)

causes pharyngitis and pseudomembrane in throat
Autoimmune phenomenon resulting in fibrinous pericarditis
Dressler's syndrome
cardiomegaly with apical atrophy
chagas

trypanosoma cruzi
what branchial arch are derived from the following:

stapes
styloid
stylohoid

what CN nerve does this do?
2

CN VII (smile)
drugs that end in -pramine are what? MOA
TCA

block reuptake to NE and 5HT
pt has MI, then later gets severe mitral regurg. What happened
papillary muscle rupture
circular grouping of dark tumor cells surrounding pale neurofibrils
Homer Wright rosettes (adrenal neuroblastoma, medulloblastoma, Ewing sarcoma)
2 major causes of delirium?
anti ACh drugs

UTI
what is a negative skew
mode>median>mean

asymmetry with tail on left
given the following artery, give the wall perfused and EKG leads

LAD:
Left circumflex
Right coronary (inf wall)
Right coronary (post wall)
LAD:
Wall-Anterior
Leads: V1-V4, V5

Left circumflex:
Wall-lateral
Leads: aVL, V5, V6

Right coronary (inf wall)
wall-Inferior
leads: II, III, aVF

Right coronary (post wall)
wall-Posterior
leads: R precordial EKG: V4
perivascular rosette: circular cell grouping with vessel in the middle
ependymoma

Ependymoma is a tumor that arises from the ependyma, a tissue of the central nervous system. Usually, in children the location is intracranial, while in adults it is spinal. The common location of intracranial ependymoma is the fourth ventricle. Rarely, ependymoma can occur in the pelvic cavity.

Syringomyelia can be caused by an ependymoma. Ependymomas are also seen with Neurofibromatosis Type II.
what brachial arch?

stylo-pharyngeus, glossopharyngeal and CN IX
3
if you had to pick btw nortriptyline or amitryptiline, for an elderly pt which would you use? why?

what are the side effects of these drugs
nortriptyline: less anticholinergic effects (less chance of causing delirium)

tox: Convulsions, Coma, Cardiotox
what degrades fibrin? what drugs activate this?
Plasmin

Streptokinase, urokinase, tPA (alteplase), The thrombolytics!
tx for superficial candida infection
nystatin
which organisms can form spores
bacillus and clostridium
Geriatric pts lose what form of metabolism first?
phase I: P450
what do you use to treat thrombolytic OD?
aminocaproic acid

inhibits fibrinolysis
soap bubble in the brain
cryptococcus neoformans

AIDS pts
what brachial arch: cricothyroid
4
tx for serotonin syndrome?
Cooling + benzo + cyproheptadine (5HT2 receptor antagonist)
MOA for clopidogrel?
inhibit platelet aggregation by irreversibly blocking ADP receptors
what does the following describe:

1. acute angle branching hyphae

2. psuedohyphae+ budding yeast, dimorphic

3. nonseptate hyphae, wide-angle branching
1. acute angle branching hyphae: Aspirgillus

2. psuedohyphae+ budding yeast, dimorphic: candida


3. nonseptate hyphae, wide-angle branching: mucor
what is pseudo dementia
pt will have awareness that they are losing stuff

assoc with depression in elderly pt
what is a type I (alpha) error?
stating that there IS an effect or difference WHEN NONE EXISTS

false Positive error
MOA of Abciximab? use?
binds to IIb/IIIa preventing platelet aggregation (similar to clopidogrel, minus the ADP inhibition)

acute coronary syndrome (NSTEMI) and percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty
what fungi can be found with ketoacidotic diabetics and leukemic pts
Mucor

note: can also penetrate the cribiform plate and enter the brain, you will see a black necrotic eschar on the face
what brachial arch: all intrinsic muscles of larynx except cricothyroid
6
what kind of drug is venlafaxine? MOA? use
SNRI

inhibit serotonin and NE reuptake

depression or GAD
side effects of aspirin?
ASPIRIN

Asthma
Salicylism
Peptic ulcer
Intestinal blood loss
Reyes Syndrome
Idiosyncratic
Noise (tinnitus)
tx for tinea ungium?
terbinafine
what is the equation of Odds ratio? what study was this for?
ad/bc

case-control
MOA of vibrio toxin?
ADP ribosylation of G protein stimulates adenylyl cyclase

pumps Cl into gut, water follows

rice water stool
what has a balloon appearance on chest x ray? heart sound heard?
Dilated cardiomyopathy

S3
where will you see histoplama in the body?

environment?

in the US?
Histo Hides in MACROPHAGES

bird/bat droppings

Mississippi and Ohio river valley
What pouch:

middle ear, eustachian tube mastoid air cells
1
what kind of drug is duloxetine? MOA? use?
SNRI

inhibit serotonin and NE reuptake

depression or diabetic peripheral neuropathy
major cause of mycarditis?
Coxsackie virus
latin american with a Captain Wheel yeast
Paracoccidioidomycosis
What is Memantine? use/moa
stops over stimulation of NMDA receptors which can be toxic to neurons

AZ dz
what is a type II (beta) error?
stating that there IS NOT an effect or difference WHEN ONE EXiSTS

false Negative error
heart sound in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
S4

look for the words "myocyte disarray" to describe this

pts drop dead b/c they cannot profuse the thick ventricle
30 yo biddie with cauliflower skin lesions. Tissue biopsy shows broad based budding yeasts. Cause?
Blastomyces
What pouch:

epithelial lining of palatine tonsil
2
pt is trying to quit smoking. He has a seizure. why?
he was likely on buproprion, which lowers the seizure threshold
tx for hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?
B-blocker or non-dihydropyridine CCB (verapamil)
MOA of amphotericin B
Binds ergosterol; forms membrane pores

use in serious systemic mycoses (cryptococcus, blastomyces, candida, etc...)
loading dose=
LD= Css x Vd
what is the difference btw efficacy and potentcy?
Efficacy: max effect a drug can produce

Potency: amount of drug for a given effect
2 most common causes of decreased LV contractility
MI and chronic HTN
swish and swallow for thrush
Nystatin
What pouch:

inferior parathyroid
3
what kind of drug is doxepin
TCA
what leads to tree bark appearance of the aorta
syphilitic heart dz
used for cryptococcal meningitis in AIDS?

MOA
Fluconazole

inhibit fungal sterol synthesis by inhibiting the P450 enzyme that converts lanosterol to ergosterol
pt presents with dementia. their spouse said that prior to this they had marked changes in their personality and now are aphasic. What do they have?
Pick's dz (frontotemporal dementia)

(aggregated tau protein)
what does a p value show you? what is a significant value
likelihood that alpha error is present (alpha error is false positive)

if p<.05 there is a less than 5% chance that the data will show something that is not really there (that you have made an alpha error)
tx for acute CHF
LMNOP

Loop diuretic
Morphine
Nitrates
O2
Positioning (sit on edge of bed so blood pools in legs not lungs) / Pressors (get off B-blocker add dobutamine)
what drug inhibits the fungal enzyme squalene epoxidase?

use?
Terbinafine

tineas
What pouch:

superior parathyroid
4
what kind of drug is tranylcypromine
MAOi
antidote for salicylates?

amphetamines?
sal: NaHCO3 (alkalinize the urine)

amphetamine: NH4Cl (acidify urine)
MOA of griseofulvin?

use?
interferes with microtubule function; disrupts mitosis; deposits in keratin containing tissues (nails)

use: oral tx of superficial infections, inhibits growth of dermatophytes (tinea ringworm)
what is the equation for attributable risk
a/(a+b) - c/(c+d)
heat labile toxin is seen in what bug? what does it cause
ETEC

watery diarrhea
antidote for

B-blockers and verpamil
Glucagon

or Calcium

or Atropine
cell wall synthesis inhibitor used in invasive aspergillosis
Caspofungin
most common ectopic site for thyroid?
tongue
what kind of drug is citalopram
SSRI
antidote for iron tox

SAY IT RIGHT TAUBE
Deferoxamine
what 2 drugs inhibit ergosterol synthesis?
Azoles and terbinifine
dementia + visual hallucinations + repeated falls/syncope =
lewy body dementia

(alpha synuclein defect)
what does one standardization on either side of the mean contain?

