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218 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
What are Colgan Air’s guiding principles?
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Never compromise safety, Commitment to Communication, Financial Responsibility, Ethics and Values, Commitment to Personal Development, Respect for all Colgan Air Inc people, Customer service, Commitment to Stakeholders.
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Who is responsible for the policies, procedures, processes, and forms detailed within the FOM?
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The manual owner, which is the Director of Flight Operations
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Company produced manuals are maintained and distributed by?
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Tech Pubs
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Where can a crewmember find current manual status for the FOM?
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Employee website access through www.colganair.com or Voice recording at 1-800-544-4547
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What are change bars that are found within the FOM?
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Changes, other than typographical corrections or minor editorial changes are indicated by vertical change bar (|) in the left margin area.
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What is the Transmittal/Acknowledgement sheet? What does it do?
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The Transmittal/Acknowledgement Sheet includes instructions for adding, deleting or replacing pages and is accompanied by a Summary of Revision that highlights any policy or procedural change associated with the revision. The manual holder must sign and return this sheet to the location indicated on the Transmittal/Acknowledgement Sheet.
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Can the FOM be loaned or given to a person outside the Company? Be copied or reproduced without company consent?
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No
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What can a crewmember use to report field problems, manual errors, improvement suggestions, accident/incident follow-up reporting, or other safety related concerns?
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Feedback Reporting Form
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Name different types of Safety reporting forms?
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Aircraft/Equipment/Facilities Damage Report, Feedback reporting form, Cabin Safety Report, Disruptive Passenger Incident Report, Aviation Safety Action Program (ASAP) Report, Injury Report, Ground Safety and Hazard Reporting Program, Undeclared Dangerous Good Discrepancy Report, and Irregularity Event Report.
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What is an Aircraft Accident?
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An occurrence associated with the operation of an aircraft which takes place between the time any person boards and aircraft with the intention of flight until such time as all such persons have disembarked, and in which any person suffers death, or serious injury as a result of being in or upon the aircraft or by direct contact with the aircraft or anything attached thereto, or in which the aircraft receives substantial damage
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What is an Aircraft Incident?
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An occurrence other than an accident, associated with the operation of an aircraft, which affects or could affect the safety of operations.
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What is Block time?
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Block time is the time between the main cabin door being closed and the parking brake released to the time the aircraft arrives at the gate and the cabin door is opened. (For the Saab the definition is the same without the parking brake requirement).
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What is the definition of a Calendar Day?
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It is defined as the period of elapsed time, using Universal Time or local time that begins at midnight and ends 24 hours later at the next midnight. Time calculations are the Flight Crewmembers base local time zone.
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What is the Configuration Deviation List
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The CDL permits aircraft revenue operation with certain airframe or engine parts missing
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What is a DMI?
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A minor mechanical discrepancy deferred to a later date due to part, manpower, facility, equipment, tooling, vendor availability or schedule protection or weather factors
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What is Emergency Fuel?
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An emergency fuel situation exists when the expected fuel supply at landing requires the need for traffic priority to ensure a safe landing and/or the fuel supply approaches the following fuel quantities: SAAB 340 750LBS, Q400 1800LBS.
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What is the definition of Flight Time?
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The time commencing from the OUT time to the IN time, or Block Time
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What is the definition of Marginal Weather?
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The destination forecast weather is at minimums and first alternate ceiling or visibility is at alternate minimums
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What is a Minimum Equipment List (MEL)?
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The MEL permits aircraft revenue operation with certain aircraft systems inoperative. A listing of all such systems and the associated limitation is developed by the aircraft manufacturer and is incorporated into the FAA approved Aircraft Flight Manual. The MEL must be referenced prior to dispatch to review any malfunctioning system or component for possible limitations.
All aircraft MEL items are assigned categories and time limits for repair. These are listed in the aircraft MEL. . • Category A – must be repaired within the constraints listed in the MEL . • Category B – must be repaired within 3 days . • Category C – must be repaired within 10 days . • Category D – must be repaired within 120 days The day of the malfunction is not counted in the time limit and all MEL expirations are based on 0000 EST. |
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What is minimum fuel?
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An advisory made when it is determined that a landing at the destination is anticipated with less than the planned reserve fuel listed on the Dispatch Release; or, if an alternate is required, when forecast to land at the alternate airport with less than the planned reserve listed on the Dispatch Release.
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What are Non Essential Furnishings (NEF)?
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The NEF program allows the repair of inoperative, damaged, or missing equipment or furnishings on the aircraft to be deferred to a later date.
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What is the definition of Serious Injury?
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Any injury that:
. • Requires hospitalization for more than 48 hours, commencing within 7 days from the date the injury was received . • A fracture of any bone, (except simple fractures of fingers, toes or nose) . • Causes severe hemorrhage, nerve, muscle, or tendon damage . • Involves any internal organ . • Involves second or third degree burns or any burns affecting more than 5% of the body surface. |
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What is the definition of Substantial Damage?
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Any damage or failure, which adversely affects the structural strength, performance, or flight characteristics of the aircraft and which would normally require major repair or replacement of the affected component.
The following is NOT considered substantial damage: . • Engine failure or damage limited to an engine if only one engine fails or is damaged . • Bent fairings or cowling . • Dented skin . • Small punctured holes in the skin . • Ground damage to propeller blades . • Damage to landing gear, wheels, tires, flaps, engine accessories, brakes or wing tips |
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Which of the 4 company communications require the highest priority? Memo? Read and Sign memo? CrewTrac Message? Or Dispatch Release Remarks?
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Dispatch Release Remarks
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Is it possible to operate an aircraft with a required aircraft manual missing?
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Yes, as long as the exemption for the book in question is followed.
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Who is the Director of Flight Operations?
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Todd Asadoorian
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Who is the Chief Pilot?
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Matt Prebish
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Who is the Director of SOC?
