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196 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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When is continuing flight into icing conditions prohibited?
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When any of the following occur:
airspeed of 120 KIAS cannot be maintained; an airspeed decrease of 10 knots that cannot be remedied by application of max continuous thrust; MEA or MOCA for current leg falls into area "C" of icing service ceiling (section 5 S1 of POH). |
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What else acts in conjunction with the ailerons to assist in roll control?
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Spoiler (up) deflection on the applicable aileron side, proportional to the aileron travel in excess of 5 degrees aileron up, via an interconnected push rod connected to an arm on the aileron bellcrank.
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Where are the spoilers located?
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The slop lip spoilers are mounted above the outboard edge of the flaps.
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How the control surfaces are mechanically operated?
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Through a manual (unassisted) linkage (standard bellcrank, push pull rod, cable, pulley). The spoilers are connected to the aileron bellcrank via a pushrod.
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What type of trim tabs do the ailerons incorporate, and where are the tabs located?
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Servo tabs, which also serve to reduce control wheel forces, are located on both ailerons, with a trimmable servo located on the right aileron only.
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How is elevator trim accomplished?
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Via two elevator trim tabs utilizing the trim wheel, or the electric trim control.
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How is rudder trim accomplished?
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Via the trim wheel which is connected to the nose wheel steering bungee (as aerodynamic forces on the rudder increase, any given selection of rudder trim will decrease due to the elasticity of the bungee).
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What is the threshold for the fire detection system?
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• 218° C for the firewall system
• 329° C for the exhaust system • 232° C for the accessory drive section |
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What is the minimum turning radius?
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65' 4-7/8"
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What is the steering range for the nose gear?
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With only rudder approximately 15 degrees, with braking 56 degrees
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How are the flaps operated?
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Via a controllable selector operating an electric motor
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What kind of flaps?
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Large span, single slot type, incorporating a trailing edge angle and leading edge vortex generator to reduce stall speed and enhance lateral stability
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How is the standby flap motor actuated?
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By utilizing the guarded standby flap motor switch to either UP or DOWN. By selecting the guarded switch from NORM to STBY this deactivates the normal motor only. The standby motor is always active.
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What limitation exists with the standby flap motor?
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The autopilot cannot by utilized with standby flaps, and there is no limit switch for the standby flaps, so care needs to be taken not to continue operation of the standby motor switch after the flaps have fully extended/retracted. The flap position indicator located next to the regular flap selector must be used to manually select the desired flap setting. The standby flaps system is simply a standby electric motor—the flap jackscrew transmission has no redundancy, so in the more likely event of a transmission failure, the standby flap system will be useless.
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What type of gear? How is shock absorbed?
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Tricycle type fixed with a steerable nose wheel. Shock absorbsion is accomplished by the main gear via the tubular spring-steel struts, an interconnecting spring steel tube between the two struts, and the nose gear oil filled shock strut and spring steel drag link.
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What kind of brakes?
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Each main gear wheel is equipped with a hydraulically actuated single-disc brake on the inboard side of each wheel.
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What kind of engine (Model, turbine type, Hp)?
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The engine is a Pratt and Whitney PT6A-114A. It is a free turbine, two-shaft engine utilizing a compressor section having three axial stages (7:1 ratio) and one centrifugal stage, an annular reverse-flow combustion chamber, a one-stage compressor turbine, a one-stage power turbine, and a single exhaust. The engine is flat rated at 675 shaft horsepower.
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How many fuel nozzles and when do they operate?
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There are 14 simplex nozzles, 10 primary and 4 secondary. 10 operate throughout the starting regime, 4 after 30-35% Ng. Without the 4 secondary nozzles, the engine may hang at 30-35% Ng during start. For operations from normal idle through max power, all 14 nozzles operate.
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What is the maximum Ng?
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101.6% Ng or 38,100 rpm
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What speed does the power turbine turn?
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33,000 rpm at 1,900 prop rpm
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How is the power turbine speed reduced to propeller rotation speed?