2?

3?

1.465?
1: 68% o the population

2: 95%

3: 99.7%

1.645: 90%
antidote for copper
Penicillamine

penny made of copper!
antifungal that inhibits hormone synth and P450s
Ketoconazole
which is a bigger deal, cleft lip or palate
palate

can't breast feed
what kind of drug is sertaline
SSRI
antidote for Methemoglobin
Methylene blue, vitamin C
this causes brain abscess in the HIV. Triad of chorioretinitis, hydrocephalus, and intracranial calcification
Toxoplasma gondii
Therapeutic index=?
LD50/ED50

LD50=lethal dose to 50 % of population

ED50=effective dose

TILE

want a high TI value
pt with rapidly fatal meningoencephalitis after swimming in a lake
Naegleria fowleri
which antidepressant matches the following statements

works well with SSRIs and increases REM sleep:

appetite stimulant that is likely to result in weight gain:
works well with SSRIs and increases REM sleep: Trazodone

appetite stimulant that is likely to result in weight gain: Mirtazapine
tx for trypansoma cruzi
nifurtimox
what does it mean if the 95% confidence interval between 2 variables includes zero, what does this mean?
that this is no significant difference and the nul hypothesis is NOT rejected
pt has spiking fevers, hepatosplenomegaly and pancytopenia. Organism and transmission?
org: leishmania donovani

sandfly
4 things seen in atypical depression
hyperphagia
hypersomnia
mood reactivity
psychomotor retardation
what form is plamodium in when it causes rupture of the hepatocytes?
Merozoites

(sporozoites are in blood, trophozoites are in RBCs)
MOA of pertussis toxin?
increases cAMP by inhibiting Galpha i
what is the mech responsible for malaria induced fever
rupture of merozoite
mech of actoin of MAOi?

SNRI?
MAOi: increase NE, 5HT, DA

SNRI: NE and 5HT reuptake inhibition
what is the name of the following stage in malaria life cycle:

looks like diamond ring:
Ruptures the cell host:
replicating intracellularly:
form injected by mosquito:
banana shaped:
looks like diamond ring: trophozoite

Ruptures the cell host: merozoite

replicating intracellularly: schizont

form injected by mosquito: sporozoite

banana shaped: falicpurum gamete
what is ABCD of medicare
A=inpatient (hospital, nursing, hospice, home health)
B= outpatient care, doc services
C=combination of A&B
D=drug coverage
red urine in the morning fragile RBCs
paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
camper with diarrhea and liver damage and jaundice. Cause?
Entamoeba histolytica
prophylacti tx for m. TB?
Isoniazid
what happens if you ingest tyramine while on MAOi
hypertensive crisis
gram positive clusters=

chains=
cluster=STAPH

chain=strep
what bug that is due to contaminated food can be diagnosed with a scotch tape test? tx?
enterobius vermiicularis

bendazoles
side effect of ethambutol
Red-green color blindness

optic neuropathy/decreased visual acuity
Describe the phases of clinical Trials
I: Is it safe? (healthy pts)
II: Does it work? (pts with the dz)
III: Does it work better
IV: post market survallence
Renal cell ca, hemangioblastomas, angiomatosis, phochromocytoma
von hippel lindau disease
pt is pooping out eggs and has pneumonia
ascaris lumbricoides
MOA of isoniazid?

tox?

prevent this how?
decrease synth of my colic acids in TB

neurotic, hepatotox lupus.

prevent with pyridoxine (vitamin b6)
how long must a pt have sx for PTSD
1 month

if less: acute distress disorder
renal effect of DA?
increase renal profusion in shock
due to undercooked pork, leads to larvae cysts in the muscles
trichinella spiralis
MOA of rifampin?

tox?
RNA polymerase inhibitor

red orange body fluids, revs up P450
what is the Tarasoff decision?
law requiring physician to directly inform and protect potential victims from harm, may breach confidentiality
Restrictive cardiomyophaty (juvenile form: cardio megaly) exercise intolerance

deficiency in what?
pompe's dz

lysoomal alpha 1,4 glucosidase deficiency

1 heart 4 chambers
larvae in soil penetrate the skin, intestinal infection leading to vomiting diarrhea and anemia
strongyloides stercoralis
drug of choice for meningococal or h influenza B infection prophylaxis?
Rifampin
how long does GAD last? tx? MOA

what if it is less than this time?
6 months

busprone

less than 6 mo= adjustment disorder (follows identifiable psychosocial stressor)

5HT1A receptor agonist
Protein A is a virulence factor that binds Fc-IgG inhibiting complement fixation and phagocytosis...what bugs have it?
staph A
larvae penetrate the skin of the feet; intestinal infection can cause anemia (sucks blood from intestinal walls)
ancylostoma duodenale

Necator americanus
MOA of pyrazinamide?
effective in acidic pH of phagolysosomes, where TB engulfed by macrophages is found
what toxin includes edema factor, a bacterial aenylate cyclase (increasing cAMP)
bacillus anthraces
retinal hemorrhages with pale centers
Roth's spots (bacterial endocarditis)
leads to elephantiasis
Wuchereria bancrofti

from female mosquito bite
MOA of ethambutol
decrease carbohydrate polymerization of mycobacterium cell wall by blocking arabinosyltransferase
sudden loss of sensory or motor function often following an acute stressor. pt is indifferent about sx
Conversion disorder

(form of somatoform disorder)
Dobutamine is used for what type of shock
cardiogenic

hits B1 receptors (and some B2)
undercooked pork leading to intestinal tapeworms. Can eventually lead to swiss cheese appearance lesions in the brain
taneia solium

tx praziquantel or bendazoles
prophylaxis for mycobacterium avium intracellulare?

when do you give it
Azithromycin

AIDS CD<100
family member ask for information about the patient;s prognosis...what do you do?
avoid discussing issues with relatives without the permission of the pt
short stature, increase incidence of tumors/leukemia aplastic anemia
Fancoin's anemia (genetically inherited, often progress to AML)
causes cysts in the liver, associated with sheep dogs
echinococcus granulosus
tx for VRE? 2
linezolid and streptogramins
what are the cluster A personality disorders? 3
Paranoid
schizoid
Schizotypal
M protein helps prevent phagocytosis of what bug?
group A strep
Schistosoma haematobium can lead to what
SCC of the bladder
drugs that can cause lupus
SHIPP

Sulfonamides
hydrazaline
Isonizid
procainamide
phenytoin
What kind of drugs are:

Doepezil
Galantamine
Rivastigmine

use?
AChEi

Alzheimer
situs inverses, chronic sinusitis, bronchiectasis
Kartagener's syndrome (dyne in defect affecting cilia)

kinetics sucks

kindergarden cop hits you so hard your organs are backwards
inflammatoin of the gall bladder with pigmented gallstones due to what fluke?
clonorchis sinensis
clinical usese for the macrocodes
atypical pneumonias
URIs
STDs
what are the cluster B personality disorders
antispocial
Narcissistic
Histrionic
Borderline
What are the selective B2 agonists?
MAST:

Metaproterenol, albuterol, salmeterol, terbutaline
undercooked crab meat leading to inflammation and 2ndary bacterial infection of the lung
paragonimus westermani
what family do clarithromycin and clindamycin belong to respectively?
clarithromycin: macrolide

clindamycin: own class
child wishes to know more about his illness....what do you do
ask the parents what to do
slow progressive muscle weakness in boys
Becker's muscular dystrophy (x-linked, defective dystrophin, less severe than Duchenne's)
what is a hookworm?

