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87 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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What is the maximum allowable chassis leakage current?
A: 10uA B: 20uA C: 0.1mA D: 10mA |
C: 0.1mA
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What is the maximum allowable leakage current from the isolated amplifier inputs through the patient leads?
A: 10uA B: 100uA C: 1mA D: 10mA |
A: 10uA
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A differential amplifier with a gain of 1,000,000 has a 0.2uV signal at it's positive input and a 0.8uV signal at it's negative input. The output will be:
A: An upward peak of 0.6V B: A downward peak of 0.6V C: An upward peak of 1V D: A downward peak of 1V |
B: A downward peak of 0.6V
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Which of the following is most likely associated with abnormal posterior tibial SEPs?
A: Romberg sign B: Anterior Cord Syndrome C: Meniere's Disease D: Homonymous hemianopsia |
A: Romberg sign
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What is the very large amplitude potential following the ABR waves I-V at approximately 15mS?
A: Large Latency potential B: Postauricular myogenic response C: Middle latency potential D: Wave VI |
C: Middle latency potential
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Which is the following is most consistent with a discrete lesion of the medial geniculate body?
A: Loss of wave V B: Loss of waves III-V C: Loss of waves II-V D: No change in waves I-V |
D: No change in waves I-V
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Cotrel-Dubousset instrumentation involves which of the following?
A: Sublaminar wires B: Derotation C: Distraction D: Intervertebral diskectomy |
B: Derotation
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What EEG changes would you expect after intra-carotid sodium amytal?
A: Diffuse decrease B: Ictal discharges C: Contralateral decrease in high frequency D: Ipsilateral decrease in high frequency |
D: Ipsilateral decrease in high frequency
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What might be monitored for a jugular bulb tumor surgery?
A: Flash VEP B: CN III-VI C: CN VII-XII D: BAER only |
C: CN VII-XII
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Horizontal Dipole:
A: EP B: N13 C: N18 D: N34 |
B: N13
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Somatosensory EPs are less reliable in patients with:
A: Severe scoliosis B: History of nicotine abuse C: A tethered spinal cord D: Neuromuscular disease |
D: Neuromuscular disease
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Which of the following has the greatest effect on SEP monitoring?
A: Fentanyl B: Diazepam C: Pavulon D: Sevoflurane |
D: Sevoflurane
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What is the advantage to using an insulated bipolar electrode for intracranial facial nerve stimulation?
A: Prevent burn to surgeons hand B: Prevent cranial nerve from damage C: Prevent current shunting to other cranial nerves D: Required by JAHCO |
C: Prevent current shunting to other cranial nerves
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Which of the following could be used to monitor facial nerve EMG?
A: Temporalis B: Mentalis C: Stylopharyngeus D: Streptococcus |
B: Mentalis
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Which procedure would require intraoperative SPINAL cord monitoring?
A: Cerebellar mass B: Kyphoscoliosis C: Abdominal hernia D: Fractured tibia |
B: Kyphoscoliosis
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Which of the following responses increase linearly with an increase in stimulus intensity?
A: Pop Fossa B: P31 C: PTN cortical D: MN cortical |
A: Pop Fossa
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What is the initial event that occurs when the action potential threshold of a neuron is reached?
A: The ATP pump shuts down B: Voltage-gated Sodium channels open C: Voltage-gated Sodium channels close D: Sodium rapidly diffuses out of the cell |
B: Voltage-gated Sodium channels open
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What will be the frequency of a signal if in a 30 msec sweep the interval between each cycle of the signal is 0.03 msec?
A: 3 KHz B: 33 KHz C: 333 KHz D: 3333 KHz |
B: 33 KHz
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Lower motor neurons primarily exit the spinal cord through:
A: The dorsal nerve roots B: The ventral nerve roots C: The dorsal columns D: The dorsal root ganglia |
B: The ventral nerve roots
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What muscle would you monitor for EMG activity for cranial nerve XII?
A: Tongue B: Trapezius C: Masseter D: Frontalis |
A: Tongue
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If the VIIIth nerve were transected, you would get:
A: Absence of all waves I-V B: Increased I-III latency C: Loss of wave III-V D: No change |
A: Absence of all waves I-V
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How can one sometimes enhance the wave V amplitude?