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The power turbine drives the propeller through a two-stage planetary gearbox (Reduction gearbox (RGB)) at the front of the engine.
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When is selection of Beta or reverse range prohibited?
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During flight and anytime the propeller is feathered (or shutdown). The linkage connecting the propeller control to the prop governor can be damaged if Beta is selected while the prop is feathered.
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What is the minimum oil level for operation?
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Any indication of oil on the dipstick
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What is the normal oil level to operate?
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2 quarts below max hot
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What critical element exists with regard to the oil dipstick (other then measuring oil level)?
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The dipstick tube is a pressurized part of the oil system, so not properly securing the dipstick will result in oil loss and possible bearing/engine seizure.
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Can engine oil brands be mixed?
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No; the oil type specified on a particular engine is located under the left cowl on the Inertial Separator.
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What type of sensing element is used for the fire detection system?
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3 flexible, electric closed loops, which experience a resistance decrease as temperature increases until reaching threshold levels defined by the control box.
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What percentage of the engine intake air is used for combustion and what for cooling?
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Approx. 20% of intake air is used for combustion, the rest for cooling.
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How does the Air Induction System work and what consideration should be taken with regards to this type of intake system?
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The engine air inlet is located at the front of the engine nacelle to the left of the propeller spinner. Ram air entering the inlet flows through ducting and an inertial separator system and then enters the engine through a circular plenum chamber where it is directed to the compressor by guide vanes. The compressor air inlet incorporates a screen which will prevent entry of large articles, but does not filter the inlet air. As airspeed increases on takeoff, the engine torque will increase due to an effect know as ram rise. Caution must be exercised during the takeoff to ensure engine parameters are not exceeded.
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What is the inertial separator and when is it used?
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The Inertial separator system is used to prevent intake of FOD (foreign objects)/ice. Used during all taxi operations and when in visible moisture at temps below 5° C.
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How does the inertial separator work?
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Intake air is forced to take a hard turn before entering the compressor section. When the inertial separator is opened, the momentum of the objects causes them to not make the turn with the air, and they pass straight through the inertial separator channel out the left side of the engine cowling.
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What are the elements of the compressor bleed system (with regard to compressor surge control), and how does the system operate?
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Compressor bleed valve system operates between 86-92% Ng to prevent the axial compressor from overloading the centrifugal compressor at low RPM (the axial compressor is much more efficient at lower RPMs). The valve is located between the second and third axial stage (P2.5). P3 (3rd stage axial) air is conditioned (depressurized) into Px, which acts against the bypass valve to close the spring loaded valve as engine speed (and P3 pressure) increases. The spring loaded valve opens when engine speed comes below 92%, until it is fully opened at 86%. Also, some of the heated P2.5 air that is ducted out of the compressor section can be routed to the cabin and defroster for climate control during ground operations.
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What is the path of fuel through the fuel system?
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Fuel flows by gravity from the two vented, integral fuel tanks through shutoff valves at each tank into the 4-gallon reservoir (which exists at the low point of the fuel system), where it can supply uninterrupted fuel to the electric auxiliary (fuel boost) pump and the ejector pump (a venture like device that excites additional fuel to join the pressurized excess fuel returning from the FCU). Fuel in the reservoir is pumped by the ejector pump or fuel boost pump through a fuel filter, an oil-to-fuel heat exchanger, then to the engine driven fuel pump, where fuel is delivered under pressure to the FCU (fuel control unit). Once through the FCU the metered fuel passes through a flow divider into the 14 simplex fuel nozzles.
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What will happen if the ejector fuel pump fails?
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When low fuel pressure is sensed (below 4.75 psi) and the Boost Pump switch is in the NORM position; the electric (fuel) boost pump will automatically engage (the AUX FUEL PUMP ON annunciator will illuminate).
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How is freezing of water in the fuel prevented?
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By an oil to fuel heat exchanger, which routes or bypasses hot oil into the exchanger via a heat sensing mechanical bypass valve.
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What will occur if there is a blockage in the fuel filter?
