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305 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
The bone that lines the tooth socket is referred to as
Lamina Propria
Lamina Dura
Trabecular Bone
Radibular Bone
Cancellous Bone
Lamina Dura
Which of the following cells are responsible for the synthesis of collagen?
Keratinocytes
Mast cells
Fibroblasts
Plasma cells
Lymphocytes
Fibroblasts
All of the following structures are composed of collagen EXCEPT one. Which one is the exception?
Sulcular epithelium
Principal fibers
Gingival fibers
Cementum
Alveolar bone
Sulcular Epithelium
Which of the following structures represents the fusion of the interproximal junctional epithelia of two adjacent posterior teeth?
Fenestration
Col
Papilla
Frenum
Bone
Col
The alveolar crest is parallel to a line connecting the
cusp tip.
root prominence.
cementoenamel junctions.
alveolar crest.
periodontal ligament.
Cementoenamel Junction
Which of the following statements pertains to the function of the periodontal ligament fibers?
They support and give contour to the attached
gingiva.
They transmit occlusal forces to the bone.
They protect the interproximal bone from
inflammation
They anchor the tooth to the gingival tissues.
They attach the gingiva to the alveolar bone.
They transmit occlusal forces to the bone.
Which of the following definitions is correct for the junctional epithelium?
Connective tissue structure involved in the
attachment of the gingiva to the tooth
Connective tissue that functions to hold the
gingiva against the tooth and bone
Epithelial tissue contributing to the adherence of
the soft tissue to the tooth
Epithelial tissue functioning to protect the
underlying oral structures and acting as a
mechanical barrier
Epithelial tissue contributing to the adherence of the soft tissue to the tooth
Collagen has been found in many types of body tissue. In which of the following oral tissues is collagen NOT found?
Enamel
Epithelium
Bone
Cementum
Epithelium
Which of the following periodontal ligament fibers is last to develop?
Oblique
Horizontal
Apical
Circular
Dentogingival
Apical
Which of the following definitions refers to Sharpey’s fibers?
Directly embedded into alveolar bone and
cementum
Running from alveolar bone and inserting into the
cementum
Originating from the crest of the interradicular
bone and inserting into the furcation area
Extending from the cementum into the free
gingiva
Directly embedded into alveolar bone and cementum
Which of the following terms also refers to the dentogingival unit?
Junctional epithelium + gingival fibers
Sulcular depth + sulcular epithelium
Periodontal ligament + gingival fibers
Periodontal ligament + biologic width
Junctional epithelium + gingival fibers
Which of the following fibers function to resist the forces of pulling out and tipping of a mandibular molar?
Interradicular
Intraradibular
Oblique
Transseptal
Interradicular
Healthy gingival tissues are considered to be firm and resilient because the main component of the gingival connective tissue is about 60 percent collagen fibers.
Both statement and reason are correct.
Both statement and reason are incorrect.
The statement is correct, but the reason is
incorrect.
The statement is incorrect, but the reason is
correct.
Both statement and reason are correct.
All of the following are considered part of the attachment apparatus EXCEPT one. Which one is the exception?
Oral epithelium
Alveolar bone
Periodontal ligament
Cementum
Oral epithelium
Which of the following oral structures is considered to be a semipermeable membrane?
Oral epithelium
Lamina propria
Periodontal ligament
Junctional epithelium
Sulcular epithelium
Junctional epithelium
Which of the following structures is responsible for holding the free gingiva in close contact with the tooth?
Periodontal ligament fibers
Circular fibers
Lamina propria
Oral epithelium
Circular fibers
Which of the following substances/cells is found in the gingival epithelium?
Keratin
Collagen
Fibroblasts
Collagenase
Keratin
Which of the following features occurs with aging?
Increased cementum thickness
Decreased cementum thickness
Increased number of cells in the periodontal
ligament
Increased vascularity of connective tissue
Increased cementum thickness
Which of the following cells are responsible for synthesizing bone?
Osteoclasts
Osteoblasts
Fibroblasts
Cementoblasts
Osteoblasts
Which of the following features is characteristic of cementum?
Contains many blood vessels
Contains a good supply of nerves
Periodontal ligament fibers attach to it
Surface is hard
Periodontal ligament fibers attach to it
Which of the following sources represents where epidemiologic information about periodontal disease comes from?
Gallup poll
Election poll
Population survey
Individual survey
Phone survey
Population survey
The definition of extent of periodontal disease is
amount of periodontal disease involvement.
rate of new cases occurring within a year.
number of individuals in a population having the
disease.
number of diseased teeth or sites per individual.
number of risk factors present in an individual.
number of diseased teeth or sites per individual.
Which of the following statements defines an index?
Numerical expression of values used to describe a
condition
Rate of old and new cases occurring within a year
Number of individuals in a population presenting
with the disease
Number of diseased teeth or sites per individual
Number of risk indicators present in an individual
Numerical expression of values used to describe a condition
All of the following indices are used in periodontics EXCEPT one. Which one is the exception?
Bleeding
Plaque
Calculus
Suppuration
Gingival inflammation
Suppuration
The primary purpose of using an index in medicine/dentistry is to
standardize and reproduce data collected.
make data collection more efficient.
supplement clinical data with the patient’s medical
history.
formulate a surgical treatment plan.
standardize and reproduce data collected.
All of the following are criteria for using indices EXCEPT one. Which one is the exception?
Ease of use
Quick to perform
Must have validity
Has sensitivity
Measures multiple items
Measures multiple items
Plaque indices are used in private practice to measure
oral cleanliness
degree of tooth mobility.
periodontal destruction.
attachment loss.
oral cleanliness
Which of the following inflammation indices is used in national epidemiologic surveys, including the National Health and Nutrition Examination Survey (1971–1974)?
Sulcus Bleeding Index (Mühlemann and Son 1971)
Gingival Index (GI) (Löe 1967)
Periodontal Index (PI) (Russell 1967)
Calculus Index of the National Institute of Dental
Research (Miller et al. 1987)
Periodontal Screening and Recording (PSR)
Periodontal Index (PI) (Russell 1967)
Which of the following is measured using an index of periodontal destruction?
Total disease destruction
Disease severity
Risk factors for disease
Degree of calculus and plaque
Bleeding severity
Disease severity
Which of the following indices was previously used but later modified to the Periodontal Screening and Recording (PSR) system?
Periodontal Index (PI)
Gingival Index (GI)
Turesky Modification of the Quigley-Hein Index
Community Periodontal Index of Treatment
Needs (CPITN)
Community Periodontal Index of Treatment Needs (CPITN)
The prevalence of advanced periodontitis in the population was found to be
5 percent.
10 percent.
15 percent.
35 percent.
>50 percent.
15 percent.
When compared with earlier national surveys, gingivitis has declined in the United States because of increased awareness of oral hygiene as part of a daily personal hygiene routine.
Both statement and reason are correct.
Both statement and reason are incorrect.
The statement is correct, but the reason is
incorrect.
The statement is incorrect, but the reason is correct
Both statement and reason are correct.
Which of the following statements was summarized from the NHANES III study?