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Matt Hawkins
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Who is the Director or Crewmember Resources?
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Matt Hand
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Who is the Manager of Crew Scheduling?
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Jackie Sisouphonh
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What are the duties and responsibilities of the Pilot-In-Command?
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. • Holds a valid Airline Transport Pilot Certificate with the appropriate category, class and type ratings and a FAA first class medical certificate.
. • Responsible for the aircraft, its crew and the manipulation of the flight controls of an aircraft underway, including taxiing, take-off and landing of such aircraft. The Pilot In Command is properly qualified and designated by the Company to serve and holds currently effective airman certificates authorizing him to serve as such. . • During flight time, the PIC is in command of the aircraft and Crew, and is responsible for the safety of the passengers, Crewmembers, cargo and the aircraft. He has full control and authority in the operation of the aircraft, without limitations, over other Crewmembers and their duties during flight time. . • Ensures compliance with all air-traffic rules and local airport rules established by the country where operating; except where any regulation, provision of the Operations Specifications of this manual, is more restrictive, and may be followed without violating the rules of that country or airport. . • Jointly responsible with the Dispatcher for the preflight planning, delay and dispatch release of a flight in compliance with the regulations and the Operations Specifications. . • Assists the Chief Pilot in monitoring the professional progression of the Second In Command with whom he flies. . • Responsible to maintain current knowledge of those general subjects that enhances his overall competency, ability and professionalism. . • Manages those assets for which he is responsible in a manner which is intended to ensure an on-time departure from each station. . • Verifies the proper computation of the weight and balance for each flight. . • Serves as the In Flight Security Coordinator. . • Actively promotes and utilizes Crewmember Resource Management (CRM) while on duty. . • Communicates with Flight Operations management in a manner which aids them in their efforts to effectively administer their responsibilities. . • Presents a professional and responsive image to the customers and business associates. . • Oversees deicing/anti-icing of the aircraft on the ground. . • Conducts appropriate pre-flight and post-flight briefing. . • Delegates duties as necessary, but such delegation does not relieve him of overall responsibility. . • Performs duties in accordance with regulations and Company policy. . • Maintains open communication with other departments. . • Successfully completes the company indoctrination for upgrading Pilots In Command. The program is an on-going presentation and evaluation presented during the upgrade curriculum regarding interpersonal command issues, CRM, to include the decision process so there is more individual understanding of the Company functions and its goals. • Monitors for proper completion of fueling procedures. . • At locations where regularly scheduled flight operations are not conducted, and/or where personnel are not trained, provides direct supervision and oversight to ensure fuel quality requirements are met and fueling procedures are followed. . • May not operate an aircraft in a careless or reckless manner so as to endanger life or property. . • Responsible for preflight planning and operation of the flight in compliance with regulations and operations specifications. |
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Who does the Pilot In Command report to?
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Regional Chief Pilot
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What are the duties and responsibilities of the Second In Command?
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• Assists or relieves the Pilot In Command in manipulation of the flight controls of an aircraft while underway, including taxiing, take-off and landing.
. • Responsible to the Pilot In Command and Regional Chief Pilot to assure that the flights he participates in are in compliance with the regulations and Company operating procedures. . • Serves as the Second In Command of the aircraft and, as such, assumes the duties of the Pilot In Command should the Pilot In Command become incapacitated or unable to perform his duties. . • Assists the Pilot In Command in conducting the flight safely and efficiently. . • Responsible to maintain current knowledge of those general subjects and aircraft-related information that enhance his overall competence, ability and professionalism. . • Holds, as a minimum, a valid commercial Pilot certificate, with appropriate category and class ratings, an instrument rating, and is properly qualified and designated by the Company to serve as Second In Command. . • Maintains open communication with the Pilot In Command as well as other Company personnel, and performs other duties as assigned. |
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Who does the Second In Command report to?
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Regional Chief Pilot
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Can a crewmember perform their duties without their license or medical?
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Yes, as long as the exemption is followed and the crewmember operates in the Contiguous U.S and District of Columbia
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What documents does a crewmember need to have in his/her possession while using the exemption for lost or stolen License or Medical?
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Company issued picture ID, State issued driver’s license with picture, passport, airport issued ID with picture (if issued by airport).
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How long does a crewmember have to wait to report for duty following Blood Donations, Scuba Diving or Immunizations?
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24 Hours
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How long after drinking alcohol must an employee wait before performing crew member duties?
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12 hours
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Can a crewmember smoke or use smokeless tobacco/snuff products on a Company Aircraft?
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No
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Can a crewmember use Analgesics (pain killers) while on duty?
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Yes, as long as it is aspirin, ibuprofen, acetaminophen, Bufferin or Anacin
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What are some of the effects of operating while fatigued?
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Forgetfulness, irritation, poor communications, poor decision making, fixation, reduced vigilance and mood swings may occur
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Can a crewmember remove them self from duty if they feel fatigued?
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Yes, however they must notify crew scheduling and submit a written report online within 24 hours. (crew website -> safety and security-> Crew Member Fatigue Report
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Where must you wear your company issued ID while on duty?
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Above the waist while inside the Security Identification Display Area (SIDA), and may not be attached to your hat, epaulettes, or shirt collar
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Can a Pilot In Command fly with a Second In Command when both crewmembers have less than 75hrs of line operating flight time?
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No
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What are the restrictions for a Second In Command when he/she has less than 100hrs of Flight Time when they are not with a Check Pilot?
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The Pilot in Command must make all takeoff and landings when:
. • At special airports designated by the Administrator or by the Company . • Prevailing visibility in the latest weather report for the airport is at or below 3/4 mile . • RVR at or below 4000ft . • Runway to be used has water, snow, slush, or similar conditions that affect aircraft performance. . • Braking action less than “Good” . • Crosswind greater than 15 knots . • Wind shear in the vicinity of the airport . • Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) in effect . • Anytime the Pilot in Command deems appropriate. |
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What is the minimum report time prior to scheduled departure for the Q400 and SAAB 340?