round?
hook: necator americanus

round: ascaris lumbricoides
increases the nephrotox of amnioglycosides
Cephalosporins
what are the cluster C personality
Avoidant
Obsessive compulsive
dependent
what is strep mutans?
most prominent organism in dental plaque

form of Viridans strep

can lead to subacute endocardiitis in those with turbulent flow heart prolems
tx for chagas dz?

leishmaniasis

resistant malaria
chagas: nifurtinox

Leish: sodium gluconate

resistant malaria: mefloquin
small irregular red spots on buccal/lingual mucosa with blue whit centers
koplik spots (measles)

Cough, coryza, crazy
what are the obligate intracellular bug?
Rickettsia and Chlamydia

can't make own ATP

stay inside (cells) when its Really Cold
woman with premature uterine contraction can be given what?
Terbutaline

selective B2 agonist
tx for pediculosis capits or pubis
permethrin cream
smooth flat moist white lesions on genitals
condylomata lat a (2ndary syphilis)
unexplained complaints in multiple organ systems is what?

false belief of being prgoo?
somatization disorder

pseudocyesis
what bugs are anaerobes
Clostridium
bacterioides
Actinomyces

can't use amino glycosides to treat this
2 antifungals that inhibit ergosterol synth
azoles and terbinafine
what is the definition of low birth weight
<2500g
depressed vs elderly:

amount of REM sleep:
REM latency
amount of REM sleep:
in elderly-Less
Depressed-More

REM latency:
elderly-longer to get to REM
depressed-shorter
BP drug to use in pregnancy
Alpha methadopa and hydralazine
what fungi:
mold form contains barrel shaped arthroconidia
coccidiodes
at what age can kids stop using a booster seat
8-12 years (4'9")
40 year old woman tells you during one of her office visits that she is in love with you. you refer her to someone else, and she attempts suicide. What type of personality disorder does this pt have?
Borderline
DOCs for anaerobes?
Metronidazole

Clindamycin
most all flukes and tapeworms are tx with what
praziquantal
what EEG waveforms correspond to the different stages of sleep
1: theta
2: spindles and K complex
3/4: low freq high amplitude (Delta)
REM: beta
oxybutynin
tolterodine
darifenacin and solifenacin
trospium

MOA? Use?
M blockers

stress incontinence
what drug can you give to a pt with asthma and heart failure
levalbuterol

only hits B2 receptor (no effect on B1 so safe in CHF)
what organism is transmitted by the following:

ixodes tick (not lyme):
tsetse fly:
ixodes tick (not lyme): babesia

tsetse fly: trypanosoma brucci (african sleeping sickness)
what controls extra ocular movements during REM?
PPRF
pt has tactile hallucinations, seiuzres, autonomic instability... what is going on? tx?
alcohol withdrawal

tx: benzos or alcohol
how often should you get a tetnus booster
every 10 years
What are the 5 stages of Kubler-ross grief
Denial
Anger
Bargaining
Grieving
Acceptance
what is the pathway by which retinal info induces the release of melatonin
darkness increases melatonin release

NE released from suprachiasmatic nucleus

stimulates pineal gland to release melatonin
what is suboxone?
naloxone + buprenorphine (partial agnoist) used for heroin addiction
what 2 b-blockers decrease mortality post MI?
Metoprolol and labetalol
what do we stain Legionella with?
Silver stain

it is a facultative intracellular bug

note this is also used for Fungi (such as pneumocystis)
what is clavulanic acid?
given with amoxicillin to prevent breakdown by penicillinase activity
stomach cramps, hunger and hyper somnolence can be seen with what
amphetamine withdrawal
what causes gas gangrene
clostridium perfringens
what antihypertensive is well known for causing limp dick
b-blocker
major clinical use for Aztreonam
G- rods

good for pts with renal insufficiency and cannot tolerate amino glycosides
pt comes to ER with belligerence fever, psychomotor agitation, horizontal nystagmus..
PCP intox

can also have homicidality.
why don't you give B-blockers to a pt on cocaine
cocaine works on ALL adrenergic receptors

if you block B receptors this will further raise BP (unopposed alpha 1 activity)
in what pt population is atropine contraindicated? 6
Glaucoma
BPH (or any urinary retention)
ileus
Dementia (elderly/delirious)
infant with fever--causes hyperthermia
what is first line tx for c diff
metronidazole
what ilicit drug can lead to flashbacks?
LSD
tx for c. diff
metronidizole or oral vancomycin
what is the key to initiating sleep?

what reduces REM sleep?
key= serotonergic predominance of raphe nucleus

reduces: NE reduces REM sleep
resistance to vancomycin?
D ala to D lac
pt presents with tachycardia, tremors, anxiety and seizure. He later has hallucinations and confusion. what does he have? tx?
delirium tremens associated with alcohol

benzos
anti hypertensive DOC for aortic dissection
B-blocker
What is a Ziehl-Neelsen stain?

India ink stain use?
Ziehl-Neelsen=acid fast (for mycobacteria)

India ink: cryptococcus neoformans
next step in tx of otitis media if resistant to amoxicillin
cefdnir (3rd gen ceph)
what drug is causing the following sx:

anxiety, piloerection, yawning, fever, rhinorrhea, nausea, diarrhea
opiod withdrawal
what type of food should pregnant woman avoid? Why
unpasteurized milk
deli meat

due to listeria
what is responsible for extra ocular movements during REM due to?
PPRF (paramedic pntinue reticular formation/conjugate gaze center)
broad spectrum coverage for appendicitis
Imipenem
severe depression, headache, fatigue, insomnia/hypersomnia, hunger...due to what drug?
amphetamine withdrawal
what is the cup to disc ratio in glaucoma
greater than 1:2
What is hexamethonium?
Nicotinic antagonist

blocks both sympathetic and parasympathetic activity

used for experiments
prophylaxis against bacterial endocarditis
1st gen cephs
belligerence impulsiveness, nystagmus, homicidal ideations psychosis...due to what drug
PCP OD
what IL or IFN is responsible for the following:

Inhibits T-cells and macrophages
T cell stimulator:
stimulates B cells
stimulates macrophages:
Inhibits T-cells and macrophages: IL-10
T cell stimulator: IL-2
stimulates B cells: IL4/5
stimulates macrophages: IFN gamma
how is imipramine used to treat enuresis?
TCA that decreases stage 4 sleep
prophylaxis for meningococci meningitis
Rifampin
streak ovaries, congenital heart dz, horseshoe kidney
turner syndrome
60 y.o man with difficulty driving at night because he sees halos around the oncoming headlights. what does he have
Catarax
what grows on chocolate agar?

Lowenstein-Jensen?

MacConkey's agar?