Females had better periodontal health than males.
Older individuals had more periodontal disease.
Gingivitis was occurring in overall high rates.
Aggressive periodontitis was very common.
Females had better periodontal health than males.
Which of the following studies is used to determine the natural progression of periodontal diseases?
Cross-sectional
Longitudinal
Split mouth
Cross-over
Longitudinal
Which of the following factors is considered to be a risk indicator for periodontal disease?
Plaque
Smoking
Aging
Diabetes mellitus
Aging
Which of the following statements is true about risk factors?
Their presence decreases the probability of
getting the disease.
They definitively cause the disease.
They may not be causal.
All are not modifiable.
They may not be causal.
The definition of prevalence is
the number of individuals in a population having
the disease.
the severity of periodontal disease involvement.
the number of diseased teeth in an individual.
the number of markers present.
the number of individuals in a population having the disease.
Which of the following statements is true about periodontitis when comparing the NHANES III study and the newer NHANES (1999-2000)?
Severity has increased.
Prevalence has increased.
Prevalence has decreased.
Extent has increased.
Prevalence has decreased.
Comparing the NHANES III with the more recent NHANES, the percentage of bleeding has
decreased.
increased double.
increased triple.
remained the same.
decreased.
The overall prevalence of periodontitis for the NHANES III was 7.3 percent, while for the NHANES 1999–2000 it was
1 percent.
2.5 percent.
4.2 percent.
10.3 percent.
4.2 percent.
Which of the following statements defines a biofilm?
Calcified collection of bacteria that is difficult to remove
Loose collection of free-floating and attached bacteria
An acellular opaque film covering the tooth surfaces
Well-organized, cooperating community of bacteria
Well-organized, cooperating community of bacteria
It is difficult for locally applied antimicrobials to have an effect on oral biofilms because biofilms act as a protective barrier for the bacteria.
Both statement and reason are correct.
Both statement and reason are incorrect.
The statement is correct, but the reason is incorrect.
The statement is incorrect, but the reason is correct.
Both statement and reason are correct.
Which of the following pathogens is strongly associated with periodontal disease?
Porphyromonas gingivalis
Treponema denticola
Prevotella intermedia
Capnocytophaga sp.
Peptostreptococcus micros
Porphyromonas gingivalis
Which of the following is representative of phase III of biofilm formation?
Days 1–2
Days 2–4
Days 4–7
Days 5–8
Days 9–10
Days 4–7
Oral biofilms are surrounded or encircled by a (an)
intermicrobial matrix.
microbial pellicle.
dental adhesion.
dental lectin.
intermicrobial matrix.
Which of the following bacteria is primarily associated with the development of pregnancy gingivitis?
Peptostreptococcus micros
Treponema denticola
Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans
Prevotella intermedia
Fusobacterium nucleatum
Prevotella intermedia
Subgingival bacteria present in the biofilm get nutrients from
serous saliva.
crevicular fluid.
bacterial by-products.
calcified plaque.
crevicular fluid.
Which of the following bacteria have been documented to actually invade into the epithelium and gingival connective tissue?
Porphyromonas gingivalis
Capnocytophaga sp.
Prevotella intermedia
Fusobacterium nucleatum
Peptostreptococcus micros
Porphyromonas gingivalis
All of the following are enzymes that break down periodontal tissues EXCEPT one. Which one is the exception?
Proteases
Collagenase
Hyaluronidase
Elastase
Lipase
Lipase
Which of the following features is characteristic of unattached (free-floating) subgingival bacteria?
Loosely packed
Removed by flushing
Removed by scaling and root planning
Densely packed
Removed by flushing
Which of the following features is characteristic of unattached (free-floating) subgingival bacteria?
Loosely packed
Removed by flushing
Removed by scaling and root planning
Densely packed
Removed by flushing
Which of the following types of subgingival plaque is the MOST virulent?
Tooth associated
Tissue associated
Unattached
Attached
Tissue associated
Which of the following bacterial characteristics is associated with periodontal health?
Gram-positive, aerobic
Gram-positive, anaerobic
Gram-negative, aerobic
Gram-negative, anaerobic
Gram-positive, aerobic
In health, the primary oral bacteria is
Streptococcus sanguis.
Prevotella intermedia.
Spirochetes.
Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans.
Tannerella forythensis.
Streptococcus sanguis.
All of the following cells are present in dental plaque EXCEPT one. Which one is the exception?
Red blood cells
Polymorphonuclear neutrophils
Epithelial cells
Fibroblasts
Fibroblasts
Which of the following bacteria is gram-negative?
Actinomyces viscosus
Eubacterium lentum
Tannerella forsythus
Peptostreptococcus micros
Corynebacterium matruchoti
Tannerella forsythus
Which of the following statements is true about lipooligosaccharide?
Found in the cell wall of Actinomyces sp.
Initiates inflammation
Type of exotoxin
Derived from collagenase
Initiates inflammation
Which of the following bacteria is strongly associated with localized aggressive periodontitis?
Actinomyces viscosus
Eubacterium lentum
Tannerella forsythus
Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans
Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans
Which of the following bacteria is strongly associated with puberty gingivitis?
Streptococcus sanguis
Prevotella intermedia
Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans
Tannerella forythensis
Prevotella intermedia
Which of the following bacteria is a Gram-negative obligate anaerobe?
Streptococcus sanguis
Porphyromonas gingivalis
Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans
Tannerella forythensis (Chapter Three)
Porphyromonas gingivalis
Which of the following bacteria is a Gram-negative facultative rod?
Streptococcus sanguis
Porphyromonas gingivalis
Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans
Tannerella forythensis
Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans
Cells in the Oral Epithelium
Keratinocytes
Nonkeratinocytes (aka clear cells)
Melanocytes
Langerhans Cells
Merkel Cells
Inflammatory Cells (ie: neutrophils)
What type of cells in the oral epithelium usually compose the gingiva?
Parakeratinized stratified squamous epithelium
Turnover time of the gingiva epithelium
10 days
Turnover time of the skin?
28 days
What cells make up the majority of the oral epithelial cells?
Keratinocytes
Sulcular epithelium has rete ridges? T/F
True
There are varying amounts of attached gingiva in the oral cavity. The Narrowest width is on the _______ and the widest width is on the __________?
Narrow--Mandibular Premolars
Widest--Maxillary Incisors
The gingiva is covered by a layer of __________ with an underlying core of connective tissue called ________.
stratified squamous epithelium (Avascular, no nerves)
lamina propria (Vascular, nerves)
Gingival epithelium can be divided into three elements:
The oral epithelium (OE)
The sulcular or crevicular epithelium (SE)
The junctional epithelium (JE)
The JE is composed of what type of cells?
nonkeratinized stratified squamous epithelium
3 Types of Stratified Squamous Epithelium
Orthokeratinized
Nonkeratinized
Parakeratinized
Orthokeratinized epithelium in the Oral Cavity:
Skin
Masticatory mucosa (hard palate + gingiva)
Nonkeratinized epithelium in the oral cavity?
Alveolar mucosa
Sulcular and junctional epithelium
Sharpey's Fibers
Embed into cementum and bone.
Extensions of ligament fibers.
Functions of Periodontal Ligaments:
Suspensory: Supportive
Shock Absorber: Supportive
Remodeling: Formative/Resorptive
Blood Supply: Vascular/Nutritive
Tactile Pressure: Sensory
Proprioceptive: Sensory
Periodontal Ligament Fibers and Functions:

Fiber Bundle: Alveolar Crest
Direction: Originates from the cementum and runs apically to insert into the alveolar Crest

Function: Resists lateral movement of the tooth and keeps tooth in its socket

Features: The first fibers to be formed before tooth eruption has occurred.
Periodontal Ligament Fibers and Functions:

Fiber Bundle: Horizontal
Direction: Originates from cementum and runs at right angles and inserts into bone

Function: Opposes lateral forces

Features: The second fibers to be formed as soon as the first tooth-to-tooth contact has occurred.
Periodontal Ligament Fibers and Functions:

Fiber Bundle: Oblique
Direction: Found inn the middle third of the root apical to the horizontal fibers; originates from cementum and runs coronally and diagonally into bone.

Function: Absorbs occlusal forces

Features: The most abundant and thus the principal attachment of the tooth!!!!
Periodontal Ligament Fibers and Functions:

Fiber Bundle: Apical
Direction: Originates from cementum of the apex of the root; spreading out apically and laterally into bone

Function: Resists tipping of the tooth

Features: One of the last fibers to form
Periodontal Ligament Fibers and Functions:

Fiber Bundle: Interradicular
Direction: From the crest of the interradicular septum extending to the cementum in the furcation area

Function: Resists the forces of luxation (pulling out) and tipping

Features: Lost when bone is destroyed in the furcation area in disease
Alveolar Crest
Parallels adjacent CEJ

1.5 to 2 mm apical to CEJ

Contour follows contour of CEJ
Fenestration means?
Loss of radicular bone (on surface of root) but not including marginal bone (a "window" of bone is resorbed on the radicular surfaces)
Dehiscence means?
Loss of radicular bone including marginal bone
Changes with Aging
Cementum increases in thickness throughout life