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60 minutes prior to scheduled domestic flights, and 75 minutes prior to scheduled international flights.
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When is a crewmember considered released from duty?
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15 minutes after the flight blocks in at the gate. Except if the aircraft has to taxi to a maintenance facility, or the crew is experiencing excessive time to reach the hotel for a RON.
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What are the flight time limitations for crewmembers?
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Flight Time Limitation Time Period
8 hours Between required rest periods 30 hours In 7 consecutive days 100 hours In one calendar month 1000 hours During any calendar year |
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What are the rest requirements following reduced rest?
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Rest Schedule (hrs)
Flight Time Scheduled in 24hrs Normal Reduced Comp. Less than 8 9 8 10 More than 8 but less than 9 10 8 11 More than 9 11 9 12 |
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Is a 91 flight operated before the start of a domestic flight schedule considered part of the scheduled flight time limitations?
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Yes
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Can a crewmember be on duty more that 16hrs?
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Yes, as long as the crewmember is within his/her normal schedule and the aircraft experiences a delay once airborne
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If a crew member exceeds 15 hours of duty, how much rest is required?
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He/she must have a minimum of 10 hours of rest
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If a crewmember is given compensatory rest of 10hrs what will his/her maximum duty day be the following duty period?
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14 hrs
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Is a diversion that continues to the original destination considered a change to the flight crewmember schedule?
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No
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How long is the reserve callout at EWR, IAD, IAH, BOS and LGA?
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90 minutes
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How long is the reserve callout at outstations?
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60 minutes
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What is required of a crew member on “hot reserve”?
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The crew member must be at the airport, in uniform, and ready for duty
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Who is the Pilot-In-Command of a flight crew consisting of two Captains?
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The Captain listed on the Dispatch Release
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What are the qualification requirements to operate as a flight crewmember?
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. • Complete all Ground and Flight training as prescribed.
. • Certify as proficient to conduct the duties of Pilot In Command or Second In Command. • Hold the appropriate certificate with appropriate category and class ratings for the aircraft concerned. AND, unless under the supervision of a qualified Check Airman: . • Complete Operating Experience in that aircraft type and Crewmember position. . • Undergo observation by the FAA during at least one flight leg which includes a takeoff and landing (for a Pilot In Command completing initial or upgrade training). . • Receive a line check. . • Meet the Recent Experience requirements. . • Meet crew scheduling requirements as an inexperienced crewmember. . • Meet the Consolidation of Knowledge and Skills requirements. |
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What are the hour and time requirements to fulfill Consolidation of Knowledge?
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100hrs within 120 days
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What are the restrictions to a High Minimums Pilot in Command?
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½ mile addition to the landing visibility and 100ft addition to the published MDA or DH
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What are the restrictions to a High Minimums Pilot in Command in regards to an alternate?
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The MDA or DA(H) and visibility minimums need not be increased above that applicable to the airport when used as an alternate airport, but in no event may the landing minimums be less than an MDA or DA(H) of 300 feet and a visibility of 1 mile
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How often is a Pilot In Command required to get a line check?
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Every 12 Months
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Under what criteria may a PIC fly into a special use airport?
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• The ceiling is at least 1,000 feet above the lowest MEA or MOCA, or initial approach altitude prescribed for the instrument approach procedure for that airport, and the visibility at that airport is at least 3 miles, OR
. • Within the preceding 12 calendar months either the Pilot In Command or Second In Command has made an entry to that airport (including a takeoff and landing) while serving as a Flight Crewmember, OR . • The Pilot In Command has reviewed the distinguishing characteristics of the airport through the use of an approved pictorial means provided by the company in the Jeppesen Route Manual |
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What is the Special Winter Operations Airports (SWOA) program?
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The Special Winter Operations Airports (SWOA) program is designed to identify airports that pose an increased threat to Flight Crewmembers during winter operations
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What are some of the basic restrictions to a SWOA?
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• Captain is PF for Takeoff and Landing
• Approach must have vertical guidance Braking action report must be less than 1 hour old • Max tailwind is 0 knots • Max crosswind with poor braking action is 5 knots (SAAB), 15 knots (Q400) |
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What is the purpose of the ASAP program?
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The purposes of ASAP are to identify safety events and to implement corrective measures that reduce the opportunity for safety to be compromised. ASAP is intended to improve flight safety through a self-report, cooperative follow-up and appropriate corrective action
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What events require an irregularity report?
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• Passenger mishap no matter how minor
• “Air return” or “Rejected Takeoff” • Return to the gate for any reason • Breach of Security • Employee Mishap • Any interference to aircraft systems caused by cellular phones or PED’s Operation |
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What is the minimum flight crew for all company operations?
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Two, Pilot in Command and Second In Command
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What is the minimum number of flight attendants required for revenue operations?
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1 for the SAAB 340, and 2 for the Q400.
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When is the Second in Command considered the Pilot in Command?
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When the Pilot in Command becomes obviously ill during flight, incapable of conducting the flight, or is unable to delegate command.
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What is the required personal equipment a flight deck crewmember must have when on duty
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• Company ID
• Airport ID (if applicable) • FAA Certificate • FAA Medical • FCC Permit (not required while operating in the Continental United States) • Passport (not required while operating in the Continental United States) • FOM • CFM VOL I • Jeppesen Manuals • Aviation Headset • Flashlight |
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Can any of the required personal equipment be missing?
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Yes, as long as the crew follows the listed exemption .
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If a crewmember has a corrective lenses restriction to their medical, do they have to wear their corrective lenses while on duty? How many pairs must be readily available?
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Yes. Two, one to wear and one backup
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Does one of the pilot stations need to be manned during boarding?
