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30 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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Hypoechoic nodules are detected in breast tissue using:
a. Blood tests b. Ultrasound c. Mammogram d. Breast physical examination |
b. Ultrasound
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The scale used to record functional capacity (ability to perform activities of daily living) for cancer patients is called:
a. Wechsler b. Glasgow c. Karnofsky d. Apgar |
c. Karnofsky
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BRCA-1 and BRCA-2 are:
a. Genes associated with a higher incidence of leukemia. b. Genes associated with a higher incidence of breast cancer c. Cells associated with breast cancer d. Estrogen receptors |
b. Genes associated with a higher incidence of breast cancer
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A fibroadenoma is:
a. A metastatic breast cancer b. An early form of breast cancer c. A benign breast tumor d. A breast lump with early invasion of cancer |
c. A benign breast tumor
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What is ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS)?
a. A metastatic breast cancer b. Benign tumor in the breast tissue c. Breast cancer which has not metastasized d. An invasive breast cancer |
c. Breast cancer which has not metastasized
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Arimidex, Femara, and Nolvadex are hormonal drugs used to treat:
a. breast cancer b. prostate cancer c. anemia d. CML |
c. anemia
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A partial, arrested, or non-apparent form of disease is called:
a. Benign b. Metastatic c. Forme fruste d. HER2/neu |
c. Forme fruste
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Which of the following is a naturally occurring protein produced by recombinant DNA technology, used to treat cancers and viral infections?
a. Interferon alfa-2a b. Interferon alpha c. Taxotere d. Casodex |
a. Interferon alfa-2a
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The PET scan has become a valuable tool in staging breast cancer because:
a. The type of breast cancer can be determined without biopsy. b. Metastatic disease to lymph nodes can usually be seen even when nodes cannot be felt. c. The aggressiveness of the tumor can be determined. d. Hormonal therapy can be decided on prior to surgery. |
b. Metastatic disease to lymph nodes can usually be seen even when nodes cannot be felt.
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What does T/N/M stand for when describing cancer?
a. Tumor/Nonoperative/Mastopexy b. Tumor/Negativity/Malignancy c. Throat/Nose/Mouth d. Tumor/Nodes/Metastasis |
d. Tumor/Nodes/Metastasis
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Surgery done to sustain a cancer patient or alleviate pain is called:
a. Adjuvant b. Preventive surgery c. Palliative surgery d. Brachytherapy |
c. Palliative surgery
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Which of the following is a monocolonal antibody therapy for lymphoma?
a. Rituxan b. Adriamycin c. Xeloda d. Zinecard |
a. Rituxan
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A type of neoplasm that affects the bone marrow is called:
a. Sarcoma b. Osteosarcoma c. Adenoma d. Leukemia |
d. Leukemia
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Epogen and Procrit (epoetin alfa) are used to treat which of the following common side effects of chemotherapy?
a. Nausea b. Anemia c. Hair loss d. Loss of appetite |
b. Anemia
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One type of malignant tumor of the kidney is called:
a. Retinoblastoma b. Burkitt lymphoma c. Wilms tumor d. Astrocytoma |
c. Wilms tumor
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A patient with severe leukopenia might require:
a. Transfusion with 10 units of FFP (fresh frozen plasma) b. Reverse isolation to prevent infection c. Acetaminophen 650 mg p.o. q.4 h. around-the-clock d. Emergency endotracheal intubation |
b. Reverse isolation to prevent infection
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A patient has had these blood tests ordered: Ferritin level, B-12 level, folate level, and total iron binding capacity. A differential diagnosis might include:
a. Jaundice b. Iron-deficiency anemia c. Malabsortion syndrome d. Chronic fatigue syndrome |
b. Iron-deficiency anemia
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Casodex, Eulexin, Zoladex, and Lupron are treatments used for:
a. Breast cancer b. Leukemia c. Lymphoma d. Prostate cancer |
d. Prostate cancer
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Which of the following is not a routine part of a complete blood count (CBC)?
a. Red cell indices b. Hemoglobin c. Platelet count d. Reticulocyte count |
d. Reticulocyte count
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The complex process by which platelets, plasma, and fibrin interact to control bleeding is called:
a. Phagocytosis b. Hematopoiesis c. Coagulation d. Plasmapheresis |
c. Coagulation
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Macrocytosis, anisocytosis, and poikilocytosis are terms used to describe:
a. Red cells b. White cells c. Platelets d. Tumor cells |
a. Red cells
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The major categories of formed elements in the blood include:
a. Phagocytes, histiocytes, and erythrocytes b. Erythrocytes, leukocytes, and platelets c. Platelets, metamyelocytes, and prolymphyocytes d. Neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils |
b. Erythrocytes, leukocytes, and platelets
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Factor VIII is a clotting factor most often prescribed for:
a. Eye surgery b. Hemophiliacs c. Cancer patients d. Platelet aggregation |
b. Hemophiliacs
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A patient has the following lab values: Electrophoresis positive for hemoglobin S, elevated reticulocyte count, and nucleated RBC and target cells seen on peripheral smear. A likely diagnosis would be:
a. Pernicious anemia b. Aplastic anemia c. Sickle cell anemia d. Leukemia |
c. Sickle cell anemia
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ITP is the abbreviation for:
a. Idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura b. Immune thrombocytic purpura c. Idiopathic T-cell proliferation. d. Both A & B |
d. Both A & B
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Cancers which develop from plasma cells include:
a. Myelomas b. Leukemia c. Lymphomas d. Gliomas |
a. Myelomas
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A type of cancer that causes painless, progressive enlargement of lymph nodes, spleen, and other lymphoid tissue and is associated with Reed-Sternberg cells is called:
a. Leukemia b. Lymphoid hyperplasia c. Hodgkin disease d. Non-Hodgkin disease |
c. Hodgkin disease
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The Philadelphia chromosome is pathognomonic for:
a. CML b. Lymphoma c. Breast cancer d. Prostate cancer |
a. CML
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A WBC count of 100,000 would indicate:
a. A normal white cell count b. A slightly elevated white cell count c. A decreased WBC d. A markedly elevated count typical of leukemia |
d. A markedly elevated count typical of leukemia
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Which of the following is a list of lung cancer types?
a. Adenocarcinoma, oat cell, and anaplastic b. Epidermoid, anaplastic, and oat cell c. Small cell, adenocarcinoma, and lymphocytic d. Oat cell, squamous cell, large cell |
d. Oat cell, squamous cell, large cell
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