Cells within the PL decrease in number
The migration of neutrophils (PMNs) to the site of an invading pathogen is due to
clotting.
self-recognition.
phagocytosis.
chemotaxis.
chemotaxis
Humoral immunity is provided by
plasma cells.
B-cells.
T-cells.
neutrophils.
macrophages
B-cells.
Which of the following cells is considered to be phagocytic?
T-cell
B-cell
Macrophage
Plasma cell
Macrophage
Neutrophils arrive at the site of infection in the gingival connective tissue from the
blood vessels.
alveolar bone.
gingival epithelium.
periodontal ligament.
lymph vessels.
blood vessels.
Which of the following theories of periodontal disease activity are believed to occur by cluster of bursts of breakdown in a short time period?
Random burst
Asynchronous multiple burst
Continuous
Specific burst
Random burst
Which of the following substances specifically kills neutrophils?
Leukotoxin
Endotoxin
Ammonia
Sulfur
Leukotoxin
All of the following substances released by bacteria are considered toxic to host cells EXCEPT one. Which one is the exception?
Endotoxin
Leukotoxin
Histamine
Exotoxin
Hyaluronidase
Histamine
The host (body) interacts with microorganisms in the pocket via the
saliva.
crevicular fluid.
gingival epithelium.
gingival connective tissue.
crevicular fluid.
Which of the following tissue structures acts as a protective barrier for the passage of antigenic substances?
Gingival connective tissue
Alveolar bone
Junctional epithelium
Hemidesmosomes
Junctional epithelium
The definition of phagocytosis is
eat and digest.
squish and swallow.
enzymatic degradation.
chemical degradation.
eat and digest.
Which of the following substances is a type of cytokine?
Collagenase
Proteinase
Hyaluronidase
Interleukin-1
Gelatinase
Interleukin-1
Which of the following substances “coat” the bacteria to aid in phagocytosis?
Opsonins
Cytokines
Collagenases
Elastases
Opsonins
Which of the following immunoglobulins is found in the saliva?
IgA
IgG
IgM
IgD
IgE
IgA
Which of the following cells predominate in the body’s response to periodontitis?
T-lymphocytes
B-lymphocytes
Neutrophils
Macrophages
B-lymphocytes
Which of the following systems is activated by the antigen (bacteria)/antibody complex?
Phagocytosis
Opsonization
Complement
Humoral
Complement
Which of the following substances/cells are involved in bone destruction?
B-cells
histamines
macrophages
neutrophils
Histamines
Which of the following substances is released from mast cells and causes vasodilation seen in acute inflammation?
gingival crevicular fluid
histamine
cytokine
ammonia
histamine
Clinically, vasodilation is seen as
edema.
fibrosis.
blunted papillae.
destruction of the col.
edema.
From the tissues, antigenic substances are carried to the
local blood vessels.
local lymph nodes.
junctional epithelium.
lamina propria.
local lymph nodes.
Which of the following substances regulates the activity of different cells in the inflammatory/immune response?
histamine
bradykinin
cytokine
crevicular fluid
cytokine
Which of the following factors is contributory for periodontal diseases?
Cigarette smoking
Diabetes mellitus
Dental biofilms
Tooth anatomy
Tooth anatomy
Which of the following statements is related to palatogingival grooves?
They can cause a narrow deep pocket.
They are easy to eliminate.
They present no problems.
They increase the chances of furcation involvement.
They can cause a narrow deep pocket.
Which of the following injuries to the periodontium is considered to be chemical?
Toothbrush trauma
Nail scratching
Aspirin tablets
Food impaction
Overhanging restoration
Aspirin tablets
Proximal furcation involvement on maxillary molars presents with more problems than buccal furcation in-volvement because of limited access to proximal surfaces.
Both statement and reason are correct.
Both statement and reason are incorrect.
The statement is correct, but the reason is incorrect.
The statement is incorrect, but the reason is correct.
Both statement and reason are correct.
Calculus is a contributing factor for the initiation and progression of the periodontal diseases because calculus has a solid surface structure on which plaque will accumulate.
Both statement and reason are correct.
Both statement and reason are incorrect.
The statement is correct, but the reason is incorrect.
The statement is incorrect, but the reason is correct
The statement is correct, but the reason is incorrect.
On which of the following teeth is a palatogingival groove most commonly seen?
Maxillary canine
Maxillary lateral incisor
Mandibular central incisor
Mandibular canine
Mandibular first molar
Maxillary lateral incisor
Radiographic evaluation of calculus is an effective diagnostic method because what is seen on the radiograph is usually what is present clinically.
Both statement and reason are correct.
Both statement and reason are incorrect.
The statement is correct, but the reason is incorrect.
The statement is incorrect, but the reason is correct.
Both statement and reason are incorrect.
All of the following are reasons for orthodontic appliances being a contributing factor for the periodontal dis-ease EXCEPT one. Which one is the exception?
Limited access for oral hygiene
Uneven wires and brackets are plaque retentive
Bands on molar are plaque retentive
Appliance causes chemical injury to the gingival
Appliance causes chemical injury to the gingival
All of the following are modes of attachment of calculus to the tooth surface EXCEPT one. Which one is the exception?
Mechanical locking
Chemical locking
Penetration into bacteria
Organic pellicle
Chemical locking
Which of the following reasons explains why subgingival calculus is usually black?
Supragingival saliva
Crevicular fluid
Subgingival enzymes
Salivary crystals
Crevicular fluid
Which of the following statements describes what calcified plaque is?
Calculus
Subgingival biofilm
Enamel pearls
Cervical enamel projection
Calculus
Which of the following factors is the most significant dentally related local factor strongly associated with an increased probability of developing periodontal diseases?
Presence of gingivitis
Presence of established periodontal disease
Whether patient is right or left handed
Number of bleeding sites
Presence of established periodontal disease
Which of the following contributory factors is important for the accumulation of dental biofilms?
Anatomic
Chemical
Traumatic
Irritational
Anatomic
Which of the following conditions may occur in a dentition with uneven marginal ridges?
Food impaction
Tooth mobility
Furcation involvement
Pulpitis
Food impaction
All of the following are intrinsic tooth stains EXCEPT one. Which one is the exception?
Nonvital pulp
Chlorhexidine
Tetracycline
Decalcification
Fluorosis
Chlorhexidine
Which of the following contributing factors can cause gingival recession?
Tongue ring
Xerostomia
Phenytoin
Nifedipine
Tongue ring
Which of the following statements about calculus attachment to dental implants versus natural tooth structure is true?
There is greater attachment to an implant surface.
There is more superficial attachment to an implant surface.
There is more complicated attachment to an implant surface.
The attachment to an implant surface is similar to attachment to a natural tooth surface.
There is more superficial attachment to an implant surface.
Which of the following features is characteristic of dental calculus?
It contains more than 500 bacterial species.
It is calcified bacterial plaque.
It contains specific species of fungi.
It is hypomineralized bacterial plaque.
It is calcified bacterial plaque.
All of the following are local contributing factors for periodontal diseases EXCEPT one. Which one is the ex-ception?
Oral piercing
Dental calculus
Toothbrush trauma
Bacterial plaque
Bacterial plaque
Which of the following substances is found in high amounts in calculus?
Fluoride
Silica
Hydroxyapatite
Tricalcium phosphate
Hydroxyapatite
All of the following are systemic conditions that can cause an increased predisposition to periodontal diseases EXCEPT one. Which one is the exception?
Diabetes mellitus
Vitamin A deficiency
AIDS
Neutropenia
Stress
Vitamin A deficiency
Which of the following conditions can develop in patients receiving chemotherapy and bisphosphonates for more than three years?
Bacteremia
Osteonecrosis of the jaw
Infective endocarditis
Kidney failure
Osteonecrosis of the jaw
Which of the following statements explains the reason stress increases the susceptibility to periodontal infec-tions?
Increased red blood cells
Reduced host immune response
Decreased neutrophil chemotaxis
Decreased production of steroids
Reduced host immune response
Which of the following mechanisms is affected by cigarette smoke, thus increasing the susceptibility to peri-odontal diseases?
Altered PMN function
Altered monocyte function
Decreased lymphocytes