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Yes, 10 min prior to boarding
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Does the company have a format for exchanging flight controls?
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Yes. Example: PF: “Heading 360, 6000 feet, 170 kts”, and any abnormalities or navigational
requirements. “Your controls” PM: “My controls, heading 360, 6000 feet, 170 kts”, and any abnormalities or navigational duties that were briefed |
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When is the aircraft in Sterile Cockpit?
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During taxi (when the aircraft is moving under its own power), takeoff to 10,000ft, descending through 10,000ft, or within 1,000 ft of level off at a new assigned altitude
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When must the flight deck door be closed and locked?
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During flight operations
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When should calls to stations to report Out/Off/On/In times be made?
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• On Ground: When the aircraft is at a full stop with the parking brake set
• In Air: Above 5,000ft unless a cruise altitude lower than 10,000 ft is planned, in which case, the calls must be made at that cruise altitude (Not applicable to the Q400 when ACARS is operational) |
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Who does the company delegate to authorize the use of the jumpseat?
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Pilot in Command, Chief Pilot and Director of Flight Operations
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What forms must an FAA Inspector present to travel on a Company Aircraft?
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FAA Form 110A and FAA Form 8430-13 “Request for Access to Aircraft”
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May a badge or shield be presented as a sole method of identification to allow an FAA Inspector access to an aircraft?
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no
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What are the items a Pilot In Command should brief to an ACM onboard the jumpseat
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• ACM briefing card
• Use of seat belts • Location and use of emergency exits • Use of oxygen and emergency oxygen equipment • Traffic monitoring |
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Which of the following persons has the highest jumpseat priority: Secret Service Agent, Authorized representative of the Administrator or NTSB, company certified pilot?
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Secret Service Agent
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When is the aircraft considered to be in a critical phase of flight
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Taxi, Takeoff, Landing, within 1000ft of a newly assigned altitude, and all other operations below 10,000ft unless the aircraft is at cruise
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Who is jointly responsible with the Pilot-In-Command for the safe conduct of each flight
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Dispatch
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What documents are required for the Pilot-In-Command to carry in the aircraft to its destination?
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• Completed load manifest
• Dispatch release • Pilot Route Qualification (signature on release signifies qualification) • Flight Plan |
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What is ECAPS?
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Enhanced Crew Awareness Procedures
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What are examples of topics that are covered in the ECAPS program?
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• Reducing Runway Incursions
• Preventing Altitude Deviations • Use of Exterior Aircraft Lights |
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When must the CVR be operating?
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Before running the checklists (i.e. before running the Before Start Checklist) to the termination of the flight
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When must the FDR be operating?
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it must be on from the instant the aircraft begins its takeoff roll until it has completed its landing roll at an airport
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When must the navigation lights be illuminated?
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Anytime the aircraft is powered
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Name some electronic devices that may never be used onboard an aircraft?
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• Two way transmitters such as walkie-talkies, two way pagers, or amateur radios
• Portable radios or T.Vs • Remote control toys • Peripheral devices for computers such as printers and joysticks • All Bluetooth devices |
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When must personal cell phones be turned off when riding on the flight or jumpseat?
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When the main cabin door has been closed
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Can a cell phone be used while conducting a preflight walk around?
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No
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When is the use of personal cell phones prohibited, and are there exceptions?
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Pre-departure and post-arrival operations and preflight. Exceptions: when operationally necessary, and with the parking brake set
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Who may not occupy an emergency exit row?
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• Under the age of 15
• Unable to read and understand the emergency instruction cards or FA instructions • Handicapped, blind or deaf • Someone with a lap child • Those who are unwilling |
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Is there any additional briefing required for passengers sitting in an exit row?
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Yes, passengers MUST be briefed and understand the requirements of sitting in an exit row
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Do passengers have to verbally respond that they understand the requirements to sit in an exit
row? |
yes
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What must a flight crew do after initial check in for a flight pairing
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• Check mailbox
• Review and understand ops bulletins • Review the read and sign memos • Be familiar with routes and airports • Check and/or revise company issued approach and enroute charts • Review notams • Check latest revision of FOM and revise manual as necessary |
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What items must the Pilot In Command ensure are onboard the assigned aircraft as part of the Airworthiness Verification?
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• Airworthiness Certificate
• Registration Certificate • Flight Log • MEL/NEF/DMI Control Log • MEL “Inoperative” Stickers • Red “Aircraft Under Maintenance Control” placard • Circuit breaker Collars (for MEL procedures) |
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What are the four concepts of CRM?
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Authority, Participation, Assertiveness, and Respect
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What does VVM stand for?
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Verbalize, Verify, Monitor
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Is Hot Refueling allowed on Colgan Aircraft?
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no
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What is the definition of Hot Refueling?
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Hot refueling is defined as refueling with one or more engines operating
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Does the cabin door have to be open during refueling
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yes
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Are there any restrictions on fueling with lightning in the vicinity? What would “in the vicinity” mean?
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Yes, the Pilot in Command should terminate/stop fueling if lightning is in the vicinity. In the vicinity generally means within 3 miles of the field
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How early can a flight depart without approval from SOC?
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10 minutes
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During Long Onboard Delays (LOB), how long can the aircraft remain on the tarmac without a gate return?
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3 hours
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How often should the Pilot in Command make an announcement during long delays off the
gate? |
At least every 20 minutes
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what should the F/A’s provide to passengers as onboard delays reach 90 minutes?
|
snacks and Water
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When onboard delays reach 2 hours what should the Pilot in Command coordinate?
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An exit strategy to prepare to move passengers back to the gate
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What will happen when an onboard delay reaches 2.5 hours?
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The Pilot in Command, unless departure is imminent, will move the aircraft back to the gate, or to a position to deplane the passengers.
