Cmt Prep Challenge #9

Front 1

The major categories of formed elements in the blood include
A phagocytes, histiocytes, and erythrocytes.
B erythrocytes, leukocytes, and platelets.
C platelets, metamyelocytes, and prolymphocytes.
D neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils.

Back 1

B erythrocytes, leukocytes, and platelets.

Hint 1

While certainly all of the cellular elements listed in answers A, C, and D are found in the blood, they are uniquely grouped and categorized as either erythrocytes, leukocytes or platelets, either in their fully differentiated or mature forms.

Front 2

The Philadelphia chromosome is associated with which disease?
A CML
B lymphoma
C breast cancer
D prostate cancer

Back 2

A CML

Hint 2

The Philadelphia (Ph) is an abnormally short chromosome 22 that is one of two chromosomes that is involved in translocation with chromosome 9. This exchange of material takes place in a single bone marrow cell and through the rapid replication from this one mutant cell, it gives rise to leukemia.

Front 3

Which of the following is an early sign of bacterial endocarditis?
A Altered mentation.
B Valvular vegetations.
C Myocardial degeneration.
D Idiopathic thrombocytic purpura.

Back 3

B Valvular vegetations.

Hint 3

Bacteria that enters the body through cuts, dental procedures, and minor surgeries can often result in either acute or subacute endocarditis, particularly in patients with valvular disease or those who have had rheumatic fever. The infection is carried by the bloodstream to the innermost lining of the heart, where damage over time can result in vegetative growth on the valvular cusps and compromised functionality of the valves themselves. The bacteria most often responsible for endocarditis is Staphylococcus aureus.

Front 4

A high antistreptolysin O titer would indicate
A therapeutic levels of antibiotics.
B acute staphylococcal infection.
C acute streptococcal infection.
D immunity to streptococcal pharyngitis.

Back 4

C acute streptococcal infection.

Hint 4

There are actually three tests used to test for streptococcal infection - antistreptolysin O (ASO) titer, antideoxyribonuclease-B (anti-Dnase-B or ADB) titer, and the streptozyme screening test. Of these, the ASO and ADB titers are used to identify previous infection with a group A Streptococcus, which can be important in diagnosing scarlet fever, rheumatic fever, and acute glomerulonephritis.

Front 5

Which of the following is not used to treat malaria?
A Primaquine
B Doxycyline
C Proguanil
D Cephalosporin

Back 5

D Cephalosporin

Hint 5

Cephalosporin antibiotics belong to a broad-spectrum classification and are used to treat gram-negative and gram-positive bacteria. Malaria is caused by a protozoan parasite of the genus Plasmodium.

Front 6

Which of these is correctly matched to its plural form?
A Apex - apices
B Diverticulum - diverticuli
C Petechium - petechia
D Ramus - rama

Back 6

A Apex - apices

Hint 6

Answer B is not correct because the plural of diverticulum is diverticula. Answer C is not correct because the singular form would be petechia and the plural is petechiae. Answer D is not correct because the plural of ramus is rami.

Front 7

A dilation, or out-pouching, of the ureters is called a
A ureterocele.
B ureteroileostomy.
C urethrocele.
D urethrocystitis.

Back 7

A ureterocele.

Hint 7

Often considered one of the more challenging urologic anomalies to diagnose and treat, ureteroceles are typically congenital and involve the terminal ureter where impaired function of the kidney and collecting system can become problematic. Early diagnosis and intervention is critical. Ureteroceles occur in 1 out of every 4000 children, whose presenting symptomatology ranges from frequent UTIs, urosepsis, ureteral calculi, and failure to thrive. For obstructive cases, surgical intervention to relieve obstruction and preserve renal function is indicated.

Front 8

A rongeur is used to
A nip away at bone.
B close an incision.
C cut ligaments.
D dissect muscle.

Back 8

A nip away at bone.

Hint 8

Among the many types of surgical forceps, the rongeur is uniquely designed to cut through tough osseous tissue for the purpose of removing bits of bone. A rongeur would be used, for example, to split the ascending ramus during a mandibular sagittal split ramus osteotomy.

Front 9

Lack of parallelism of the visual axes of the eyes is called
A astigmatism.
B asterixis.
C strabismus.
D nystagmus.

Back 9

C strabismus.

Hint 9

Strabismus, more commonly known as cross-eyed or wall-eyed, is a visual condition in which the person cannot align both eyes simultaneously under normal conditions. Astigmatism refers to the irregular shape of the cornea or lens that, when moderate or severe, can cause headaches and eyestrain. Nystagmus refers to involuntary movement of the eyes that cannot be controlled, which either can be congenital or acquired. Asterixis, of course, is not an ophthalmologic disorder, but a disorder commonly associated with liver failure that results in loss of an assumed posture and "flapping" irregular extension-flexion movements of the wrist.

Front 10

Prevention of osteomalacia includes intake of sufficient
A Vitamin C.
B Vitamin E.
C Vitamin B12.
D Vitamin D.

Back 10

D Vitamin D.

Hint 10

Both rickets and osteomalacia are caused by vitamin D deficiency. The primary function of vitamin D in the body is to maintain blood levels of calcium and phosphorous. Though not directly involved in the formation of bone, vitamin D aids in the absorption of calcium and plays a critical indirect role in ensuring the proper formation and maintenance of strong, healthy bones.