Decreased plasma cells
Decreased esosinophils
Altered PMN function
All of the following medications may cause an exaggerated response to plaque EXCEPT one. Which one is the exception?
Phenytoin
Nifedipine
Cyclosporine
Aspirin
Aspirin
Which of the following adverse effects can occur when taking a diuretic?
Xerostomia
Hepatitis
Pancreatitis
Osteonecrosis of the jaws
Xerostomia
Periodontal diseases are possible risk factors for all of the following conditions EXCEPT one. Which one is the exception?
Emphysema
Bronchitis
Atherosclerosis
Hepatitis
Diabetes mellitus
Hepatitis
Pregnant women with periodontal disease may have a preterm delivery because of elevated levels of
glucose.
thyroid hormone.
prostaglandin E2.
liver enzyme
sodium and chloride.
prostaglandin E2.
Which of the following factors is related to periodontal destruction in smokers?
Increase in number of periodontal pathogens
Decrease in healthy bacteria
Reduced vitamin C levels
Altered polymorphonuclear leukocyte function
Altered polymorphonuclear leukocyte function
Which of the following factors may increase the chance of developing respiratory disease in patients with peri-odontal diseases?
Alcohol intake
Inadequate plaque control
Increased carbohydrate diet
Increased fatty diet
Inadequate plaque control
The Parameter of Care (Academy of Periodontology) suggests that the initial therapy for patients with periodontal inflammation should include the elimination, alteration, or control of risk factors because periodontal diseases are infections and may have several associated risk factors.
Both statement and reason are correct.
Both statement and reason are incorrect.
The statement is correct, but the reason is incorrect.
The statement is incorrect, but the reason is correct.
The statement is incorrect, but the reason is correct.
Which of the following respiratory diseases has been studied in relationship to periodontal diseases?
Pneumonia
Viral infection
Postnasal drip
Nasal congestion
Pneumonia
Which of the following substances is the major factor in developing respiratory diseases in patients with peri-odontal disease?
Saliva
Nicotine
Neutrophils
Bacteria
Bacteria
Which of the following substances is measured to determine genetic susceptibility to periodontal diseases?
Neutrophil
Plasma cell
Interleukin-1
Collagenase
Elastase
Interleukin-1
All of the following congenital diseases have periodontal manifestations EXCEPT one. Which one is the exception?
Papillon-Lefévre syndrome
Chediak-Higashi disease
Autism
Hypophosphatasia
Cyclic neutropenia
Autism
For which of the following medical/dental conditions is a bisphosphonate indicated?
Multiple myeloma
Type 2 diabetes mellitus
Stomach ulcers
Periodontal abscess
Multiple myeloma
Which of the following cells are inhibited by bisphosphonates?
Osteoblasts
Osteoclasts
Fibroblasts
Neutrophils
Osteoclasts
There is much concern when a bisphosphonate is taken:
Intramuscularly
Orally
Topically
Intravenously
Intravenously
Which of the following features is prominent in osteonecrosis of the jaws (ONJ)?
Necrotic bone
Fistula (sinus tract)
Bleeding
Edematous gingival
Necrotic bone
Which of the following features is characteristic of bisphosphonates?
Osteoblast inhibitor
Binds to soft tissue
Short half-life
Long half-life
Long half-life
Which of the following bacteria has been implicated in pregnancy gingivitis?
Prevotella intermedia
Porphyromonas gingivalis
Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans
Streptococcus mutans
Prevotella intermedia
All of the following conditions are classified (AAP Classification 1999) as gingival diseases EXCEPT one. Which one is the exception?
Malnutrition
Allergic reactions
Lupus erythematosus
Physical injury
Pericoronal abscess
Pericoronal abscess
Gingivitis is a disease affecting the soft tissues because the inflammatory infiltrate is confined to the gingival.
Both statement and reason are correct.
Both statement and reason are incorrect.
The statement is correct, but the reason is incorrect.
The statement is incorrect, but the reason is correct
Both statement and reason are correct.
All of the following are local factors associated with gingival diseases EXCEPT one. Which one is the exception?
Medications
Dental restorative materials
Systemic diseases
Occlusal trauma
Fungal infections
Occlusal trauma
Which of the following terms describes the gingival condition of a patient taking nifedipine?
Loss of attachment
Gingival enlargement
Bone loss
A periodontal pocket
Gingival enlargement
Which of the following viral diseases is listed as gingival disease of viral origin?
Primary herpetic gingivostomatitis
Hereditary gingival fibromatosis
Pemphigoid
Pemphigus vulgaris
Linear gingival erythema
Primary herpetic gingivostomatitis
All of the following classifications are listed as gingival diseases modified by medications EXCEPT one. Which one is the exception?
Gingival enlargements
Oral contraceptive-associated gingivitis
Drug-influenced gingivitis
Recurrent oral herpes
Recurrent oral herpes
Which of the following statements describes a gingival pocket?
Sometimes referred to as a periodontal pocket
Bone loss is present
Gingival enlargement
Attachment loss is present
Gingival enlargement
Which of the following is TRUE about the host response to gingival inflammation?
First response is an acute vasodilation
Migration of lymphocytes
Increased number of fibroblasts
Decreased movement of immune cellsGingival Diseases
First response is an acute vasodilation
Vascular changes during gingivitis occur in the
oral epithelium.
sulcular epithelium.
lamina propria.
lamina dura.
periodontal ligament.
lamina propria.
Which of the following risk factors is primarily associated with gingivitis?
Dental biofilms
Dental calculus
Systemic medication
Viral diseases
Fungal diseases
Dental biofilms
All of the following statements are true concerning diabetes mellitus EXCEPT one. Which one is the exception?
It presents an important risk factor for gingivitis.
It presents an important risk factor for periodontitis.
It results in viral infections.
It results in hypoglycemia.
It alters wound healing.
It results in hypoglycemia.
Which of the following microorganisms is associated with puberty gingivitis?
Prevotella intermedia
Porphyromonas gingivalis
Streptococcus mutans
Treponema denticola
Staphylococcus aureus
Prevotella intermedia
Which of the following terms is used to describe a gingival condition that is of long duration to only a few anterior teeth?
Acute, localized
Acute, generalized
Chronic, localized
Chronic, generalized
Chronic, localized
In which stage of gingival inflammation is bleeding on probing seen?
Initial stage
Early stage
Established stage
Advanced stage
Early
In which of the following lesions does clinical gingivitis first appear?
Initial
Early
Established
Advanced
Established
The inflammatory cells involved in the host’s response come from
blood vessels in the connective tissue.
lymph nodes in the tissue.
alveolar bone.
periodontal ligament.
cementum.
blood vessels in the connective tissue.
In which of the following stages is the B-cell found?
Initial and early
Early and established
Established and advanced
Initial and advanced
Early and advanced
Established and advanced
What percentage of collagen is lost in the connective tissue during the early lesion?
10–20
30–40
50–60
60–70
70–80
60–70
Which of the following cells make up the protective wall between the plaque mass and the junctional epithelium?
Neutrophils
Plasma cells
B-lymphocytes
T-lymphocytes
Neutrophils
What causes Acute Inflammation?
Antigen such as bacteria in dental plaque
What causes Chronic Inflammation?
Unresolved acute inflammation
continued presence of antigens
Cells involved in Acute Inflammation?
PMNs
Mononuclear cells (Macrophages)
Cells involved in Chronic Inflammation?
Monocytes
Macrophages
Lymphocytes
Plasma Cells
What substances are released from the cells that causes the signs and symptoms of Acute Inflammation?
Vasoactive amines such as histamines and bradykinin
What substances are released from the cells that causes the signs and symptoms of Chronic Inflammation?
Cytokines, growth factors, reactive oxygen species, hydrolytic enzymes
When does the inflammatory response first appear in Acute Inflammation?
Immediate onset
When does the inflammatory response first appear in Chronic Inflammation?
Delayed Onset
How long does the inflammatory response last in Acute Inflammation?
Several days
How long does the inflammatory response last in Chronic Inflammation?
Long time (Months to years)
After the response is over, what happens to the tissues in Acute Inflammation?
Healing occurs if the inflammation is resolved.
After the response is over, what happens to the tissues in Chronic Inflammation?
Tissue destruction
Phases of the Inflammatory Process:

Acute Transient Phase
Features of the Inflammatory Process:

Local vasodilation and increased capillary permeability
Phases of the Inflammatory Process:

Delayed Subacute Phase
Features of the Inflammatory Process:

Migration of PMNs and other phagocytic cells into the tissues
Phases of the Inflammatory Process:

Chronic Phase
Features of the Inflammatory Process:

Tissue Destruction
Common Enzymes that Break Down Periodontal Fibers?
Collagenase
Hyaluronidase
Chondrotin Sulfatase
Proteases
Elasteses
Health-Associated Bacterial Characteristics:
Gram positive
Aerobic
Nonmotile
Saccharolytic
Disease-Associated Bacterial Characteristics:
Gram-negative
Anaerobic
Motile
Assaccharolytic
Bacteria in Perio:
Strong Evidence for Etiology:

Aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomitans (Aa)
Primary Association:

Aggressive Perio
Chronic Perio
Refractory Perio
Bacteria in Perio:
Strong Evidence for Etiology:

Porphyromonas gingivalis
Primary Association:

Chronic Perio
Bacteria in Perio:
Strong Evidence for Etiology:

Tannerella forsythensis
Primary Association:

Chronic Perio
Bacteria in Perio:
Moderate Evidence for Etiology:

Campylobacter rectus
Primary Association:

Aggressive Perio
Refractory Perio
Bacteria in Perio:
Moderate Evidence for Etiology:

Eikenella corrodens
Primary Association:

Chronic Perio
Bacteria in Perio:
Moderate Evidence for Etiology:

Fusobacterium nucleatum
Primary Association:

Chronic Perio
Bacteria in Perio:
Moderate Evidence for Etiology:

Prevotella intermedia
Primary Association:

Pregnancy gingivitis
Puberty gingivitis
NUP diseases
Bacteria in Perio:
Moderate Evidence for Etiology:

Peptostreptococcus micros
Primary Association:

Refractory Perio
Bacteria in Perio:
Moderate Evidence for Etiology:

Capnocytophaga species
Primary Association:

Aggressive Localized Perio
Bacteria in Perio:
Moderate Evidence for Etiology:

Treponema denticola
Primary Association:

Chronic Perio
NUP Diseases
Bacteria in Perio:
Moderate Evidence for Etiology:

Streptococcus intermedius-complex
Primary Association:

Gingivitis
Bacteria in Perio:
Moderate Evidence for Etiology:

Actinomyces species
Primary Association:

Gingivitis
Bacteria in Perio:
Moderate Evidence for Etiology:

Fubobacterium species
Primary Association:

Gingivitis
Gram Positive Faculative Cocci:
Steptococcus sanguis, mitis, and salivarius
Gram Positive Anaerobic Cocci:
Peptostreptococcus micros
Gram-Positive Facultative Rods:
Actinomyces viscosus, israelii, and naeslundii