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A red button will extend above the top of the fuel filter indicating the filter is being bypassed. This button will remain up but the fuel pressure acting on the bypass button will cease once the engine is shut down, thus allowing the red button to be reset without actually resolving the filter failure. Maintenance will reset the button once the issue is resolved.
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What happens to the excess fuel in the system when the fuel condition lever is moved to cutoff?
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Both the primary and secondary fuel distribution manifolds are dumped into the EPA can, where it should be drained every day (or after every 6 cycles).
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What are the electrical sources?
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A 24V, 38-42 amp-hour lead acid battery; 28.5V, 200-amp starter/generator; 27.5V, 75-amp standby alternator
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When can the individual (non-feeder) circuit breakers be reset if they have popped un-commanded?
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After a three minute cooling period is allowed, only one reset is allowed (except in the event of an emergency). They should only be reset if considered a safety of flight item.
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Where and how is ITT measured?
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ITT is measured between the power and compressor turbines with a resistance thermocouple ITT sensor.
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What does the RESERVOIR FUEL LOW warning annunciator indicate?
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That the reservoir tank is approximately ½ full (2 gallons), and only 90 seconds of cruise power remains.
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At what measured tank level do the FUEL LOW lights come on?
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When the respective tank runs to below approximately 25 gallons
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What are the starter time limits?
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Battery:
30 seconds on, 60 seconds off 30 seconds on, 60 seconds off 30 seconds on, 30 minutes off. External Power: 20 seconds on, 120 seconds off 20 seconds on, 120 seconds off 20 seconds on, 60 minutes off |
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What minimum battery voltage is required for a battery start, and a GPU start?
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24 volts for battery (fully charged battery), and 20 volts with GPU
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When are you not required to brief passengers prior to a flight?
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If you don't pick up any additional passengers after a stop through flight, you don't have to rebrief the passengers.
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What is the initial response to an engine fire annunciation?
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On engine fire annunciation-pull CB #32 to silence aural alarm, pull cabin heat firewall shutoff, then verify that there is a fire.
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What is the cruise climb airspeed?
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Cruise climb of no more then 115 KIAS.
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If the fuel tank selectors are both accidentally selected into the off position, how long will the engine continue to run before flaming out?
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The 4 gallons in the reservoir tank is enough to power the engine for approximately 180 seconds (3 minutes) at cruise settings.
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What is the holding airspeed and briefing requirements?
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Hold at 120 KIAS, and PF should brief it.
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What must occur in the event of a TAWS "SINK RATE" callout?
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If TAWS gives a "SINK RATE" callout (within 700' AGL greater then 1,000 FPM descent), you must abort the landing
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What is the maximum tailwind component?
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Max tailwind is 10 knots.
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If parked for more then 1 hour, how should the aircraft be configured?
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When parked for more then 1-hour flaps should be up and the prop should be anchored.
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What mode should the MFD be run in during night and IMC?
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During flight operations at night and in IMC run the MFD in terrain mode.
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What is the difference between TAS and TCAS?
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TAS provides no resolution advisories.
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What rate should descents be planned for?
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Plan descents for 600-1000 FPM—prop rpm to 1650, and torque below 1400.
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What should be monitored on the number 2 radio?
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Company frequency, except for obtaining ATIS, etc...
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Do Part 91 ferry flights count towards crew times?
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Yes and no. You can over-fly Part 91 flights as a crew, but you must include the flight to the required rest timetable before flying again under 135.
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What are the flight visibility and cloud clearance requirements for 135 flight?
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The same as for Part 91 except for flight into G airspace where, if the ceiling is below 1,000', the flight visibility must be at least 2 sm
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What are the duty time rules for flight under 135?
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34 hours in any 7 consecutive days; 1200 and 120 per year/month.