A: Stimulate using a 4KHz tone pip B: Use condensation instead of rarefaction C: Decrease sweet D: Increase rep rate |
B: Use condensation instead of rarefaction
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Of the following, the peak equivalent SPL of a click should be calibrated at:
A: 500Hz B: 1000Hz C: 5000Hz D: 10000Hz |
B: 1000Hz
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Which of the following are acceptable filter settings for recording BAEPs:
A: 1-1000 Hz B: 250-2500 Hz C: 500-5000 Hz D: 10-2500 Hz |
D: 10-2500 Hz
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Epidural recordings are most affected by:
A: Rep rate B: spinal instrumentation C: Low cut filter D: Halogenated agents |
B: spinal instrumentation
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What bandpass filter should be used to record CMAP's for facial nerve?
A: 1-100Hz B: 10-500Hz C: 10-1500Hz D: 300-16000Hz |
C: 10-1500Hz
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Eliciting a motor twitch with PTN stim, you expect to see:
A: plantar flexion of the toes with eversion of the foot B: Dorsiflexion of the toes C: Plantar flexion of the toes D: Flexion of the abductor pollicis brevis |
C: Plantar flexion of the toes
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Changing the low cut filter of a BAEP from 100 to 200Hz will result in:
A: No change B: Increased response latency C: Increased response amplitude D: Decreased response latency |
D: Decreased response latency
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If a 10 microvolt signal inside 50 microvolts of noise is averaged for 100 traces, the final signal to noise ratio will be:
A: 1:5 B: 5:1 C: 2:1 D: 1:1 |
C: 2:1
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For the intraoperative recording of EEG, the impedance of a scalp electrode should range from:
A: 250 to 500 ohms B: 500 to 1000 ohms C: 1000 to 5000 ohms D: 5000 to 10000 ohms |
C: 1000 to 5000 ohms
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In order to stimulate both tibial nerves asynchronously, you need:
A: to delay the first stimulator B: to delay the second stimulator C: a positive trace delay C: a negative trace delay |
B: to delay the second stimulator
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Generally speaking, rate increases above 30 per second in BAEP studies:
A: will increase the amplitude of wave V B: will decrease wave V amplitude and increase wave I amplitude C: will increase the latency and decrease the amplitude of the BAEP D: have little or no effect on BAEP responses |
C: will increase the latency and decrease the amplitude of the BAEP
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Sublaminar wires are typically used to apply what type of corrective force to the spinal column?
A: distraction B: fixation C: translation D: compression |
C: translation
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The effects of Harrington rod distraction on the spinal cord can be tested by all of the following except:
A: Stagnara wake up test B: SSEPs C: Motor EP D: dorsal root stimulation |
D: dorsal root stimulation
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Spinal cord evoked potentials are best recorded using a low frequency filter setting of 100Hz. This setting is preferred because, relative to cortical SSEPs, spinal cord potentials are:
A: of relatively short duration B: less affected by changes in anesthesia C: subject to 60Hz interference D: an extremely low voltage response |
A: of relatively short duration
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With a sampling rate of 10kHz the shortest sine wave resolved would be:
A: 2msec B: .2msec C: .4msec D: .02msec |
B: .2msec
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The suggested rate of stimlation for Intraoperative PTN evoked potential monitoring is:
A: 30-40 per second B: 20-30 per second C: 10-20 per second D: 2-10 per second |
D: 2-10 per second
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The effect of severe hypotension on the evoked potentials includes:
A: an increase in amplitude and a decrease in latency B: a decrease in amplitude and an increase in latency C: variable changes in amplitude and an increase in latency D: a decrease in amplitude and variable changes in latency |
B: a decrease in amplitude and an increase in latency
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When used as an induction agent, which of the following drugs will have the LEAST effect on SSEP:
A: Propofol B: Isoflurane C: Etomidate D: Halothane |
A: Propofol
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The common peroneal nerve arises at the superior angle of the popliteal fossa from the:
A: superior tibial nerve B: superior femoral nerve C: internal popliteal nerve D: sciatic nerve |
D: sciatic nerve
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Low frequency sounds are:
A: at the apex of the cochlea B: near the stapes C: near the round window D: perceived along Reissner's membrane |
A: at the apex of the cochlea
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The LEAST depressing SEP monitoring is probably:
A: ketamine B: sevoflurane C: pancuronium D: vecuronium |
A: ketamine
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Trigeminal nerve stimulation will elicit a CMAP from which of the following:
A: Mentalis B: Tongue C: Trigeminalis D: Temporalis |
D: Temporalis
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During facial nerve EMG monitoring, which of the following should NOT be introduced into the operative site:
A: the bovie B: irrigation C: xylocaine D: needle electrodes |
C: xylocaine
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According to current OSHA standards, needle electrodes should:
A: be reused whenever possible B: not be soaked in a sodium hypochlorite solution C: be recapped before discarding D: not be handled with tongs or forceps while cleaning |
D: not be handled with tongs or forceps while cleaning
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To protect the patient from inadvertent shock during power-on and power-off, the maximum leakage current through patient leads should be:
A: 1 microamp B: 10 milliamps C: 10 microamps D: 100 microamps |
C: 10 microamps
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To minimize pain from stimulation during the recording of SSEPs, the contact impedance of the stimulator should be:
A: less than 50 kOhms B: more than 10,000 kOhms C: less than 5,000 Ohms D: less than 10 megohms |
C: less than 5,000 Ohms
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An electrode measured 20% lateral to Cz on the right using the 10-20 system is:
A: C4 B: A2 C: T3 D: C3 |
A: C4
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The major positive ion inside the cell or axon is:
A: Ca B: Na C: K D: H2O |
C: K
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P14 is a far field, subcortically generated response which probably reflects:
A: activity from the precentral gyrus B: caudal medial lemniscal activity C: passage of the afferent volley D: a stationary cervical potential |
B: caudal medial lemniscal activity
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If the patients threshold is 25dB and the stimulator is set at 85dB, then the intensity is:
A: 60dB SL B: 85dB SL C: 110dB SL D: 60dB SL |
A: 60dB SL
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Which of the following could cause a false negative in a T10 surgery?