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Is the use of reverse thrust authorized for rearward taxi
|
no
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Are there any restrictions to doing an intersection departure?
|
the crew must have aircraft performance analysis/gross weight information for that intersection
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What is the Standard Takeoff minimum for two engine aircraft
|
1 SM or 5000 RVR
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Can a flight depart from an airport where takeoff minimums are greater than standard?
|
Yes, if the weather conditions are at or above the required minimums
|
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Can a flight crew depart if an alternate procedure is specified for takeoff (such as a minimum climb gradient)?
|
Yes, as long as the aircraft can comply with the alternate procedure
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When takeoff minimums are equal to or less than applicable standard takeoff minimum is the company allowed to use lower than standard takeoff minima?
|
yes
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When takeoff minimums are not published, what minimums must be used?
|
When Takeoff minimums are not published the company may use the standard takeoff minima and any lower than standard takeoff minimums. (NOTE: Where 500 RVR Takeoff minimums are published, we cannot use less than 600 RVR per OpSpec C078).
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Lower than standard takeoff minimums
TDZ RVR 1600 OR VIS ¼ SM RVR requirements, Controlling RVR, Runway Requirements |
MID RVR may substitute ,TDZ if available , HIRL or CL or RCLM or RWY markings and lights that provide adequate visual ref to maintain positive, continuous directional control
|
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Lower than standard takeoff minimums
TDZ RVR 1200 MID RVR 1200 RO RVR 1000 RVR requirements, Controlling RVR, Runway Requirements |
Any one may be OTS. Other two req unless otherwise specified
All unless one OTS or NA Daylight: RCLM or HIRL or CL Night: HIRL or CL |
|
Lower than standard takeoff minimums
TDZ RVR 1000 MID RVR 1000 RO RVR 1000 RVR requirements, Controlling RVR, Runway Requirements |
Any one may be OTS. Other two req unless otherwise specified
All unless one OTS or NA Any one of these: CL or HIRL AND RCLM |
|
Lower than standard takeoff minimums
TDZ RVR 600 MID RVR 600 RO RVR 600 RVR requirements, Controlling RVR, Runway Requirements |
Any one may be OTS. Other two req unless otherwise specified
All unless one OTS or NA HIRL AND CL |
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What is the minimum altitude after takeoff to commence any turn?
|
400 ft AGL, unless in the interest of safety, due to DP, ATC, or noise abatement a earlier turn is required. In no case will a turn be made below 100 ft AGL.
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What are the maximum holding speeds per the F.A.R.’s?
|
MHA-6,000ft = 200kts
6,001-14,000 = 230kts 14,001 and above = 265kts |
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How would you compute your maximum holding time?
|
Add the following together:
• Fuel burn from present position to destination • Fuel burn to the alternate • FAA reserve fuel • Any additional anticipated delays or other factors that increase the minimum fuel requirement Then subtract this amount from the Fuel on Board (FOB) and divide by the holding fuel consumption rate |
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What are the requirements to operate in terminal area of class G airspace?
|
• The airport is served by an authorized instrument approach procedure
• The airport has an approved source of weather • The airport has a suitable means for the pilot to acquire air traffic advisories • The facilities and services necessary to safely conduct IFR operations are available and operational at the time of operation |
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What are the minimum items required on a visual approach briefing?
|
• Airport elevation
• Pattern altitude • Navigation facilities or aids available • Any other conditions which might affect how the approach and landing will be conducted |
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What is the maximum rate of decent under 2500ft AGL?
|
1500fpm
|
|
What is Colgan Air’s stabilized approach criteria?
|
Rate of Descent
By 1000 ft above field elevation (AFE), the descent rate is transitioning to no greater than 1000fpm Flight Parameters Below 1000ft (IMC) or 500ft (VMC) AFE the aircraft is: • On the proper flight path (visual or electronic) with only small changes in pitch and heading required to maintain that path • At a speed no less than Vref and not greater than Vref +20 or Vfa as applicable to flight conditions, wind gusts, etc. Visual Approaches Company policy requires the pilot to use the most precise navigation and visual approach aids available |
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If an aircraft becomes outside of Stabilized approach Criteria what action should be taken?
|
missed approach
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What aircraft category should be used to determine circling approach minimums?
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• Q400: Cat C (Note: Circling approaches are not authorized for the Q400)
• Saab 340: Cat B or C (depending on landing weight configuration) |
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Where would you find the circling approach restrictions for a given airport?
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The Jeppesen 10-7 page for the airport
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Is Colgan Air authorized to fly a PAR (Precision Approach Radar) approach
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No. Only in an emergency.
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On a Cat I approach with the approach lights in sight, how low can the pilot take the aircraft?
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100 ft above the touchdown zone elevation
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What are the requirements to cancel IFR and fly to the field VFR?
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• Weather conditions at the airport are reported to be at or above a ceiling of 1,000 feet and visibility of 3 miles
• The flight is operated in accordance of the basic cloud clearance requirements of 14 CFR 91 At a controlled airport within Class B, C, or D or within 10 miles of the destination airport in Class E airspace: • Remains within controlled airspace when available • Is radar monitored with traffic advisories by ATC • Is in direct communication with the appropriate ATC facility At uncontrolled airports: • Is in contact with an air/ground communication facility or agent providing airport traffic advisories • Is within 10 NM or the airport OR visual reference is maintained with the destination airport |
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What are the glide slope requirements in VMC?
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Use of electronic glide slope or VASI/PAPI, if available, is required
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Where can you find LAHSO information for a particular airport?
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In the FOM (Chap 6 pg. 6-96) - Destination Airports with LAHSO chart to check each available runway with acceptable LAHSO clearances
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What are the minimum allowable turn times?
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• Saab 340: 25 min
• Q400: 35 min (at Hubs) / 30 min (at outstations) |
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Are single engine turns allowed?