Flight time (block time) is the time the aircraft moves under its own power for the purpose for flight, and flight occurs, to the time the aircraft stops at the ramp. You cannot be scheduled for more then 8 hours flight time in any given shift. For less then 8 hours of flight time in the preceding 24 hours, you must have had 9 consecutive hours worth of rest. For 8 to 9 (not inclusive) hours flight in the last 24 hour period, you need 10 hours consecutive hours of rest—so on, make sure that you look at the regs and record your time off duty to ensure you can calculate the legalities. Watch out on the above for duty times (the flight restriction can be in compliance while the 24 hour rest period may not be). |
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What visual reference do you need for a circle to landing maneuver?
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You need the airport (not the runway) in sight to continue past the MAP. To descend below MDA you must have the landing runway environment in sight.
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What does EMERGENCY POWER LEVER annunciation indicate?
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Emergency Power Lever warning indicates the EPL is not in the Normal (stowed) position.
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What redundancy exists for the engine driven fuel pump?
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There is no redundancy for an engine driven fuel pump failure—the auxiliary pump does not put out enough PSI
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Other than for a failure of the generator, what else may a GENERATOR OFF annunciation indicate?
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The generator may be off due to the start switch being inadvertently engaged.
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How is the nose gear attached to the airplane?
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Nose wheel is attached via a shimmy damper to the engine mount.
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How do you test the overspeed governor?
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Test the overspeed governor by pressing test button and advancing power ensuring that rpm does not exceed 1750 +/- 60 rpm.
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What is required to operate Part 135 in a terminal area IFR?
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Need communications, weather, and approved approach procedure to operate part 135 terminal IFR.
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When can you go IFR to an airport without a dedicated weather reporting station?
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You cannot accept an IFR clearance to an airport without weather at that station.
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What three requirements are there to proceed to a landing from an IAP?
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3 things to land--normal descent to an approach, flight visibility, and runway environment in sight
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When must you file an alternate on a 135 flight plan?
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Per 135.223, if the destination ceiling is less than 1,500' above the lowest circling MDA approach (into Albuquerque that would be 2,000'AGL). If no circling approach, ceiling less than 1,500 above lowest published minimums or 2,000' above field elevation whichever is higher and visibility less than 3SM or 2SM more then the lowest visibility minimums whichever is greater.
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What does C055 of the op spec define?
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It prescribes the alternate weather minimums needed to list an airport as an alternate. 200/1/2SM, 400/1SM rule
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What are the minimums to list a VFR (no published IAP) airport as required on an IFR flight plan?
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You cannot file a VFR airport as an alternate because you are required in C055 to apply ceiling and visibility to applicable approach minimums, and VFR (no IAP) airports have no minimums to add the values to.
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What takeoff requirements apply to IFR flight?
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Standard takeoff minimums apply to single engine airplanes (1 SM reported). If minimums are standard for the airport, then you can use the lowest authorized CAT I minimum for the airport. Touchdown zone RVR (for RVR reporting) is controlling for the minimum visibilities if reported. If nonstandard takeoff minimum is greater than standard (1SM), then the nonstandard minimum is controlling.
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When do you need an alternate to the takeoff airport?
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If the visibility required for takeoff is lower then lowest approach minimums you must have an alternate takeoff airport within 1 hour (do not need to file, but it is good to mention it to tower to get it on the tape).
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What is the procedure for a go-around from a circling approach?
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If you go around on a circling approach you do not have to execute the missed approach as long as it is not due to loss of airport—you can remain in the pattern and try again.
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What is required for IFR operations into a Class G airport?
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Requires CTAF or equivalent, approved source of weather, and an IAP
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What action may a pilot take with regards to (M) MEL items?
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For MEL deferral items that are (M) items (indicates maintenance item), you can accomplish the deferral action only in compliance with op specs H1.1-with verbal clearance by the DOM or ADOM.
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What requirement is there for briefing cards?
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Make sure that each seat is supplied with an approved briefing card in good condition.
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What is the status for equipment failures that are not covered in the MEL?
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If broken equipment is not on an MEL, the airplane is grounded, and a ferry permit is required if the aircraft needs to be repositioned in order to get fixed.
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If an MEL exists for the airplane, but the airplane is flown under part 91, can you fly the aircraft based upon the 91.205 equipment requirements?