Sabouraud's agar?
chocolate: H. influenzae

Lowenstein-Jensen: m. TB
note: pt with TB MUST be kept in airborne isolation

MacCokneys: Lactose-fermenting enterics (note: ecoli grows on this, but can also grow on eosin-methylene blue agar)

Sabouraud: Fungi
what do you grow haemophilus on? what does it require?

what do you grow legionella on?
chocolate agar

factors V and X

Legionella: Charcol yeast (CYE)
sudden swollen/painful big toe joint, tophi
Gout (podagra)

hyperuricemia
how do NK cells and Cytotoxic T cells recognize virus infected cells respectively?
NK: lack of MHC I

Cytotoxic T: MHC I on virus infected
what effect do alcohol, benzos, and barbs do to sleep?
reduce REM and delta sleep
cause of diabetic osteomyeltis
psedomonas
swollen gums, mucous bleeding, poor wound healing, spots on skin
Scurvy (vitamin C)
What prostaglandin is used in glaucoma? Side effecs
Latanoprost (PGF 2 alpha)

lengthens eye lashes, darkens pigment of the eye
what type of receptors are the N and M ACh receptors?
N: ligand gated (Na/K)

M: G-protein
this bug produces no toxin but adheres to apical surface, flattens the villi, and prevents absorption causing diarrhea in kids
EPEC
swollen hard painful finger joints
Osteoarthritits
what induces a helper T cell to TH1 and TH2 respectively
TH1: IL 12

TH2: IL 4
whay can be used to tx night terrors and sleep walking? why
Benzos

affect stage 3/4 sleep
what is the triad seen in Hemolytic-uremic syndrome (HUS)? cause?
Anemia, thrombocytopenia and acute renal failure

cause: O157
systolic ejection murmur
aortic valve stenosis
side effect of a1 blockers?
first dose orthostatic hypotension

so give first dose laying down at night
in what bacterial growth phase does spore formation occur?
Stationary phase
2 treatments for Ecoli that causes diarrhea?
FQs and TMP SMX
thyroid and parathyroid tumors, pheochromocytoma
MEN 2A

(medullary thyroid carcinoma)
co stimulatory signal that is given by interaction of B7 and CD28 will help activate what
helper T cells (CD4)
when can you diagnose nocturnal enuresis?
5 years (chronological and developmental
most common cause of G- sepsis?
e. coli
toe extension, fanning upon plantar scrape
babinski's sign
what kind of drug is mirtazapine? use? tox?
a2 blocker

Depression

tox: sedation, increased serum cholesterol, increased appetite
enzyme responsible for conversion of tyrosine to L dopa?
Tyrosine hydroxylase

(inhibited my metryrosine)
if a pt has salmonella what might you not want to do
use an abx...can prolong the dz
unilateral facial drooping involving forehead
Bell's palsy
What CD on a B cell is a receptor for EBV?
CD21
during what sleep stage would a man have variable BP, penile turnescence and variable EEG?
REM
usually transmitted from puppies, contaminated milk, or pork. Causes mesenteric adenines that can mimic Crohn's or appendicitis
yersinia enterocolitica
vasculitis from exposure to endotoxin causing glomerular thrombosis
Shwartzman reaction
surgical neck fracture of the humerous can lead to what n damage?
axillary

look for loss of sensation or movement on deltoid

this can happen with dislocation too
gram positive clusters=

chains=
cluster=STAPH

chain=strep
unpasteurized dairy giving you undulant fever...bug?
Brucella
what can be assoc with bilateral bell's palsy
Guillan berre

lyme dz
unpasteurized dairy giving you undulant fever...bug?
Brucella
man comes in with sensation of unpleasant paresthesias that compels the man to have voluntary spontaneous continous lower limb movements. What does he have? Possible cause? Tx?
Restless Leg Syndrome

usually idiopathic, can be due to iron def

tx: pramipexole or ropinrole or levodopa (parkinsons drugs)
CD 14 is a major marker for what kind of cell
Macrophage
vasculitis from exposure to endotoxin causing glomerular thrombosis
Shwartzman rxn (following second expousre to endotoxin)
cellulitis or osteomyelitis from a cat bight
pasturella multocida
a1, M1, M3 all activate what G protein? what downstream messenger is activated
Gq

Phospholipase C

(Cutesy-Q C)
cellulitis or osteomyelitis from a cat bight
pasturella multocida
waxy casts with very low urine flow
chronic end-stage renal dz
mid shaft fracture of the humerus leads to damage of what n?
radial
what is an Apgar score
appearance
Pulse
Grimace
Activity
Respiration
life threatening meningitis + purpura
neisseria meningitis
WBC casts in urine
acute pyelonephritis
life threatening meningitis + purpura
neisseria meningitis
Protein A is a virulence factor that binds Fc-IgG inhibiting complement fixation and phagocytosis...what bugs have it?
staph A
CD55 and 59 are on what? role?
WBC, RBC, and platelet

prevents degradation by complement
weight loss, diarrhea, arthritis, fever, adenopathy
Whipple's dz (tropheryma whippelii)
corneal infections in contact lens wearer due to?
psuedomonas
polyuria, acidosis, growth failure, electrolyte imbalances
Fanconii Syndrome

proximal tubular reabsorption defect
corneal infections in contact lens wearer due to?
psuedomonas
Worst headache of my life
subarachnoid hemorrhage
hypertrophy of the anterior scalene can lead to what problem? what is it?
Klumpke palsy (thoracic outlet)

1. atrophy of the thnar and hypothenar eminence
2. atrophy of the interosseous muscles
3. sensory deficits on the medial side of the forearm
4. disappearance of the radial pulse upon moving head toward ipsilateral side

TOTAL CLAW HAND
B1, B2, D1 all activate what G protein? what is the downstream messenger?
Gs

Adenylyl Cyclase
enzymes that obligate anaerobes lack?
catalase

superoxidase dismutase
What is Pott's dz?
TB in vertebral bodys
enzymes that obligate anaerobes lack?
catalyze

superoxidase dismutase
pupil accommodates but doesn't react
Argyll Robertson pupil (neurosyphilis)
3 things for neutrophil chemotaxis
IL 8
C5a
Leukotriene B4
2 uses for dapsone
leprosy and PCP pneumonia
what 3 drugs have photosensitivity?
SAT for a photo

Sulfonamides, amiodarone, tetracyclines
M protein helps prevent phagocytosis of what bug?
group A strep
supercondylar fracture of the humerous can damage what nerve
median
bacteria associated with water contaminated by animal urine
Leptospira interrogans

remember this was the question about the swimmers
what do you use to treat atypical pnuemonias such as mycoplasma, chlamydia, and legionella?
macrolides
Rash on palms and soles (2 potential)
2ndary syphillis

Rocky Mountain spotted fever
clinical uses for alpha interferon? 5
hep B/C

Kaposi sarcoma

leukemia

malignant melanoma
strawberry tongue + peeling of palms and soles
Kawasaki dz
what drug is safe in pregnant ladies with upper respiratory infections
macrolides
M2, a2, D2 all activate what G protein? what is the downstream messenger?
Gi

inhibit adenylyl cyclase
fracture of medial epicondyle leads to what n damage
ulnar
what does coxiella burnettii cause? what family is it from? what is the vector?
Q fever: fever +pneumonia

Rickettsia

NO VECTOR, NO RASH

It is Queer
what can you use for MRSA, VRE, and staph/strep skin infections?
streptogramins

Quinupristin/Dalfopristin
Recurrent colds, unusual eczema, high serum IgE
Job's syndrome (hyper-IgE syndrome, neutrophils chemotaxis abnormality
clinical use for B inteferon?
Multiple sclerosis
what bacteria is the only one with a membrane containing cholesterol
Mycoplasma pneumoniae

remember cold agglutinings (IgM)
what is a good tx for anaerobic infections? what kind of bug would this tx?
Clindamycin

bactericides, clostridium
what is strep mutans?
most prominent organism in dental plaque

form of Viridans strep

can lead to subacute endocardiitis in those with turbulent flow heart prolems
fracture of the hook of hamate leads to what n damage
ulnar
this causes pulmonary TB like sx in COPD pts
mycoplasma kansaii
which causes of vaginal discharge/vaginitis will pH be high?

low?
high: Gardenella, Trich

Low: physiologic, candida
red itchy swollen rash of nipple/areola
paget's dz of the breast represent underlying neoplasm
pt has a mild UTI in pregnancy... tx
nitrofurytoin (sp)
what is the tx for the following:

mycoplasma pneumonia
Late lyme dz:
mycoplasma pneumonia: tetracyline/erythromycin
Late lyme dz: ceftriaxone
HIV meds that cause the following