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Yes for the Saab 340 (under special conditions), No for the Q400
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Under what conditions are single engine turns for the Saab 340 authorized?
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• Operating under a restrictive MEL
• Limited battery power for battery start • Battery temperature limitations due to high ambient temperature • Station does not have a ground power unit available to start or power the aircraft |
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What are some flights that may be operated under part 91?
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• Reposition flights
• Special Flight Permits • Demonstration Flight • Company Transportation • Common Purpose Flights |
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Name some events, which require mandatory notification to the NTSB?
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• Flight Control system failure
• Inability of a flight crewmember to perform his/her duty • Failure of any internal turbine engine component that results in the escape of debris other than out the exhaust • In flight fire • Aircraft collide in flight • Damage to property other than the aircraft exceeding $25,000 for repair • In flight failure of electrical systems which requires the sustained use of an emergency bus • In flight failure of hydraulic systems that results in the sustained reliance on the sole remaining hydraulic or mechanical system • Sustained loss of the power or thrust produced by two or more engines • An evacuation of an aircraft in which an emergency egress system is utilized • Release of all or a portion of a propeller blade from an aircraft, excluding release caused solely by ground contact • A complete loss of information, excluding flickering, from more than 50 percent of an aircraft’s cockpit displays • Airborne Collision and Avoidance System (ACAS) resolution advisories • Any event in which an aircraft operated by an air carrier lands or departs on a taxiway, incorrect runway, or other area not designed as a runway • Runway incursions that requires the operator or the crew of another aircraft or vehicle to take immediate corrective action to avoid a collision • An aircraft is overdue and is believed to have been involved in an accident |
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What is the acronym for a planned emergency to the cabin crew?
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NTSB
N – Nature of the emergency, T – Time to prepare the cabin, S – Special Instructions B – Bracing and evacuation (what they are and who will give them) |
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How do you verify the airworthiness of the aircraft?
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• Ensure the required documents and logs/logbooks are on the assigned aircraft
• Verify the Airworthiness release from the aircraft logbook • Review the Deferred Item Log. |
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How do you verify the airworthiness from the aircraft logbook?
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Review/verify the latest valid Airworthiness Release on the back of the Flight Log and ensure all discrepancies between the Airworthiness Release and the current log page are corrected or properly deferred. If the Pilot In Command determines that the aircraft status is other than listed on the release, the Pilot In Command informs SOC and corrects the inconsistency
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Assuming no discrepancies are noted or opened in the logbook, when does a valid airworthiness expire?
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Never
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kinetic
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moving
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After completing a supplemental system reset with a satisfactory result, does an entry need to be made in the aircraft logbook?
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yes
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Is there any tool used prior to performing a Special Ferry Permit, Reposition flight, or Operational check flight?
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Yes, Dispatch will consult the Flight Risk Assessment tool
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Can a CB be reset in flight?
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Yes, if doing so is consistent with explicit procedures specified in the approved operating manual used by the flight crew
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Who can reset tripped circuit breakers on the ground from an unknown cause?
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Maintenance personnel only
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What signal is given to the flight attendant when passing through 10,000ft or at cruise if below 10,000ft to indicate sterile cockpit has ended?
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A double chime using the sterile cockpit or no smoking sign switch
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Does telling ATC you are “minimum fuel” indicate the need for priority or emergency handling?
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No, minimum fuel is not an emergency situation but merely an advisory that an emergency situation may be created if any undue delays occur
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When flying into or out of a non-controlled airport how far out should you monitor and communicate on designated CTAF frequency?
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Minimum 10 miles out
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What Flight/Duty times does Colgan Air use when scheduling Flag operations?
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Domestic flight/duty time limitations that are more restrictive than flag flight time limitations
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What documents may be required to be onboard the aircraft when operating an international flight?
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• General Declarations Form
• Passenger Manifest • I-92 Aircraft/Vessel Report Form |
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Which documents might a crewmember be required to provide to customs or immigration?
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• Passport Information
• Alien Registration Card • Passenger Customs and Immigration Form E-311 |
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Who is responsible for ensuring all crewmembers have required international documentation prior to departure?
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Pilot In Command
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Can a company ID badge be used in lieu of a passport for the purpose of re-entering the US?
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No
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Where can you find airspeed restrictions for Canadian destination airports?
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Company issued Jeppesen 10-7 pages
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When is an aircraft restricted to 200 knots in Canadian airspace?
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Below 3,000 ft AGL within 10NM of a controlled airport
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What does the term CAVOK stand for?
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Ceiling and Visibility OK
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When is a cold weather pre-flight required?
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OAT is 50°F (10°C) or less or the wing fuel temperature is 32°F (0°C) or less, and one or more of the following exist:
• There is visible moisture (rain, sleet, drizzle, sleet, snow, fog, etc.) • Water is present on the wing • The difference between the dew point temperature and the OAT is 5°F (3°C) • The atmospheric conditions are conducive to frost formations. (e.g., conditions of high relative humidity on aircraft surfaces at or below the frost point such as, ground fog and ice clouds) • Slush is present on runways, or wind, jet engine exhaust, prop or rotor wash, has blown, splashed, or caused snow, ice particles or water to contact aircraft surfaces |
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What are some examples of “critical aircraft surfaces”?
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• Wings, flaps, spoilers and associated flight control surfaces and areas
• Fuselage, vertical stabilizer, rudder and associated flight control surfaces and areas • Horizontal stabilizer and associated flight control surfaces and areas • Engine/APU inlets exhausts, propellers, including CSD, oil cooler, pneumatic air cooler and blast air inlets and probes • Landing gear and landing gear doors, including latches, indication switches and linkages • Air-conditioning inlets and exhausts • Fuel tank vents • Pitot probes, static ports, angle-of-attack sensors and total air temperature probes |
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Are takeoffs during heavy ice pellets, heavy snow, moderate or heavy freezing rain or hail authorized?