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No. If an MEL is supplied for aircraft operations, it supercedes 91.205.
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When must an approach be stabilized with final flap settings?
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Stabilized approach prior to 500' HAA in VFR with final flap settings and stabilized power and flight path, 500' or MDA for circling, and 1,000' HAT for straight in IFR
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What is the policy with regards to interruptions during checklists?
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Start over unless you are certain of where you left off (i.e. you have your finger on the last item called out).
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What is the basic engine failure procedure?
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In an emergency: (ABC)
Airspeed - Best Glide Best place to land (navigate) Checklists (troubleshoot) --Basic checklist: (FBI) 1) Ensure both Fuel tanks are selected on; 2) Boost pump is selected on; 3) Ignition on (before Ng drops below 50%); if none of these works then check the prop rpm to ensure not under fuel topping governor restriction (less then approximately 2014 rpm), then utilize emergency power lever—if none of these restores power, Idle/feather/cutoff. |
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What is the approximate fuel flow for engine start? What is the concern if the fuel flow exceeds this amount?
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80-110 PPH; at flows much above this, a hot start is more likely to occur.
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What is the function of the GCU (generator control unit)?
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The GCU provides voltage regulation, over-voltage protection, reverse current protection, voltage regulation and automatic starter cutoff.
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What does an up or down arrow on the TAS (traffic alert system) indicate?
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The subject aircraft is climbing/descending at greater then 500 FPM.
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What do an open, and a closed diamond respectively indicate on the TAS?
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Open: intruder is beyond 1200' from your altitude and/or outside 5NM horizontally; closed: is less then those values but not yet considered a threat.
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What is indicated/annunciated on the TAS once an aircraft is considered a threat?
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A closed (filled in) yellow circle, when the intruder is calculated to be 15-30 seconds away, accompanied by an aural 'TRAFFIC, TRAFFIC'.
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What display modes does the KMD850 TAS have (what ranges)?
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Normal=within 2700' relative altitude; Above (climb mode)=9000' above, 2700' below; Below (descent mode)=9000' below and 2700' above; unrestricted=within 9000' of relative altitude.
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What is the response to a TAWS (terrain warning system) 'PULL UP' warning without having the initiating terrain/obstacle in sight?
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Level wings, pitch up for Vx (72 KIAS), apply max continuous power, and continue the climb until the aural warning ceases.
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What helps to prevent tail flutter/stall?
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Vortex generators mounted on top of the horizontal stabilizer.
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What is the maximum carrying weight of the cargo pods?
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1090 lbs.
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What does a red annunciator lamp indicate?
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A hazardous condition requiring immediate corrective action
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What does a yellow lamp indicate?
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A cautionary condition exists which requires either attention or action as able
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What does a green lamp indicate?
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A normal or safe condition or operation of equipment, but which action is only necessary for a specific flight regime (i.e. windshield anti-ice)
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What does the DAY/NIGHT switch do?
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It connects the variable intensity dimming for all the Green and some of the Amber annunciator lights to the ENG INST rheostat when operated in the NIGHT setting.
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How can you assure that the pilot seat is secure and locked into place?
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Check that the small metal pin protrudes from the T-handle (the seat is not locked if the pin is partially or fully retracted).
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What doors are annunciated as open with a DOOR WARNING light?
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The passenger and cargo doors only
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What are the maximum power numbers listed in the AFM for the PT6A-114A?
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1865 ft-lbs at 1900 rpm, increasing linearly to 1970 ft-lbs as rpm is decreased to 1800 rpm, thereafter remaining at 1970 ft-lbs.
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What do the turbine guide vanes do?
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They ensure that the exhaust gasses impinge the turbine blades at the optimal angle in order to capture the maximum amount of energy.
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What is the normal engine rpm/Ng speed?
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1900 rpm at the propeller and 101.6% or 33,000 rpm in the gas generator
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What engine parameter limitations will be exceeded first for different altitudes?
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Limiting factors in flight: at density alt of below approximately 5,000' the engine is torque limited, from 5,000-15,000' it will be ITT limited, and Ng (gas generator speed) limited above 15,000'—Ng is automatically controlled by a series of flyweights similar to a constant speed prop.