Pancreatitis:

Rash:

Peripheral Neuropathy:

Lactic Acidosis:
Pancreatitis: Didanosine

Rash: NNRTI

Peripheral Neuropathy: Didanosine

Lactic Acidosis: NRTI
DOC for septic shock?
NE
clinical use for gamma interferon
chronic granulomatous disease
Rickettsial triad?
Headache
fever
rash
what is the difference btw conversion and somatozation disorder
conversion: motor/sensory sx

somatization: multiple organ sx (moves all over the place)
pt has a UTI and later has hemolysis of their RBCs what drug were they on and why did this happen
Sulfonamide

G6PD deficient
2 neoplasms assoc with Down syndrome
ALL
AML
What is a tensilon test?
Edrophonium test for MG
ash leaf spots=

majore neoplasm assoc
Tuberous sclerosis

cardiac rhabdomyoma
what drugs should be avoided in pts with an allergy to sulfa (9)
celecoxib
furosemide
probenecid
thiazides
TMP SMX
sulfasalazine
sulfonylureas
acetazolamide
sulfonamides
pt with atrophic glossitis, esophageal webs, anemia...what neoplasm are they at risk from
SCC of esophagus

this was Plummer-Vinson
what structure on an antibody defines the idiotype?
Fab fragment- what it can bind

(2 ight chain and 2 heavy chain regions)
Acanthosis nigricans can lead to what
visceral malignancy (stomach, lung, breast, uterus)
what drugs can cause SJS? 8
Ethosuximide
lamotrigine
carbamazepine
phenobarbital
phenytoin
sulfa drugs
penicillin
allopurinol
what is the neoplasm assoc with the following conditions-

Achalasia:
Srojens:
Ataxia telangectasia
Achalasia: SCC of esophagus

Srojens: B-cell lymphoma (mantle)

Ataxia telangectasia:Lymphoma/acute leukemia
First Gen H1 blockers, typical antipsychotics, tricyclics, and amantidine have what in common?
All have anticholinergic side effects
Homer-Wright pseudorosettes=
Adrenal Neuroblastoma
MOA of floroquinolones?

what happens if used in pregnancy

what does it do to adults?

what dz can you use it in for kids?
inhibit DNA gyrase (topoisomerase II)

bactericidal

damages cartilage in bones of kids...don't give to preggos

remember tendon rupture in adults

note: cipro can be used in kids for CF
describe the heritable form of retinoblastoma
first mutation from parent

other is sporadic
what does the FC region of the Ab do
determines the isotype (IgG/M etc)

binds complement
APC gene can lead to what?
Colorectal cancer (assoc with FAP)
metronidizole, clindamycin, imipenam can all tx what
anaerobic infections
what gene is deleted in pancreatic cancer?

Colon?
DPC-Deleted in Pancreatic Cancer

DCC-Deleted in Colon Cancer
what kind of drug is tolterodine? use?
M blocker

Urge incontinence
Major tumor marker for colorectal and pancreatic cancer
CEA for both

also Ca19-9 for pancreatic
what penicillin drug would you use to treat a neonatal infection
ampicillin
alpha fetoprotein is a tumor marker for what 2 cancers
Hepatocellular carcinoma (hep B/C pts)

nonseminomatous germ cell tumor of the testis (yok sac)
half life of IgG?
21 days

CROSSES THE PLACENTA--gives baby passive immunity
CA 125 is a tumor marker for what?
Ovarian malignant epithelial tumor
what cell wall inhibitor matches the following statement:

use to tx otitis media if resistant to amoxicillin:

prophylaxis against bacterial endocarditis:

increases the nephrotox of aminoglycosides:

broad spectrum coverage for appendicitis:
use to tx otitis media if resistant to amoxicillin: cefdnir (3rd gen)

prophylaxis against bacterial endocarditis: 1st gen cephs

increases the nephrotox of aminoglycosides: cephalosporins

broad spectrum coverage for appendicitis: imipenem
tumor marker seen in obstructive biliary dz and Paget's dz?
Alkaline phosphatse
what kind of drug is trospium? use?
M blocker

urge incontinence
TRAP is a tumor marker for what
Hairy Cell
what G - bug matches the following:

life threatening meningitis + purpura=
neisseria meningitis
Ca-19-9 is the tumor marker for what
pancreatic adenocarcinoma
What is the initial Antibody? delayed?
initial: M

Delayed
oral hairy leukoplakia is due to what?
EBV
how old is a child who can do the following:

pass a cube
6m
strep bovis causes what ca?

clonarchis sinesis?
strep bovis causes what ca: colon

clonarchis sinesis: biliary
what kind of drug is darifenacin?
M blocker
1. What does the following paraneoplasm release:
a. Small cell lung carcinoma:
b. Small cell lung carcinoma nad intracranial neoplasms:
c. Squamous cell lung carcinoma, renal cell carcinoma, and breast carcinoma:
d. Renal cell carcinoma, hemangioblastoma:
e. Thymoma, small cell lung carcinoma:
f. Leukmia/lymphoma:
1. What does the following paraneoplasm release:
a. Small cell lung carcinoma: ACTH=Cushing
b. Small cell lung carcinoma nad intracranial neoplasms: ADH=SIADH
c. Squamous cell lung carcinoma, renal cell carcinoma, and breast carcinoma: PTH-related peptide=Hypercalcimeia
d. Renal cell carcinoma, hemangioblastoma: EPO
e. Thymoma, small cell lung carcinoma: Abs against Ca channels at NMJ= Lambert Eaton
f. Leukmia/lymphoma: hyperuricemia=Gout
how old is a child who can do the following:

put a cube in a cup
12m
Psammoma bodies can be seen in what 4 things
Papillary adenocarcinoma
Serous adenocarcinoma (ovary)
Meningioma
Mesothelioma
classic pathway is stimulated by what

alternative?
classic: atigen antibody complexes

alternative: microbial surfaces (nonspecific activators)
if you have met to the bone, given the following clue, where did it come from

Lytic=
Blastic=
Both lytic and blastic=
Lytic= Lung
Blastic= Prostate
Both lytic and blastic= Breast
how old is a child who can do the following:

make a 2 cube tower
15m
what drugs are used for testicular cancer
Eradicated Ball Cancer

Etoposide
Bleomycin
Cisplatin
List the G protein class for the following:

a1:
A2:
B1:
B2:
M1:
M2:
M3
D2:
a1: Gq
a2: Gi
B1: Gs
B2: Gs
M1: Gq
M2: Gi
M3: Gq
D2: Gi
what neoplasm are assoc with the following:

Tuberous sclerosis
Ataxia telangectasia
Pagets dz
Tuberous sclerosis: Cardiac rhabdomyoma

Ataxia telangectasia: Leukemia lymphoma

Pagets dz: osteosarcoma
how old is a child who can do the following:

hands together
3m
which neoplasm is assoc with the following:

Nitrosamines:

Arsenic:

Naphthalene:
Nitrosamines: esophagus and stomach

Arsenic: skin/liver

Naphthalene: Bladder
what makes up the MAC?
C5b-9
most common cause of hypercalcemia? cancers that cause this?
primary hyperparathyroidism

Cancers:
SCC of the lung, renal, breast
how old is a child who can do the following:

make a 4 cube tower
18m
which tumor marker would help with the following:

melanoma:

Astrocytoma:

Hepatocellular ca:
melanoma: s-100

Astrocytoma: s-100

Hepatocellular ca: alpha fetoprotein
what sympathetic is given SubQ for asthma?
terbutaline

B2 agonist
what step in the cell cycle do p.53 and Rb prevent
movement from G1 to S
how old is a child who can do the following:

make a 6 cube tower
2y
what stops G2 to M in the cell cycle
p.53
what complement proteins are involved in anaphylaxis?
C3a

