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30 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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A patient with VRE (vancomycin-resistant enterococcus) would likely be treated with:
a. Lidex b. Zovirax c. Zyvox d. Frova |
c. Zyvox
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Often infectious processes are diagnosed using:
a. Serologic techniques b. Sonograms c. X-rays d. CT scans |
a. Serologic techniques
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A child comes into the emergency room febrile and lethargic. The doctor suspects meningitis. Which of these abnormal physical findings is classic?
a. Stridor b. Coryza c. Stiff neck d. Hyperreflexia |
c. Stiff neck
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CD4 counts are used to:
a. Assess the degree of visual loss caused by Chlamydia trachomatis b. Monitor the efficacyof antibiotics in meningitis c. Test antibiotic sensitivity of Chlamydia trachomatis d. Monitor AIDS patients and efficacy of treatment |
d. Monitor AIDS patients and efficacy of treatment
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Which of the following is a sequla to bacterial endocarditis?
a. Altered mentation b. Valvular vegitations c. Myocardial degeneration d. Idiopathic thrombocytic purpura |
b. Valvular vegitations
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A patient with severe infection of this type may require radical debridement of skin, subcutaneous tissue, and muscle:
a. Erysipelas secondary to streptococcus b. Cellulits secondary to Staphylococcus epidermidis c. Necrotizing fascitits secondary to Clostridium perfringens. d. Acanthos nigricans secondary to diabetes. |
c. Necrotizing fascitits secondary to Clostridium perfringens.
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Which of these indicates infection?
a. Anemia b. Left shift c. Thrombocytopenia d. Hyperkalemia |
b. Left shift
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Which choice below would be a method of hepatitis C transmission?
a. Blood transfusions b. Improperly cooked pork c. Stepping on a rusty nail d. Aerosol droplets from an infected individual |
a. Blood transfusions
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The common term for varicella is:
a. Roseola b. Rubella c. Chicken pox d. Pertussis |
c. Chicken pox
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Hepatitis A is frequently spread via:
a. Sexual contact b. Sneezing c. The fecal-oral route d. IV drug abuse |
c. The fecal-oral route
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Hepatitis B can be spread via:
a. Sexual contact b. Improperly prepared red meat c. The fecal-oral route d. Casual contact with an infected person |
a. Sexual contact
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The Western blot test is used to
a. Assess efficacy of antibiotic treatment b. Confirm HIV infection c. Test clotting and bleeding times d. Trace a viral infection to its origin |
b. Confirm HIV infection
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Primary syphillis is characterized by the presence of a:
a. Sore throat b. Headache c. Chancre d. Purulent drainage |
c. Chancre
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The human papillomavirus (HPV) causes:
a. Herpes b. Gonorrhea c. Genital warts d. Chlamydia |
c. Genital warts
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Mycrobacteria are:
a. Acid-fast bacteria b. Gram-positive cocci c. Gram-negative cocci d. Gram-positive rods |
a. Acid-fast bacteria
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Bacteria which require oxygen in order to thrive are called:
a. Aerobic b. Anaerobic c. Mycobacteria d. Obligate anaerobes |
a. Aerobic
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A physician orders a C&S. What information is he looking for?
a. A list of antigens the patient is allergic to b. The causative infective agent and a list of antibiotics to use for treatment. c. The causative agent in aseptic meningitis d. A list of antibiotics to use for treatment. |
b. The causative infective agent and a list of antibiotics to use for treatment.
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How much time is typically required to culture and identify mycobacteria?
a. 6-8 hours b. 6-8 days c. 6-8 weeks d. 6-8 months |
c. 6-8 weeks
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Which of the following is not used to treat malaria?
a. Primaquine b. Mefloquine c. Chloroquine d. Cephalosporin |
d. Cephalosporin
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Opportunistic infections:
a. Affect immunocompromised patients b. Can only be treated during the initital phase of infection c. Affect the general population d. Are caused by rare infectious agents |
a. Affect immunocompromised patients
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When labeling tetracycline for treatment of Lyme disease, the pharmacist will add a warning to the bottle for the patient to:
a. Avoid salty foods b. Avoid cola drinks c. Avoid dairy products d. Avoid eggs |
c. Avoid dairy products
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Sulfonamides, which are frequently prescribed to treat UTIs, are also prescribed to treat:
a. Skin, bone, and joint infections b. Prostatitis c. Herpes virus, types 1 and 2 d. Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia |
d. Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia
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An AIDS patient is diagnosed with MAC, which is the abbreviation for:
a. Multiple antiviral contraindications b. Multiple autoimmune complexes c. Mycobacterium avium complex d. Multidrug adverse contraindications |
c. Mycobacterium avium complex
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Which of the following classifications includes Trichomonas vaginalis?
a. Fungi b. Bacteria c. Protozoa d. Viruses |
c. Protozoa
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An example of a helminth would be:
a. Flukes b. Spirilla c. Cocci d. Bacilli |
a. Flukes
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Diflucan is an example of:
a. An antibacterial medication b. An antifungal medication c. An antiviral medication d. A chemotherapy drug |
b. An antifungal medication
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A high anti-streptolysin O titer would indicate:
a. Therapeutic levels of antibiotics b. Acute staphylococcal infection c. Acute streptococcal infection d. Immunity to streptococcal pharyngitis |
c. Acute streptococcal infection
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CMV (cytomegalovirus) causes:
a. A respiratory infection only seen in AIDS patients b. A life-threatening infection only seen in newborns c. An uncommon viral infection causing pneumonia d. A common, mild or subclinical infection in the general population |
d. A common, mild or subclinical infection in the general population
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Mycoplasm pneumoniae causes a pneumonia commonly referred to as:
a. Walking pneumonia b. TB c. Consumption d. Double pneumonia |
a. Walking pneumonia
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TB is usually treated with a combination of drugs including:
a. Amoxicillin and clavulanic acid b. Isoniazid and rifampin c. Trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole d. Erythromycin and sulfasoxazole |
b. Isoniazid and rifampin
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