Front 11

Which of these is not correct?
A 1 year's experience
B 24 weeks gestation
C 15 minutes past 3 o'clock
D 3 days' time

Back 11

B 24 weeks gestation

Hint 11

Per the AAMT Book of Style, 2nd Edition (page 327), use 's or s', whichever is appropriate, to form the possessive form for units of time, measurement and money. Example: 20 weeks' gestation, 30 degrees' flexion, and 1 dollar's worth. HINT: If you can replace the possessive form with the preposition of without changing its meaning, the apostrophe is correct. Example: 30 degrees' flexion = 30 degrees of flexion.

Front 12

Which of these psychoactive substances is an opioid drug?
A Cannabis.
B Haldol.
C Heroin.
D Thorazine.

Back 12

C Heroin.

Hint 12

According to Wikipedia, an opioid is a "chemical substance that has a morphine-like action on the body." The opioid category of drugs, of which heroin is a part, have long been used to treat acute pain and have also been used in the palliative treatment of severe and disabling conditions, such as cancer. In some forms, opioids can also provide cough, diarrhea and anxiety.

Front 13

Metrorrhagia means
A excessive uterine bleeding.
B uterine bleeding of abnormal amount; occurring at abnormal times.
C painful menstruation; dysmenorrheal.
D absence of bleeding.

Back 13

B uterine bleeding of abnormal amount; occurring at abnormal times.

Hint 13

Metrorrhagia can be defined as 'off schedule' bleeding. The bleeding, usually of normal or slight amount, occurs at either irregular or regular intervals outside of the normal menstrual flow. Metrorrhagia is one of many conditions sometimes caused by hormone irregularities, which can be labeled by the more general term, Dysfunctional Uterine Bleeding - DUB.

Front 14

Which of these will be positive if a patient has osteomyelitis?
A Ceretec scan
B Technetium-99 SPECT scan
C MUGA scan
D V/Q scan

Back 14

A Ceretec scan

Hint 14

A Ceretec scan, also known as an abscess localization scan or WBC scan, is performed to rule out osteomyelitis, typically from chronic found infections. It involves withdrawal of blood in order to have the white blood cells tagged with the radioactive tracer Ceretec. These white cells are then injected back into the patient. Four hours post injection, the scan is performed to trace the aggregation of the radioactive white cells.

Front 15

Grinding ones teeth, usually during sleep, is called
A odontagra.
B mastication.
C bruxism.
D trismus.

Back 15

C bruxism.

Hint 15

Bruxism is a common term used to describe the grinding or gnashing of the teeth associated with stress and anxiety that can lead to temporomandibular joint disorders. Odontagra, though an obsolete term in the modern lexicon, refers to toothache thought to be of gouty origin. Mastication refers to the normal action of chewing and trismus refers to an inability to fully open the mouth, also referred to as lock jaw, a spasm of the jaw muscles that is often a symptom of tetanus.

Front 16

Which of the following measures intraocular pressure?
A visual field test
B pupillometry
C sphygmoscopy
D tonometry

Back 16

D tonometry

Hint 16

Tonometry is used to help detect glaucoma, a group of eye diseases that can cause blindness by damaging the nerve in the back of the eye (optic nerve). Damage to the optic nerve may be caused in part by fluid that fails to drain properly out of the eye. There are four kinds of tonometry: pneumotonometry, applanation (Goldmann) tonometry, indentation (Schiotz) tonometry, and electronic indentation tonometry.

Front 17

This device is used by occupational therapists to measure gross movements of arm, hand, fingers, and fingertip dexterity.
A Purdue pegboard.
B Jamar dynamometer.
C Swiss ball.
D Pulley.

Back 17

A Purdue pegboard.

Hint 17

The Purdue Pegboard Test was first developed by Joseph Tiffin, Ph.D., an Industrial Psychologist at Purdue University in 1948. Since that time, this device has been used extensively to aid in the rehabilitation of patients with hand and upper extremity injuries and in selection of employees for jobs that require fine and gross motor dexterity and coordination. The test measures dexterity and two types of activities: gross movements of hands, fingers and arms, and "fingertip" dexterity in an assembly task. It involves sequential insertion of pegs and assembly of pegs, collars and washers.

Front 18

Which of the following are salivary ducts?
A Stensen.
B Wharton.
C Waldeyer.
D Stensen and Wharton.

Back 18

D Stensen and Wharton.

Hint 18

The parotid duct, or Stenson duct, is the major duct of the parotid gland, which is the major salivary gland. Wharton's duct is the duct of the submandibular salivary gland opening into the mouth at side of the frenum linguae.

Front 19

An instrument used to expose the opening of a canal in order to inspect the interior is called a
A trocar.
B retractor.
C tenaculum.
D speculum.

Back 19

D speculum.

Hint 19

Specula have a variety of applications in clinical procedure. The most common speculum, of course, is the vaginal speculum, used to open the vagina in order to visualize and access the cervix.

Front 20

Which of the following is transcribed correctly?
A Cystoscopy showed normal reflux from the ureters.
B Cystoscopy showed normal reflex from the ureters.
C Cystoscopy showed normal efflux from the ureters.
D Cystoscopy showed normal afflux from the ureters.

Back 20

C Cystoscopy showed normal efflux from the ureters.

Hint 20

Efflux: An outward flow; the process of flowing out. Reflux: Backward flow; the process of flowing back. Reflex: Automatic; without volition or conscious control. Afflux: The rush of blood or liquid to a part.