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How does the FCU (through power control manipulation) control fuel flow?
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FCU-Power levers act upon a pneumatic bellows which only increase or decrease the amount of fuel flow at a given rate (prevents runaway in the fuel supply delta for the turbine engine). P3 air acts upon the Ng governor (which conditions the P3 air to Py pressure) and the bellows to increase (or decrease) fuel flow as the power setting is altered, allowing P3 pressure to change, changing Py and pressure on the bellows.
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How does the emergency power lever operate?
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In the event of a pneumatic FCU failure (a decrease of Ng to approximately 48% at sea level, with the Ng percentage increasing with altitude), the emergency power lever is used to mechanically control the fuel supply to the engine. Be careful with the lever, as it can overstress the engine if power changes are made to rapidly.
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If you accidentally move the condition lever to cutoff when on the ground, what action should you take?
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Do not attempt to reintroduce fuel as this could lead to an engine overheat. You should dry motor the engine to cool it down prior to attempting a normal start.
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Why is rotation of the propeller not desirable after the engine is shut down?
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It can cause injury, and oil pressure is supplied via the gas generator, so insufficient lubrication of the power section occurs with the engine shut down.
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What does the condition lever do?
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It controls the minimum Ng % when the power lever is in the idle position, by mechanical linkage to a control rod located within the FCU.
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Where is the power quadrant friction lock located?
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It is a knurled knob located on the F/O side.
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What is the normal operating (green) range of Propeller RPM?
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1600-1900 RPM
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What is the prop deice electrical draw cycle?
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20-24 amps for 90 seconds, followed by no draw for 90 seconds.
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What can happen if the bleed heat air is left on during an engine start?
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A hot start and/or an abnormal Ng acceleration can occur
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What is the minimum amp GPU to be used for engine start?
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800 amps
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What is P3 air used for (other then to the FCU and Compressor Bleed Air Valve)?
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P3 air is used to provide suction to vacuum gauges, pressurize the deice boots, and heat the cabin in the air.
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What is the first indication when the prop transfers from Beta to reverse range?
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As you transition from Beta to reverse the fuel flow will increase.
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Describe the different governors controlling propeller RPM.
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The primary governor acts as a constant speed unit, maintaining the propeller speed selected by the pilot. The overspeed governor engages on an overspeed condition (1976 RPM or more), and dumps oil out of the prop governor. If the prop and overspeed governor fails the fuel-topping governor engages, reducing engine RPM by dumping Py air pressure from the FCU out through the primary governor. This feature also serves to limit reverse RPM since the prop is taking a much smaller bite of air in max reverse pitch than it does in normal forward pitch settings, so that in reverse RPM will exceed max RPM unless fuel control is exercised.
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What is the oil capacity?
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14 quart capacity—normal range is within 2 quarts of max hot within 10 minutes of shutdown.
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How many igniters are in the engine and what is the NORM position for them?
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Two igniters controlled by an ignition switch on the left side panel. NORM arms the igniters to turn on during the start cycle.
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What is the maximum fuel imbalance for flight?
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200 lbs.
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Approximately how many gallons of Jet A in 100 pounds?
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15 gallons per 100 pounds of fuel, or 6.7 lbs./gal.
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When will the fuel selector warning sound?
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Fuel warning will indicate if a low fuel tank is the only one selected (can be false indication in turbulence), or if both tanks are off when the master battery is on, or with one fuel selector off with starter switch in the "start" position
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If the FUEL SELECT OFF annunciator remains illuminated even though both fuel selectors are selected ON, what does this indicate?
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A failure of the fuel selector warning system most likely caused by a popped C/B
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What does the fuel boost switch operate?
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The fuel boost pump switch operates the electric auxiliary boost pump located in the reservoir
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What preflight inspection item indicates a failure in the fuel control unit?
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Blue dye dripping out of the FCU indicates a compromise in the fuel delivery system.