Corynebacterium matruchotii
Gram-Positive Obligate Anaerobic Rods:
Eubacterium lentum
Yeasts:
Candida albicans
Gram-Negative Facultative Rods
Eikenella corrodens
Capnocytophaga ochracea
Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans
Gram-Negative Obligate Anaerobic Rods:
Porphyromaonas gingivalis
Prevotella intermedia
Tannerella forsythensis
Fusobacterium nucleatum
Gram-Negative Obligate Anaerobic cocci:
Veillonella alcalescens
Gram-Negative Anaerobic Spirochetes:
Treponema denticola
Which of the following diseases has host cell abnormalities?
a. Chronic periodontitis
b. Localized aggressive periodontitis
c. Necrotizing ulcerative periodontitis
d. Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis
Localized aggressive periodontitis
High numbers of Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans are found in
a. generalized chronic periodontitis.
b. localized chronic periodontitis.
c. generalized severe gingivitis.
d. localized aggressive periodontitis.
e. necrotizing ulcerative periodontitis.
localized aggressive periodontitis.
Which of the following terms describes periodontal disease that was previously treated, but did not respond favorably?
a. Recurrent
b. Refractory
c. Aggressive
d. Chronic
e. Acute
Refractory
Which of the following events occurs first during the development of a periodontal pocket?
a. Alveolar and supporting bone loss
b. Destruction of periodontal ligament fibers
c. Destruction of gingival connective tissue
d. Apical migration of the junctional epithelium
Destruction of gingival connective tissue
The surface cementum is rough because of the detachment of the previously inserting connective tissue.
a. Both statement and reason are correct.
b. Both statement and reason are incorrect.
c. The statement is correct, but the reason is incorrect.
d. The statement is incorrect, but the reason is correct.
Both statement and reason are correct.
Vertical or angular bone loss occurs when the inflammation travels directly from the gingival into the
a. cementum.
b. periodontal ligament.
c. enamel.
d. bone.
periodontal ligament.
Which of the following is the main mechanism of alveolar and supporting bone resorption?
a. Prostaglandin
b. Hyaluronidase
c. Collagenase
d. Exotoxin
Prostaglandin
The inflammatory infiltrate usually spreads from the gingival through the lamina propria into the bone following the
a. periodontal ligament.
b. lamina dura.
c. nutrient canals.
d. vascular pathway.
vascular pathway.
Which of the following classifications is a three-wall bony defect?
a. Horizontal bone loss
b. Vertical bone loss
c. Fenestration
d. Dehiscence
Vertical bone loss
What is the relationship of the base of a suprabony pocket to the crest of bone?
a. Apical
b. Coronal
c. Lateral
d. Subgingival
Coronal
Which of the following types of infrabony defects occurs when two bony walls are intact?
a. Crater
b. Hemiseptum
c. Horizontal
d. Circumferential
Crater
Which of the following structures is considered to be the base of a pocket?
a. Junctional epithelium
b. Oral epithelium
c. Sulculuar epithelium
d. Crest of alveolar bone
Junctional epithelium
The extension of the inflammatory infiltrate from the connective tissue to the interdental alveolar bone is by way of the
a. collagen fibers.
b. blood vessels.
c. collagen bundles.
d. principal fibers.
blood vessels.
All of the following descriptions relate to a one-wall bony defect EXCEPT one. Which one is the exception?
a. One bony wall remains
b. One bony wall is destroyed
c. Can be a hemiseptum
d. Is a type of vertical defect
One bony wall is destroyed
Which of the following pockets is associated with a horizontal pattern of bone loss?
a. Gingival sulcus
b. Gingival pocket
c. Infrabony
d. Suprabony
e. Intrabony
Suprabony
With which of the following histopathologic lesions will a patient experience bone loss?
a. Initial
b. Early
c. Established
d. Advanced
Advanced
Which of the following parts of the junctional epithelium migrates apically during the advanced lesions?
a. Coronal
b. Middle third
c. Middle half
d. Apical
Apical
Which of the following statements is true regarding the down growth of accumulating plaque?
a. Oral epithelium begins to get ulcerations.
b. Alveolar and supporting bone begins to resorb.
c. Gingival crevice migrates coronally.
d. Junctional epithelium migrates.
Gingival crevice migrates coronally.
Which of the following occurs for a periodontal pocket to develop?
a. Crestal bone loss
b. Interproximal bone loss
c. Apical migration of the junctional epithelium
d. Ulcerations of the sulcular epithelium
Apical migration of the junctional epithelium
In which of the following lesions does attachment loss occur?
a. Early
b. Initial
c. Established
d. Advanced
Advanced
Which of the following microorganisms is associated with the pathogenesis of NUG?
a. Spirochetes
b. Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans
c. Streptococcus mutans
d. Porphyromonas gingivalis
Spirochetes
Which of the following symptoms is always seen in patients with NUG?
a. Fetid odor
b. Deep pockets
c. Abscesses
d. Nausea
e. Pain
Pain
Clinical features of necrotizing periodontal diseases may be the first sign of
a. malnutrition.
b. hepatitis infection.
c. HIV infection.
d. diabetes mellitus.
e. kidney failure.
HIV infection.
Which of the following terms describes the grayish slough found on the gingival tissue in NUG?
a. Pseudomembrane
b. Necrosis
c. Ulceration
d. Abscess
Pseudomembrane
Which of the following statements is TRUE about NUG?
a. Term can be used interchangeably with ANUG (acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis)
b. Usually resolves within a few days after treatment
c. Associated with alveolar bone loss
d. Associated with periodontal abscesses
Usually resolves within a few days after treatment
Which of the following parts of the periodontium does NUG affect?
a. Enamel
b. Cementum
c. Interdental gingival
d. Alveolar bone
e. Alveolar mucosa
Interdental gingival
Which of the following is a microbial feature associated with the gingival lesion of NUG?
a. Degenerative changes in Prevotella intermedia
b. Infiltration of the gingival by spirochetes
c. Abscesses caused by Fusobacterium sp.
d. Penetration into the bone by Treponema
Infiltration of the gingival by spirochetes
All of the following are predisposing factors for the development and progression of necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis EXCEPT one. Which one is the exception?
a. Stress
b. Trauma
c. Smoking
d. Malnutrition
e. Osteoporosis
Osteoporosis
Which of the following describes the shape of the papillae seen in NUG?
a. Rounded off
b. Punched out
c. Blunted
d. Bulbous
Punched out
Which of the following criteria must all be present to make a diagnosis of NUG?
a. Bleeding, fetid oral odor, lymphadenopathy
b. Fetid oral odor, pain, lymphadenopathy
c. Interdental papillae necrosis, pain
d. Interdental papillae necrosis, pain, bleeding
e. Interdental papillae necrosis, fetid oral odor, bleeding
Interdental papillae necrosis, pain, bleeding
Which of the following signs/symptoms of NUG is an infrequent finding?
a. Pain
b. Bleeding
c. Lymphadenopathy
d. Interdental papillae necrosis
Lymphadenopathy
Necrotizing periodontal diseases are listed as a separate classification because they are unique in their clinical presentation and course and are clinically identifiable.
a. Both statement and reason are correct.
b. Both statement and reason are incorrect.
c. The statement is correct, but the reason is incorrect.
d. The statement is incorrect, but the reason is correct.
Both statement and reason are correct.
Which of the following conditions is a differential diagnosis of NUG?
a. Primary herpetic gingivostomatitis
b. Gingival abscess
c. Pericoronitis
d. Aphthous ulcers
Primary herpetic gingivostomatitis
Which of the following host cells have been found to be decreased in NUG?
a. Mast cells
b. Plasma cells
c. Lymphocytes
d. Polymorphonuclear leukocytes
e. Macrophages
Polymorphonuclear leukocytes
All of the following are features of NUG EXCEPT one. Which one is the exception?
a. Necrosis of the papillae
b. Bone loss
c. Erythema of the free gingival
d. Bleeding
Bone loss
How long after treatment of NUG do signs and symptoms usually resolve?
a. Few days
b. Three weeks