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No, no holdover times exist for these conditions
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Under what conditions is takeoff during light-moderate ice pellets authorized?
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• Ice pellet precipitation does not become heavy
• The aircraft is anti-iced with undiluted Type IV fluid • Ice Pellet Allowance Times are adhered to |
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Can the APU be active during the application of deicing/anti-icing fluids?
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no
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When does the start of the holdover time commence?
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At the start time of the final fluid application
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What signs indicate anti-ice fluid failure?
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• loss of gloss (fluid looks dull)
• snow or ice accumulation • surface freezing • build up of ice crystals in fluid • presence of slush |
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What is a pre-takeoff check?
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When ground icing conditions are present; after completion of deicing/anti-icing; after establishing holdover times, aircraft representative surfaces are again inspected to ensure they are clear of contaminants just prior to takeoff
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What are examples of “representative aircraft surfaces”?
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Windshield wipers, base of windshield and upper surface of aircraft nose that is visible from the cockpit, leading edges and upper portion of the wing
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Is Colgan Air authorized to conduct pre-takeoff contamination checks?
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no
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Is flight through known severe and/or extreme turbulence authorized?
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no
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What techniques should be used to avoid wake turbulence when departing behind a larger aircraft?
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• Note the larger aircraft’s rotation point and rotate prior to reaching it
• Continue climbing above the larger aircraft’s climb path until turning clear of the larger aircraft’s wake • Avoid subsequent headings which cross below and behind a larger aircraft • Be alert for any critical takeoff situation leading to a vortex encounter |
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When entering a thunderstorm area what is the minimum clearance recommended?
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10 miles from intense buildups (20 miles if possible)
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When flying into volcanic ash what effects can be expected?
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• Smoke or dust appearing on the flight deck
• A strong smell of sulfur (acrid odor) similar to electrical smoke • Multiple engine malfunctions, such as stalls, increasing ITT, torching from tailpipe, and flameouts • At night, St. Elmo's fire or other static discharges accompanied by a bright orange glow in the engine inlets • A fire warning in the forward cargo area (if system installed) |
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What is the age range for a person to be considered a “Child”?
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Age 2 to 12
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What are the standard average weights for crewmembers and equipment?
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Crewmember Average Weight
Flight Crewmember 190 Flight Attendant 170 Crewmember Roller Bag 25 Pilot Flight Bag 20 Flight Attendant Kit 10 Average Weight with Bags Flight Crewmember 240 Flight Attendant 210 NOTE: The weight of required Crewmembers, Pilot flight bags and Flight Attendant kit is included in the BOW of each aircraft |
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What are the standard average passenger weights?
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Weight Per Passenger (Saab 340)
Summer Weights Adult 184 Child 76 Winter Adult 189 Child 81 NOTE: Summer weights are used from May 1 to October 31 and winter weights are used from November 1 to April 30 |
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What are the standard average passenger baggage weights?
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Passenger Baggage Weight Per Bag (Saab 340)
Carry-on bag 20 Checked Bag 30 Heavy Bag 60 |
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Does Colgan Air transport Dangerous Goods (DG) Company Materials (COMAT)?
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no
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What is the only exception to the carriage of DG COMAT that is allowed?
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A tire assembly with a serviceable tire provided the tire is not inflated to a gauge pressure exceeding the maximum rated pressure for the tire
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What are some exceptions to the carriage of DG allowed for passengers and crewmembers?
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• Nonradioactive medicinal and toilet articles (including aerosols)
• Small-arms ammunition for personal use • Heart pacemakers • Dry ice (carbon dioxide, solid), in quantities not exceeding 2.5 kg (5.5 lb) per person • Alcoholic beverages containing not more than 24% alcohol by volume OR more than 24% and not more than 70% alcohol by volume when in unopened retail packaging not exceeding 5 liters (1.3) gallons • Carbon dioxide gas cylinders worn by passengers for the operation of mechanical limbs • Hair curlers containing hydrocarbon gas • A mercurial barometer or thermometer • A small medical or clinical mercury thermometer for personal use • A wheelchair or other battery-powered mobility aid equipped with a spillable/non-spillable battery • One book of safety matches or one lighter intended for use by an individual • Portable electronic devices (for example, cameras, cellular phones, laptop computers, and camcorders) powered by fuel cell systems • Consumer electronic and medical devices (watches, calculating machines, cameras, cellular phones, lap-top and notebook computers, camcorders, etc.) containing lithium cells or batteries |
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Where should a PIC land in the event of an engine failure or when an engine is shut down to prevent possible damage?
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At the nearest suitable airport
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In the event of an evacuation what are some of the PIC duties?
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• Complete flight deck duties
• Assess conditions in the cabin • Open forward exits, if still closed – Priority of Forward Passenger Door • Assist passengers in exiting the aircraft • Once all passengers are off the aircraft, or if life is in danger the Pilot In Command exits the aircraft. If necessary, remove incapacitated Flight Attendants from aircraft • Assist in keeping passengers upwind of aircraft, ask an Able Body Person to assist • Take charge of all passengers and Crewmembers. Keep people together, away from aircraft • Do not allow passengers to smoke or to reenter the aircraft • Supervise provisions of first aid and shelter |
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In the event of an evacuation what are some of the SIC duties?
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• Complete flight deck duties
• Exit out hatch or forward exit • Assess exits and evacuation conditions on aircraft right • If not yet done, open forward exits • Assist passenger in exiting the aircraft • Assist the Flight Attendant and Pilot In Command |
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What services does MedLink provide?
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The MedLink service can connect Flight Crews directly with board certified emergency room physicians specially trained to handle emergencies in remote locations by radio, flight phone or telephone. MedLink also coordinates ground medical support when required
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How can flight crews contact MedLink?
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Through commercial phone or by ARINC
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What is the definition of marginal weather?