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Describe the lubrication system?
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The oil system is a closed loop, dry sump with a single pressure element system that provides cooling and lubrication to engine bearings and the accessory gearbox. The oil system also provides heating to the fuel, as well as oil to the torque limiter and meter. Oil cooling is fully automatic, with the oil/fuel heat exchanger located between the reduction gearbox and the oil tank, along with a ram air oil cooler by the prop spinner.
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Where is the oil temp/pressure sensor located?
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The oil temp/pressure gauge is located at the oil pressure pump outlet line, with the gauge DC powered
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How does the Chip Detector operate?
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An open circuit is located in the reduction gearbox oil assembly. If metal particles in the oil close the circuit, a warning will be annunciated.
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When should a start be aborted due to an overheat condition?
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900°C and rapidly rising (max temp for start is 1090°C).
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What will happen if the amperage available does not meet the amps being drawn?
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If you overdraw amps the voltage will decrease—equipment can handle this down to a certain level (approximately 19V).
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Describe the different electrical annunciations and what they indicate.
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GEN OFF light for a main generator failure, and STBY PWR ON indicates the alternator is covering all or part of the load (at less then 70% Ng the generator may not cover all the amperage, causing the volts to decrease to below 27.5, leading to flow from the alternator). If the alternator fails STBY PWR INOP illuminates (this has the tendency to misreport-to trouble shoot this you would have to turn off the main generator to pull amperage out of the alternator and check the system voltage). When on battery power (or when the voltage dips below 24.5 volts) the VOLTAGE LOW annunciator illuminates (almost always indicates electrical load is off the battery).
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What happens to the starter generator as Ng accelerates?
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Starter cutout occurs at 46%. If becomes a generator once you flip switch out of start.
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What can the STBY POWER INOP annunciation indicate?
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The alternator is belt driven off the same shaft that drives the scavenge oil pump. As such, the STBY PWR INOP annunciator can indicate a broken scavenge pump shaft-if this is a hard light (turning off the generator does not turn off the INOP light) then oil pressure & temp should be monitored and immediate action taken if abnormal indications are given. Even though the STBY PWR INOP light can be a nuisance light, be serious about determining if it is a 'soft' or a 'hard' light if VMC, or assume it is hard and land immediately if IMC.
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What are the feeder breakers, and what limitation exits with regards to them?
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The first six circuit breakers on the left side of the captain's box are feeder breakers (30 amps). All three bus one and three bus two breakers are tied to their respective buses (bus 1 to 1, 2 to 2). The only reason they exist is to pop when there is a dead short in the feeder line, so NEVER reset a feeder circuit breaker.
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What is the dual purpose of the avionics switch, and how can power be transferred from one avionics bus to another?
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The avionics switches also serve as circuit breakers (indicated by the amperage number on the switch). The avionics tie is the only manually operated tie in the electrical system.
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Describe the Volt/Ammeter gauge selections and indications.
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The selector switch has GEN, ALT, BATT, and VOLT positions and selects generator current, standby alternator current, battery charge or discharge current, or system voltage, respectively, on the volt/ammeter.
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What (non regulatory) limitations exist with regards to the landing and taxi recognition lights?
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Do not use both the LDG and RECOG lights at the same time, as excessive heat can damage the housing that they are located in (the leading edge of the wing). All three of these lights pull a lot of amperage, so they should be shed in electrical emergencies.
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On the preflight, what condition must the brakes/tires be in?
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Nickels width worth of brake pad, and no chord showing on the tire
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What indication exists if the nose gear tow limits were exceeded?
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Shear pin block on the nose gear will break if the tow exceeds tow limit angle.
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What flight instruments are vacuum driven?
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The only vacuum driven instruments are the Captain's attitude indicator and the F/O D.G.
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What concern is there with moisture contamination in the static system?