C5a
Use of Methotrexate (2)

MOA?

tox?
Uterine pathology (choriocarcinoma, ectopic preg, abortion)

immunosupression

inhibits dihydrofolate reductase

tox: myelosuppresion reversible with leucovorin
how old is a child who can do the following:

copy a circle or dash
3 y
MOA of 5-FU
pyrimidine analog-->inhibits THYMIDYLATE SYNTHASE
what will cause increase tox of 6MP? why?
allopurinol

6MP is broken down by xanthine oxidase, which allopurinol inhibits
what receptors are stimulated by the following

Clonidine:
Dopamine:
Phenylephrine:
Albuterol
Norepinephrine:
Isoproterenol:
Epinephrine:
Dobutamine:
Terbutaline
Clonidine: a2
Dopamine: D1=D2 >B>a
Phenylephrine: a1>a2
Albuterol: B2>B1
Norepinephrine: a1, a2> B1
Isoproterenol:B1=B2
Epinephrine: a1, a2, B1, B2
Dobutamine: B1>B2
Terbutaline: B2>B1
what drug uses leucovorin rescue?

thymidine?
leucovorin: MTX

thymidine: 5FU
how old is a child who can do the following:

copy a + or make a stick figure
4 y
what drug do you use for childhood tumors such as Ewings, rhabdomyosarcoma and Wilms
Dactinomycin (intercalates DNA)
deficiency of C1 esterase inhibitor leads to what?
hereditary angioedema
MOA of doxorubicin?

tox?
generates free radicals to destroy DNA

Cardiotox
how old is a child who can do the following:

copies a square
5y
MOA of bleomycin

Tx:

Tox?
free radical damage of DNA

Tx: Testicular cancer

Tox: Pulmonary fibrosis
list what class of drug the following are:

-azine:
-ipramine:
-tidine:
-navir:
-phylline:
-triptyline:
-azine: neuroleptic
-ipramine: TCA
-tidine: H2 antag
-navir: Protease inhibitor
-phylline: Methylxanthine
-triptyline: TCA
MOA of Etoposide

tx?
inhibits topoisomerase II

tx: testicular
how old is a child who can do the following:

ride a tricycle or jump forward
3 y
deficiencey of C3 leads to what?
severe recurrent pyogenic sinus and respiratory tract infections (strep pnuemo and h. influ)

also type III HS rxn (glomerulonephritits)
what cancer drug causes hemorrhagic cystitis? how can you prevent this?

what does this drug have an increased risk of?
Cyclophosphamide

Mesna (binds up toxic metabolite)

increased risk of TCC of bladder
how old is a child who can do the following:

have an imaginary friend
4 y
tox of Busulfan?
pulmonary fibrosis
pronator of the arm
median n
MOA of vincristine and vinblastine?

Tox?
Block polymerization of microtubules

Vincristine: neurotox
Blastine: bone barrow suppression
how old is a child who can do the following:

same sex friends
6-11
MOA of paclitaxel?
hyperstabilize microtubule spindle (can't break it down)
deficiency of the MAC will lead to what
neisseria bacteremia
Tox of cisplatin?

use?
Nephrotox, acoustic nerve damage

testicular, bladder, ovary cancer
when is potty training done
btw 2-3 years
MOA of prednisone in Cancer?

Tox?
Trigger apoptosis

Cushing, immunosuppression, cataracts, acne, osteoporosis, HTN, peptic ulcers, hyperglycemia, psychosis
Tamoxifen vs raloxifine..

what do they treat?

which is better
osteoperosis (SERM)

raloxifine: no risk of endometrial carcinoma (which tamoxifen does)
Nerve for wiping your ass:

Nerve(s) to raise arm above horizontal:

What nerve runs with the following blood:
Posterior circumflex:
deep brachial:
brachial:
Nerve for wiping your ass: Thoracodorsal

Nerve(s) to raise arm above horizontal: spinal accessory and LTN

What nerve runs with the following blood:
Posterior circumflex: axillary
deep brachial: radial
brachial: median
MOA of trastuzumab

tox?
MAB against HER-2

kills breast cancer cells that express HER2

cardiotox
describe the following Tanner stage:

male tanner 2
enlargement of scrotum and testes
deficiency of DAF leads to what
paroxsymal nocturnal hemoglobinuria

DAF=decay accelerating factor

DAF is made of CD 55 and 59
give the cancer drug that fits the following

Alkylates DNA, tox pulmonary fibrosis:

DNA alkylating agents for brain cancer:

Inhibits thymidlayte synthase:

MOA similar to antivirals acyclovir and foscarnet:

Inhibitor of PRPP synthetase:
Alkylates DNA, tox pulmonary fibrosis: Busulfan

DNA alkylating agents for brain cancer: -stines

Inhibits thymidlayte synthase: 5FU

MOA similar to antivirals acyclovir and foscarnet: Cytarabine

Inhibitor of PRPP synthetase: 6MP
describe the following Tanner stage

male 3
enlargement of penis (length first)
what nerve is likely to get injured with the following injuries:

shaft of humerus:
surgical neck of humerus:
supracondyle of humerus:
medial epicondyle:
anterior shoulder dislocation:
shaft of humerus: Radial
surgical neck of humerus: Axillary
supracondyle of humerus: median
medial epicondyle: ulnar
anterior shoulder dislocation: axillary
give the cancer drug that fits the following

Treatment for choriocarcinoma:
Tx for AML:
tx CML:
applied topically for AKs and Basal cell ca:
Antibody against Philadelphia chromosome:
Treatment for choriocarcinoma: MTX

Tx for AML: Cytarabine

tx CML: Busulfan

applied topically for AKs and Basal cell ca:5FU

Antibody against Philadelphia chromosome: Imatinib
describe the following Tanner stage

stage 4 male
penis: growth in breadth and development of the glans

testes: enlarge

scrotum: larger and darker
what is a Ham's test?

shows what?

tx?
when RBC lyse at low pH

diagnostic of Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria

tx: iron, anticoagulant (warfarin), bone marrow transplant
Spinothalamic and DCML uses what thalamic nucleus
VPL

pain, temp, position and proprioception
describe the following Tanner stage

female 2
breast bud with elevation of breast and papilla

areola enlargment
abdominal pain, ascites, hepatomegaly
Bud Chiari syndrome

lookslike CHF w/ no JVD
trigeminal and gustatory pathway uses what thalamic nucleus
VPM

face sensation and tast
which tanner stage is the following:

areola and papilla form a secondary mound above the level of the breast
female 4
Coombs test shows you what type of HS rxn?
Type II
CN II uses what thalamic nucleus
LGN

vision

Lateral light
at what age does female breast development occur?

growth spurt?

menarche?
breast: 11

growth: 12

menarche: 13
achilles tendon xanthoma
familial hypercholesterolemia
the superior olive and inferior colliculus of the pons uses what thalamic nucleus
MGN

Hearing

Medial music
when does male sexual development occur
age 12

growth spurt 14-15
what type of HSN rxn are:

Post strep glomerulonephritis:
Rheumatic Fever:
PAN:
Post strep glomerulonephritis: II
Rheumatic Fever: II
PAN: III
what happens to the stratum granulosum and spinosum in psoriasis
Granulosum: decreased

Spinosum: increase
what car seat consideration should you make for the following:

<1 year and <20 lbs
infant seat in back seat facing backwards
adrenal hemorrhage, hypotension, DIC
Waterhouse Friderichsen syndrome

Nesseria leading to sepsis
what helps rolling of neutrophils along the endothelium?

what allows for neutrophil tight binding?
what helps rolling of neutrophils along the endothelium: E-selectin

what allows for neutrophil tight binding: ICAM-1 (integrin)
what car seat consideration should you make for the following:

1-4 and >20lbs
sits in back seat with car seat, can face forward
antihistone Ab=

anticentromere=

Anti-Scl 70:

Antimitochondrial ab:

anti-desmoglein

antimicrosomal, antithyroglobulin:

anti Jo:

anti Ro (SSA)

Ani La (SSB):

anti-U1 RNP:

anti smooth muscle:

anti-glutamate decarboxylae:

c-ANCA:
antihistone Ab= drug induced lupus

anticentromere= CREST

Anti-Scl 70: diffuse scleroderma

Antimitochondrial ab: primary biliary cirrhosis

anti-desmoglein: pemphigus vulgaris

antimicrosomal, antithyroglobulin: Hashimoto

anti Jo: Polymyositis/dermatomyositis

anti Ro (SSA): sjogrnes

Ani La (SSB): sjogrens

anti-U1 RNP: mixed CT disease

anti smooth muscle: autoimmune hepatitis

anti-glutamate decarboxylae: type 1 Diabetes mellitus

c-ANCA: Wegners granulomatosis
what are the neutrophil chemotactic factors
IL 8
C5a
Leukotriene B4
what car seat consideration should you make for the following:

4 years and 40lbs
booster seat in the back
hyperplasia of statum spinosum, associated with hyperinsulinemia or visceral malignancy
acanthosis nigrans
back pain, fever, night sweats, weight loss
Pott's dz (vertebral TB)
Herald patch followed by christmas tree distribution
Pityriasis rosea
acute phase cytokines
IL1
IL6,
TNF alpha
what skin cancer has a rolled edge with cental ulcer
basal cell carcinoma
what car seat consideration should you make for the following:

4' 9'' and 8-12
belted with lap shoulder belt in back seat until 13
what skin cancer has keratin pearls
SCC
what is the deficiency in SCIDs
Adenosine deaminase deficiency

will not have thymic shadow on CXR in newborn
Depth of tumor correlates with risk of metastasis with what tumor
Melanoma
where do you do a lumbar puncture
L3/L4 or L4/L5
what are the ABCDs of Melanoma
Asymmetry
Border irregularity
Color
Diameter
how old is the following kid:

jumps up, 6 cube tower, eats with spoon, 2-3 word sentence
2 years
T/F Acetaminophen is useful in tx of inflammation
FALSE
bilateral hilar adenopathy, uveitis
sarcoidosis
what skin disorder are the following-

Pruitis associated with asthma:

Thickened scar :

Sand-paper, predispostion to SCC:

Histology shows palisading nuclei:
Pruitis associated with asthma: Eczema

Thickened scar : keloid

Sand-paper, predispostion to SCC: actinic keratosis

Histology shows palisading nuclei: Basal Cell
what is a Bankart Lesion? what is it seen with usually?
injury of the anterior (inferior) glenoid labrum due to repeated (anterior) shoulder dislocation. It is an indication for surgery and often accompanied by a Hill-Sachs lesion, damage to the posterior humeral head.
rectangular crystal like cytoplasmic inclusions in Leydig Cells
Reinke Cyrstals (leydig cell tumor)
how old is the following kid:

regards face, responds to sound, not yet able to roll over
<3 months
renal epithelial cell casts in urine
Acute toxic/viral nephrosis
what is seen in WAS?
eczema
Thrombocytopenia and purpura
recurrent pyogenic infections

TRUNCAL eczema
Rhoboid crystals, positively birefringent
pseudogout (calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate)
what inhibits the Ryanodine receptor
Dantrolene
sheets of medium sized lymphoid cells ("starry sky" appearance on histology)
Burkitts lymphoma
how old is the following kid:

stands with support, 1-3 words, stranger anxiety, drinks from a cup
1 year
Silver-staining spherical aggregation of tau proteins in neurons
Pick bodies
bone pain, bone enlargment, increased hat size, fractures...

what would be elevated?
Paget's dz

Alk phos
spikes on basement membrane, dome like endothelial deposits
Membranous glomerulonephritis
genetics associated with achondroplasia?
AUTOSOMAL DOMINANT

FGFR3 gene
stippled vaginal epithelial cells
"clue cells" Gardnella vaginalis
todler with poor smooth pursuit of moving target with eyes. What do they have? increased risk of what?
Ataxia-telangiectasia

Ca risk: lymphoma and acute leukemias

increased radiation sensitivity
"tennis-racket" shaped cytoplasmic organelles (EM) in Langerhans cells
Birbeck granules (histiocytosis X: eosinophilic granuloma)
bounding pulses, diastolic heart murmur, head bobbing
aortic regurgitation

diastolic goes down then it goes up
Thrombi made of white/red layers
Lines of Zahn (arterial thrombus, layers of platelets/RBCs)
if a pt is on corticosteroids for 3 months, what drug should they be given prophylactically
bispohosphonate

watch out for osteoporosis
Thumb sign on lateral xray
epiglottitis (h influ)
why is it important to diagnose IgA deficiency
possible anaphylaxis to blood transfusions and blood products
thyroid like appearance of kidney
chronic bacterial pyelonephritis
Cafe-au-lait spots, Lisch nodules (iris hamartoma), phoechromocytoma, optic gliomas
NF I
Tram track appearance on LM
Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis
what coagulation drug can lead to osteoporosis
heparin
Triglyceride accumulation in liver cell vacuoles
Fatty liver disease (alcoholic or metabolic syndrome)
in CGD what are ppl susceptible to?

how do you diagnose?
Cat +

s aureus
kelp
aspergillus
candida

Diagnosed by: nitroblue tetrazolium dye (no yellow to lue black oxidation)

give TMP-SMX prophylactic tx
WBCs that look smudged
CLL (almost always B cell, elderly)
Cafe-au-lait spots, Lisch nodules (iris hamartoma), bilateral acoustic neuromas
NF II

chrom 22
Wire loop glomerular appearance on LM
Lupus nephropathy
why can't you take bisphosphonates before bed
cause corrosive esophagitis, so you don't want to be laying down
Yellow CSF
xanthochromia (subarachnoid hemorrhage)
what is the triad in Chediak-Higashi dz?
partial albinism
recurrent respiratory tract and skin infections
neurologic disorders
Keratin filled cysts
Seborrheic Keratosis
Cafe-au-lait spots,polystotic fibrous dysplasia, precoucious puberty
McCune-Albright syndrome (mosaic G-protein signaling mutation)
signet ring cells in ovary=

in RBCs=
ovary= Krunkenberg

RBC= Trophozoite of malaria
what is teriparatide?
drug for osteoporosis, decreases hip fracture rate by 53%

can only use for 2 years
pt with eczema, recurrent cold staph a abscesses, broad nose, prominent forehead, deep set eyes and doughy skin. what does he have? what would his mouth have going on
Job syndrome (hyperimmunoglobulin E syndrome)