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destination airport
Equal to authorized HAA/HAT OR Equal to authorized visibility requirement AND First Alternate Equal to derived ceiling minimums OR Equal to derived visibility minimums |
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Where would a pilot be notified that a flight was being dispatched under exemption 3585?
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In the remarks section of the dispatch release
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If being dispatched to a destination using exemption 3585 how many alternates must be listed?
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2
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What are the weather requirements for using exemption 3585?
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Destination
Main Body At or above landing minimums (visibility only) Conditional Statement At or above ½ of landing minimums (visibility only) 1st Alternate Main Body At or above alternate minimums (visibility and ceiling) Conditional Statement At or above ½ of alternate minimums (visibility and ceiling) 2nd Alternate At or above alternate minimums (visibility and ceiling) |
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For the purposes of takeoff and landing what visibility reports are controlling?
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RVR, runway visibility value (RVV), or runway visibility by observer (RVO) on the runway to be used is controlling when such reports are available
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Is takeoff or landing authorized when the braking action is reported as less than “poor”?
|
no
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What criteria are used when calculating derived alternate minimums?
|
One Navigational Facility
Straight-in (Precision or Non-Precision), or Circling Add 400ft to CAT I HAA/HAT AND Add 1sm to CAT I visibility requirement Two Navigational Facilities Straight-in (Precision or Non-Precision), to two different suitable runways Add 200ft to higher CAT I HAT AND Add ½ sm to higher CAT I visibility requirement |
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What defines a “suitable” runway for the purposes of determining derived alternate minimums?
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“Suitable” means a runway of required length, taking into consideration the forecast winds at the ETA (may be the same strip, but opposing ends)
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Do high minimum PIC restrictions apply to determining landing minimums for a takeoff alternate requirement?
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yes
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What are some examples of types of alternates?
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• 1-2-3 rule alternate
• Wind alternate • Drift-down alternate • Braking action alternate |
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If you depart from a non-controlled airport VFR when should you pick up a clearance from ATC once airborne?
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The Flight Crew must obtain an IFR clearance as soon as practical after takeoff, but no farther than 50 NM from the departure airport
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When is a dispatch release required?
|
• All Company scheduled, originating flights operated under 14 CFR Part 121
• A continuation flight at any intermediate station after a ground time of more than 1 hour for domestic operations and more than 6 hours for flag operations |
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As per company policy can a pilot depart on any company issued flight without a dispatch release?
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No. Although not required for nonrevenue operations conducted under 14 CFR Part 91 (repositioning flights, maintenance ferries, training flights, demonstration flights or Company business), a dispatch release is required, per Company policy
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What items are required to be on a dispatch release?
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• Aircraft identification number
• Trip or flight number and date of flight • Departure, destination, alternate airports and any intermediate stops • The type of operation (i.e., instrument flight rules (IFR), visual flight rules (VFR), etc.) • The minimum fuel supply required for the flight • ATC computer flight plan |
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How long after the departure time does a dispatch release remain valid?
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60 min past the Estimated Time of Departure (ETD)
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If a dispatch release has “expired” how may the PIC amend it to make it valid again?
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Contact dispatch to obtain a new valid departure time, then include time and initials on the release next to the new ETD
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When is a new dispatch release required?
|
• Before a flight departs an originating station after a delay of more than 1 hour
• Any time a flight remains at the airport for more than 1 hour at an intermediate airport (does not apply to originating flights) • When an aircraft returns to the station of last departure after becoming airborne • When an MEL/CDL is added (that was not on the original dispatch release) or cleared from the aircraft • Flight number changes • Aircraft changes • Amended or updated Terminal Area Forecast (TAF) (if aircraft is still at the gate) that requires the addition of a destination alternate • Before departing any station where an unscheduled landing is made • If the flight is unable to depart in accordance with the dispatch release previously issued by the Dispatcher • If both Flight Crewmembers are changed on the original release • When the Pilot In Command requests a change to the dispatch release before departure |
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Where would dispatch inform the pilot that the aircraft has been placed on derivative power (SAAB ONLY)?
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In the remarks section of the dispatch release
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|
What is the standard fuel burn that dispatch uses for flight planning?
|
• Saab 340: 1200 lbs/hr
• Q400: 2600 lbs/hr |
|
When would a flight crew attach the designator “Lifeguard” to their call sign with ATC?
|
When carrying urgently needed lifesaving medical materials or vital human organs. This designation results in ATC priority handling, but does NOT constitute an emergency declaration
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|
What personnel are allowed on board during an Operational Check Flight (OCF)?
|
• Pilot In Command and Second In Command
• Crewmembers are limited to those necessary for flight. This may include Company technicians for monitoring, observing and recording the operation of flight controls or system functions not readily observable by the Flight Crew • When necessary, Non-Company personnel may be on board for an OCF as observers. Examples of Non-Company personnel who may be necessary as observers are aircraft manufacturer and/or aircraft engine representatives |
|
Does a Weight and Balance form need to be completed before an Operation Check Flight (OCF)?
|
yes
|
|
What two items are required before a flight can “Over-Fly” a station with no revenue on or off?
|
• Dispatcher approval
• Amendment to the flight release |
|
Who should the PIC contact prior to initiating a diversion to an alternate airport?
|
Dispatch
|
|
What types of information does ACARS allow dispatch to communicate to flight crews (Q400 ONLY)?
|
• Weather updates
• Release amendment information • PIREPs NOTAMs, etc. |
|
Who is allowed to declare an emergency for a given flight?
|
Both the PIC and the dispatcher for the flight (if unable to contact the PIC)
|
|
Within how many days after declaring an emergency must a written report to the
administrator be filed? |
10 days (after returning to his/her home base)
|
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Does the carriage of human organs require flight crew notification?
|
no, unless their packaging contains dry ice
|