A: Synchronous PTN stimulation B: Asynchronous PTN stimulation C: Asynchronous peroneal stimulation D: Asynchronous MN stimulation |
D: Asynchronous MN stimulation
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The area of greatest risk for ischemic injury during carotid endarterectomy is:
A: the anterior communicating artery B: the middle cerebral artery C: the posterior cerebral artery D: the posterior inferior cerebral artery |
B: the middle cerebral artery
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Language:
A: is in the left cerebral hemisphere in 85% of the population B: is in the right cerebral hemisphere in 85% of the population C: localization depends on the age of the patient D: is localized in the parietal lobe |
A: is in the left cerebral hemisphere in 85% of the population
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Which of the following evoked potentials is LEAST changed by anesthesia:
A: auditory B: somatosensory C: visual D: electroencephalography |
A: auditory
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In general, filter settings for SEP recordings:
A: can be narrower for cortical than peripheral responses B: can be narrower for peripheral than cortical responses C: should always include 60Hz band pass filters D: should always be 30-3000 Hz |
A: can be narrower for cortical than peripheral responses
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What should you do if a pedicle screw tests above the accepted threshold?
A: Inform the surgeon of a possible breach of the pedicle B: Check the stimulator for a possible failure C: Ask anesthesia to reduce the inhalational agents D: Inform the surgeon of an acceptable screw value |
D: Inform the surgeon of an acceptable screw value
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Neurapraxia is:
A: a nerve that is cut B: the same as axonotemesis C: blockage of nerve impulse conduction without axonal damage D: stretch injuries to a nerve |
C: blockage of nerve impulse conduction without axonal damage
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Which of the following is NOT true:
A: agents that steralize are also injurious to the living tissues of the skin B: boiling water can be used to sterilize surgical instruments C: formaldehyde is highly germacidal and sporicidal in a stong concentration D: sodium hypochlorite (bleach) is effective in the deactivation of HIV and hepatitis B virus |
B: boiling water can be used to sterilize surgical instruments
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The difference between the voltages in input 1 and input 2 will make the display of the amplifier move:
A: in a sinusoidal pattern B: up C: either up or down D: down |
C: either up or down
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Which of the following is associated with the loss of proprioception?