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With water contamination, the alternate static source will likely be contaminated as well—you would need to use the drain to get the moisture out. If the altimeter begins to get jumpy it can indicate a static blockage due to water—take care on descent—with a blockage you may believe that you are higher than you are. Pitot static system-static port is located on the pitot tube—watch for moisture entering the static port—use pitot heat anytime you are in visible moisture. (IMC, rain or clouds)
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Total fuel
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335.6 g
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Total unusable fuel both tanks on
|
3.6 g
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Low fuel light will illuminate
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25 g
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Approx. fuel in reservoir 180 seconds of powered flight at cruise.
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4g
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Approx. half reservoir; "Reservoir Fuel Low" light will illuminate; about 90 sec. of flight
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2g
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Min. fuel pressure, below this "Fuel Press Low" light will illuminate.
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4.75 psi
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Approx. normal fuel flow for engine start
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80-110 pph
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Max ramp weight
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8,785 lbs
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Max takeoff weight
|
8,750 lbs
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Max takeoff for flight into known icing
|
8,550 lbs
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Max landing weight (All aircraft)
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8,500 lbs
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Max Pod floor loading
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30 psf
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Max Pod A
|
230 lbs
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Max Pod B
|
310 lbs
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Max Pod C
|
270 lbs
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Max Pod D
|
280 lbs
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Max Zone 6
|
320 lbs
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Max passenger door limit
|
350 lbs
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Max fuel imbalance weight
|
200 lbs
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Low idle limit (ITT °C)
|
685°C
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Cruise limit (ITT °C)
|
740°C
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Climb limit (ITT °C)
|
765°C
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Max continuous (intended for abnormal situations only) (ITT °C)
|
805°C
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Take off limit (5 min only) (ITT °C)
|
805°C
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Transient limit (2 seconds) (ITT °C)
|
850°C
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Start limit for 2 seconds (ITT °C)
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1,090°C
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Overspeed governor test limitations (RPM)
|
1750+/-60 RPM
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Max reverse limited to 1 minute (RPM)
|
1825 RPM
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Red line (RPM)
|
1900 RPM
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Overspeed governor speed (RPM)
|
1976 RPM
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Fuel topping governor speed (RPM)
|
2014 RPM
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RPM Transient limit
|
2090 RPM
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Min %Ng for introduction of fuel
|
12% Ng
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Typical Hung Start %Ng
|
Point where secondary fuel nozzle flow starts - 30-35% Ng
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Automatic starter cutoff (%Ng)
|
46% Ng
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Engine speed at sea level with FCU/P3 failure (%Ng)
|
48% Ng
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Minimum %Ng for re-light following a flame-out
|
50% Ng
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Low Idle (%Ng)
|
52% Ng
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High Idle (%Ng)
|
65% Ng
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Manual speed range to govern while using Emergency Power Lever (EPL) (%Ng)
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65-101.6% Ng
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%Ng required for 200 amps from starter generator
|
70% Ng
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Bleed air valve operating range (%Ng)
|
86-92% Ng
Note: fully open below 86%, fully closed above 92% |
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Red line (%Ng)
|
101.6% Ng
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%Ng Transient limit for 2 seconds
|
102.6% Ng
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|
|
Demonstrated x -wind component
|
20 kts
|
|
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Vso
|
50 kts
Max Weight, "Landing Config" (Full Flap) |
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Vs
|
63 kts
Max Weight, "Clean" (0 Flap) |
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Vx
|
72 kts
|
|
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Vy
|
104 kts
|
|
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Engine Fail Speed flaps down
|
80-85 kts
|
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Engine Fail Speed flaps up
|
100 kts
|
|
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Wings flaps 10° speed
|
175 kts
|
|
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Wings flaps 20° speed
|
150 kts
|
|
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Wings flaps 30° speed
|
125 kts
|
|
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Vmo
|
175 kts
|
|
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Max window open speed
|
175 kts
|
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Va
|
Maneuvering speed - 8750 lbs: 148 kts
7500 lbs: 137 kts 6250 lbs: 125 kts 5000 lbs: 112 kts |
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Best Glide
|
8750 lbs: 95/97 (with/without Pod)
7500 lbs: 87/90 6250 lbs: 79/82 5000 lbs: 71/74 |