2 rows of teeth (retained primary teeth)
Cherry red spot on macula (3)
Tay Sachs (ganglioside)
Neimann pick (sphingomyelin)
central retinal artery occlusion
pt has erlenmeyer flask bones. What is serum calcium, phos, and alkaline phosphates levels like?
Osteopetrosis

all are normal
infant with failure to thrive, hepatosplenomegaly, neurodegeneration
niemann pick dz (genetic shingomyelinase deficiency)
Chest pain, pericarial effusion/friction rub, persistent fever following MI
Dressler's syndrome

autoimmune mediated post MI fibrinous pericarditis, 1-12 weeks post
cafe au lait spots, short stature, precocious puberty
McCune Albright
infant with hypoglycemia failure to thrive, and hepatomegaly
Cori's dz (deb ranching enzyme deficiency)

could be Von Geirke's dz
Chronic exercise intolerance with myalgia, fatigue, painful cramps
McArdle's dz (muscle phosphorylase def)
what causes brown tumors?
Osteitis fibrosa cystica

increased Ca
decreased Phos
increases ALP
increased PTH
large rash with bulls eye appearance
erythema choronicum migraines from ixodes tick bite (lyme dz: borrelia)
conjugate lateral gaze palsy, horizontal diplopia

bilateral:
unilateral:
internuclear opthalmoplegia (damage to MLF)

bilateral: MS

unilateral: stroke
lucid interval after traumatic brain injury
epidural hematoma
what causes the following:

failure of bone resorption--> thickened and dense bones

also due to genetic deficiency of carbonic anhydrase II
osteopetrosis
machine heart murmur
PDA
bone is replaced by fibroblasts, collagen, and irregular bony trabeculae
polyostotic fibous dysplasia
male child recurrent infections, no mature B cells
Bruton's x linked agammaglobulinemia
please list if there is an increase, decrease or no change for the following in Osteoporosis

Serum Ca:
Phosphate:
ALP:
PTH:
All normal
cutaneous/dermal edema due to CT deposition
myxedema (hypothyroid or Graves)
mucosal bleeding and prolonged bleeding time
Glanzmann's thrombasthenia (defect in platelet aggregation due to lack of GpIIb/IIIa)
pt with colon polyp, lipomas, and osteoma in the skull
Gardner's syndrome
Dermatitis, dementia, diarrhea
Pellegra (niacin, B3, def)
no lactation post partum, absent mensturation, cold intolerance
Sheehan's syndrome (pituitary infarction)
knee pain with soap bubble appearance on x ray
giant cell tumor (osteoclastoma)
dilated cardiomyopathy, edema, polyneuropathy
Beriberi (thiamine, B1, def)
Nystagmus, intention tremor, scanning speech, bilateral internuclear ophthalmoplegia
MS
please list if there is an increase, decrease or no change for the following in Osteopetrosis

Serum Ca:
Phosphate:
ALP:
PTH:
all normal
dog or cat bite infection
Pasteurella multocida
necrotizing vasculitis of the lungs and necrotizing glomerulonephritis

sinus+c-anca:

anti-bm:
sinus: wegner

anti-bm: good pastures
please list if there is an increase, decrease or no change for the following in Osteomalacia/rickets

Serum Ca:
Phosphate:
ALP:
PTH:
Serum Ca: decrease
Phosphate: decrease
ALP: normal
PTH: increase

soft bones
erythroderma, lymphadenopathy, hepatosplenomegaly, atypical T cells
Sezary syndrome or mycosis fungoides
oscillating slow fast breathing
cheyne stokes respirations (central apnea in CHF or increased intracranial pressure)
please list if there is an increase, decrease or no change for the following in osteitis fibrosa cystica

Serum Ca:
Phosphate:
ALP:
PTH:
Serum Ca: increase
Phosphate: decrease
ALP: increase
PTH: increase

brown tumors
Facial muscle spasm upon tapping:
Chvostek's sign
painful raised red lesions no palms and soles
osler's nodes (infective endocarditis)
please list if there is an increase, decrease or no change for the following in Pagets

Serum Ca:
Phosphate:
ALP:
PTH:
Serum Ca: normal
Phosphate: normal
ALP: increase
PTH: normal
fat female forty and fertile
gall stones
painless erythematous lesions on palms and soles
Janeway lesions (infective endocarditis)
What is sicca syndrome
basically sjogren's minus the arthritis

dry eyes, mouth, vagina, etc
Fever chills headache, myalgia, following abx tx for syphilis
Jarisch-Herxheimer rxn (rapid lysis of spirochetes results in toxin release)
painless jaundice
cancer of the pancreatic head obstructing bile duct
this gout drug can be used acutely or for prophylaxis. MOA?
Colchicine

Microtubule inhibitor
fever, cough, conjuctivitis, coryza, diffuse
Measles (morbillivirus)
Palpable purpura, joint pain, abdominal pain (child)
Henoch schonlein purpura (IgA vasculitis affecting skin and kidneys)

affects Lower limb
What is the drug of choice for acute gout attacks?
NSAIDs

Indomethacin
green-yellow rings around peripheral cornea/iris
Kayser-Fleischer rings (copper accumulation from Wilson's dz)
pancreatic, pituitary, and parathyroid tumor
MEN I
what is chondrocalcinosis?

what is it seen in?
Calcification of articular cartilage

diagnostic of pseudogout
Hamartomatous GI polyps, hyperpigmentation of mouth/feet/hands
Peutz-Jeghers syndrome

polyps are benign but increased risk of cancer
multiple colon polyps, osteomas/soft tissue tumors, impacted/supernumerary teeth
Gardner's syndrome (subtype of FAP) APC gene
young sexually active person with a swollen knee
neisseria gonnorhea
hepatosplenomegaly, osteoporosis, neurologic sx
gaucher's dz (glucocerebrosidase def)

crumpled tissue paper cytoplasm
painful blue fingers/toes hemolytic anemia
cold agglutinin dz (autoimmune hemolytic anemia caused by mycoplasma pneumonia infections mononucleosis

IgM
Sacroilitis=
anklyosing spondylitis
hereditary nephritis, sensorineural hearing loss, catarax
Alports
what immunopatholgy matches the following statements:

antiplatelet antibodies:

newborn with chronic diarrhea, failure to thrive and chronic candida:

child with eczema, course facial features, and cold abscesses:

child with partial albinism, peripheral neuropathy and recurrent infections
what immunopatholgy matches the following statements:

antiplatelet antibodies: ITP

newborn with chronic diarrhea, failure to thrive and chronic candida: SCIDS

child with eczema, course facial features, and cold abscesses: Job's syndrome

child with partial albinism, peripheral neuropathy and recurrent infections: Cediak higashi
Dactylitits, pencil-in-cup deformity
psoriatic arthritis

look for joint pain + psoriasis
Hyperphagia, hypersexuality, hyperorality, hyperdocility
Kluver Bucy syndrome (bilateral amygdala lesion)
hypercoagulability (leading to migrating DVTs and vasculitis)
Trousseau's sign (adenocarcinoma of pancreas or lung)
kidneys with flea bite or ectasia
SLE

wire-loop
hypoemia, polycythemia, hypercapnia
Blue bloater

chornic bronchitis
indurated ulcerated genital lesion

painful:
painless:
painful: chancre (1 syphillis, teponema pallidum)

painless: chancroid (haemophilius ducreyi)
black lady with restrictive heart disease associated with non caseating granulomas
sarcoidosis
pt has increased ACE, and erythema nodosum. What can you biopsy for diagnosis
lacrimal gland or conjunctivia

Sarcoidosis
pt has stiffness in shoulder and hips, no weight loss and is associated with temporal arteritis. CK levels are normal
Polymalgia rheumatica
heliotrope rash, positive ANA, anti-jo-1

what is it with no rash?
Dermatomyositis

no rash: polymoyositis (shoulder weakness)
what paraneoplastic dz is Lambert Eaton associated with
small cell
what is CREST
it is a scleroderma (excessive fibrosis and collagen deposition throughout the body)

Calcinosis
Raynauds
Esophageal dysmotility
Sclerodactyly
Telangiectasia
parakeratotic scaling
Psoriasis
what has a positive Nikolsky's sign and what is it?
Pemphigus vulgaris

separation of the epidermis upon manual stroking of the skin
which affects the mouth, pemphigus vulgaris or bullus pemphigoid
Vulgaris
what is Toxic epidermal necrolysis
SJS that covers 30 % of the body
what will you see in Lichen Planus? What is it associated with
Pruitic, Purple, Polygonal Papules

associated with hepatitis C