A: Romberg's sign B: Tourette's syndrome C: Tinel's sign D: Anterior cord syndrome |
A: Romberg's sign
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Which of the following muscles would be most appropriate to monitor EMG from for L5 and S1 nerve roots:
A: Vastus Lateralis and Gracilis B: Rectus Femoris and Tibialis Anterior C: Semimembranosus and Peroneus longus D: Gastrocnemius and sphincter ani |
C: Semimembranosus and Peroneus longus
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The D-wave should be recorded:
A: Rostral to the surgical site B: Caudal to the surgical site C: From the distal limb muscles D: From the proximal limb muscles |
B: Caudal to the surgical site
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If an evoked potential has a voltage of 10uA and the associated noise has a voltage of 50uV, what is the signal to noise ratio after 100 averages:
A: 1:1 B: 1:2 C: 2:1 D: 5:1 |
C: 2:1
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If an amplifier is rated as having 120dB common mode rejection ratio, which of the following ratios of in-phase to out-of-phase signals would be expected:
A: 10,000:1 B: 100,000:1 C: 500,000:1 D: 1,000,000:1 |
D: 1,000,000:1
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Which of the following opposes any change in current:
A: capacitance B: impedance C: inductance D: resistance |
C: inductance
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In BAEPs, wave I can most easily be differentiated from cochlear microphonics based upon:
A: amplitude B: morphology C: click polarity D: absence in contralateral recording |
C: click polarity
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What is the interstimulus interval of a 50Hz click stimulus:
A: 0.02 msec B: 0.20 msec C: 0.50 msec D: 20.00 msec |
D: 20.00 msec
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In a bipolar montage, the key element in localization is the:
A: instrument phase reversal B: Relative voltage in each channel C: Common mode rejection of in-phase noise D: Synchronization of discharges |
A: instrument phase reversal
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According to the ACNS guidelines, system bandpass settings for monitoring facial nerve spontaneous muscle activity should be:
A: 1-250 to 1500 Hz B: 10-30 to 2500-3000 Hz C: 10-30 to 16,000 Hz D: 100-200 to 1000-3000 Hz |
C: 10-30 to 16,000 Hz
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What is the recommended bandpass setting for facial nerve compound muscle action potential (CMAP) recording:
A: 1-250 to 1500 Hz B: 10-30 to 2500-3000 Hz C: 10-30 to 16,000 Hz D: 100-200 to 1000-3000 Hz |
A: 1-250 to 1500 Hz
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What is the most likely effect of isoflurane at MAC 1.5 on tibialis anterior CMAP amplitude in response to spinal stimulation:
A: marked increase B: marked decrease C: minimal decrease D: minimal increase |
B: marked decrease
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Which of the following systolic blood pressures is the most likely to attenuate the evoked potentials:
A: 150mm/Hg B: 140mm/Hg C: 130mm/Hg D: 120mm/Hg |
A: 150mm/Hg
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Macroshock:
A: current less than 50uA B: current less than 100uA C: Imperceptible current passing from one source to another D: Perceptible current passing from one external source to another |
D: Perceptible current passing from one external source to another
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After median nerve stimulation, the N13 recording is generated at the:
A: cuneate nucleus B: Medial lemniscus C: Dorsal root entry zone D: Post-synaptic cervical cord |
D: Post-synaptic cervical cord
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Synchronous bilateral stimulation of tibial nerves is likely to increase the amplitude of which components:
A: N13 B: N20 C: PF D: P37 |
D: P37
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In SSEP monitoring during spinal cord surgery, an epidural electrode placed caudal to the surgical site is used to:
A: Measure neuromuscular blockade B: Evaluate anesthetic levels C: Reflect motor action potential D: Verify adequate stimulation |
D: Verify adequate stimulation
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While performing upper extremity SSEPs, what do you do if you can't get a thumb twitch:
A: Re-apply the ground B: Decrease stimulus duration C: Decrease stimulus intensity D: Reposition the stimulating electrodes |
D: Reposition the stimulating electrodes
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Unbalanced electrode impedances:
A: Reduce stimulus artifact B: Reduce 60Hz artifact C: Cause electrode polarization D: Degrade common mode rejection |
D: Degrade common mode rejection
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If the internal auditory canal is occluded, what will be the result?
A: Prolongation of all waves B: Decrease in I-V interpeak interval C: Decrease of wave V amplitude D: Change in III-V interpeak interval |
C: Decrease of wave V amplitude
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Dyskinesia:
A: Abnormal proprioception B: Involuntary movement C: Abnormal sensation D: Abnormal ringing in ears |
B: Involuntary movement
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Horizontal Dipole:
A: Erb's point B: N18 C: P14 D: N34 |
C: P14
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What is the most acceptable interperiod sample to resolve ABR waveforms:
A: 0.02 mS B: 0.5 mS C: 2.0 mS D: 10 mS |
A: 0.02 mS
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What nerve roots are being monitored using the Peroneus longus muscle:
A: L2-L4 B: L4-S1 C: L5-S2 D: S2-S4 |
C: L5-S2
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The most appropriate ABR interstimulus interval is:
A: 50mS B: 20mS C: 5mS D: 0.02 mS |
B: 20mS
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What component would be most affected by a tumor by where the spinal cord and medulla intersect:
A: N13 B: P31 C: EP D: N20 |
A: N13
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The best anesthesia for SSEPs:
A: Bolus fentanyl B: Bolus midazolam C: Infusion fentanyl D: Infusion midazolam |
C: Infusion fentanyl
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