c. One month
d. Five months
Few days
Which of the following signs/symptoms is not always present in NUG?
a. Bleeding
b. Pain
c. Fetid odor
d. Ulcerated papillae
Fetid odor
In which of the following types of patients does NUG usually occur?
a. 70-year-old male
b. 52-year-old female
c. 19-year-old student
d. 5-year-old toddler
19-year-old student
Which of the following features is evident in NUP?
a. White plaque-like lesion on gingival
b. Alveolar bone loss
c. Purulent exudates
d. Occlusal trauma
Alveolar bone loss
The older term for NUG was:
a. Smoker’s mouth
b. Trench mouth
c. Smoker’s gingivitis
d. Bacterial gingivitis
Trench mouth
All of the following are examples of primary occlusal trauma EXCEPT one. Which one is the exception?
a. A restoration that is "high" in occlusion
b. Trauma (ex. blow) to the teeth
c. Orthodontic movement of tooth
d. Insufficient bone support
Insufficient bone support
A patient had an amalgam restoration placed on the mandibular molar two days ago. The patient reports to the dental office and complains of pain on that tooth. Which of the following procedures should be done to determine the origin of the pain?
a. Check occlusion with articulating paper
b. Probe that tooth and adjacent teeth
c. Place a sealant on top of the amalgam
d. Apply high concentration of fluoride to the tooth
Check occlusion with articulating paper
Which of the following conditions is seen on a tooth that is in traumatic occlusion?
a. Abrasion
b. Erosion
c. Extrusion
d. Wear facet
Wear facet
Which of the following activities is considered to be parafunctional?
a. Thumb sucking
b. Eating an ice pop
c. Drinking soda from a straw
d. Frequent swallowing
Thumb sucking
All of the following structures are affected by occlusal trauma EXCEPT one. Which one is the exception?
a. Alveolar bone
b. Periodontal ligament
c. Attached gingival
d. Cementum
Attached gingival
Which of the following is the most common sign of occlusal trauma?
a. Pain
b. Sensitivity
c. Cracked tooth
d. Gingival inflammation
e. Increasing mobility
Increasing mobility
Of which of the following conditions is pathologic tooth migration indicative?
a. Nonvital tooth
b. Severe periodontitis
c. Dentinal hypersensitivity
d. Daytime bruxism
Severe periodontitis
Occlusal trauma alone does not cause gingivitis or periodontitis because the junctional epithelium is not affected by occlusal trauma.
a. Both statement and reason are correct.
b. Both statement and reason are incorrect.
c. The statement is correct, but the reason is incorrect.
d. The statement is incorrect, but the reason is correct
Both statement and reason are correct.
Which of the following radiographic findings are seen in occlusal trauma?
a. Infrabony pockets
b. Vertical bone loss
c. Horizontal bone loss
d. Suprabony pockets
Vertical bone loss
The objective of occlusal therapy is to
a. control the direction, magnitude, and frequency of excessive occlusal forces.
b. change the direction of the excessive occlusal forces so that the force is directed axially.
c. eliminate all forces on the tooth or teeth.
d. modify occlusal forces to be directed toward the gingival
control the direction, magnitude, and frequency of excessive occlusal forces.
Which of the following is an objective for splinting teeth?
a. To increase esthetics of the teeth
b. To increase effectiveness of plaque control
c. To reduce discomfort for the patient
d. To aid in healing of gingival pockets
To reduce discomfort for the patient
Which of the following is a goal of selective grinding?
a. To eliminate premature contacts
b. To reduce tooth structure
c. To change the direction of occlusal forces
d. To increase occlusal loading
To eliminate premature contacts
Which of the following materials is used to make a night guard?
a. Orthodontic resin
b. Composite resin
c. Hard acrylic
d. Denture acrylic
Hard acrylic
All of the following outcomes of treatment of occlusal trauma are desirable EXCEPT one. Which one is the exception?
a. Elimination of fremitus
b. Prevention of further tooth migration
c. Stability of radiographic changes
d. Increased tooth mobility
Increased tooth mobility
Which of the following signs is indicative of inadequate resolution of occlusal trauma?
a. Progressive tooth mobility
b. Increased depth of periodontal pockets
c. Increased attachment loss
d. Presence of intrabony defects
Progressive tooth mobility
Which of the following features is a cause of secondary occlusal trauma?
a. Chewing forces on a tooth with advanced bone loss
b. Deep infrabony pockets extending beyond the mucogingival junction
c. Plaque-induced gingival pockets
d. Overhang on amalgam restoration
Chewing forces on a tooth with advanced bone loss
Early animal studies on occlusal trauma placed high restoration in order to reproduce
a. impaction forces.
b. jiggling forces.
c. normal occlusion.
d. adapted occlusion.
jiggling forces.
It is controversial whether inflammation and occlusal trauma are codestructive. Proponents of this codestructive theory say that in the presence of occlusal trauma, inflammation will be
a. slower.
b. accelerated.
c. unchanged.
d. initially slower, but then faster later.
accelerated.
All of the following are clinical features of occlusal trauma EXCEPT one. Which one is the exception?
a. Fremitus
b. Wear facet
c. Chipped teeth
d. Bleeding on probing
Bleeding on probing
Which of the following are treatment options for teeth in secondary occlusal trauma with shallow probing depths?
a. Splinting
b. Orthodontics
c. Apply fluoride varnish
d. Incision and drainage
Splinting
Which of the following microorganisms is highly associated with periodontal abscess and pus formation?
a. Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans
b. Porphyromonas gingivalis
c. Streptococcus mutans
d. Staphylococcus aureus
Porphyromonas gingivalis
Which of the following abscesses is the most common involving the periodontium?
a. Gingival
b. Periodontal
c. Pericoronal
d. Periapical
Periodontal
Which of the following is a factor that could cause the formation of a gingival abscess?
a. Toothbrushing
b. Poppy seeds
c. Drinking hot beverages
d. Overzealous flossing
Poppy seeds
All of the following statements are true about a periodontal abscess EXCEPT one. Which one is the exception?
a. It develops as a result of a bacterial infection.
b. It occurs as a result of calculus that obstructs sulcular drainage.
c. It can cause alveolar bone destruction.
d. It resolves spontaneously without treatment
It resolves spontaneously without treatment.
Which of the following features describes a gingival abscess?
a. Develops over a long period of time
b. Develops fairly rapidly
c. Usually ruptures on its own
d. Expands rapidly along the gingival margin
Develops fairly rapidly
Which of the following happens if an acute periodontal abscess is not treated?
a. Tooth will be lost
b. Reverts to a gingival abscess
c. Becomes a chronic abscess
d. Results in a pericoronal abscess
Becomes a chronic abscess
All of the following are features of a tooth with a gingival abscess EXCEPT one. Which one is the exception?
a. Severe periodontitis
b. Localized infection
c. Usually painful
d. Edematous tissue
Severe periodontitis
In which of the following conditions is trismus usually evident?
a. Periodontal abscess
b. Gingival abscess
c. Periapical abscess
d. Pericoronal abscess
Pericoronal abscess
Which of the following microorganisms is cultivated from pus of a tooth with a periodontal abscess?
a. Gram-negative anaerobic rods
b. Gram-negative facultative cocci
c. Gram-negative nonmotile cocci and rods
d. Gram-positive facultative aerobics
e. Gram-positive anaerobic rods
Gram-negative anaerobic rods
An operculum will disappear once the tooth is
a. orthodontically moved.
b. splinted to the adjacent tooth.
c. intruded into position.
d. extracted.
extracted.
All of the following signs and symptoms are present in a periodontal abscess EXCEPT one. Which one is the exception?
a. Suppuration
b. Swelling
c. Tooth looseness
d. Tooth extrusion
e. Tooth fracture
Tooth fracture
Which of the chief complaints is common for a developing periodontal abscess?
a. “I have pressure in my gums.”
b. “I feel the tooth is coming out.”
c. “I think my tooth feels big.”
d. “My gums are tight.”
“I have pressure in my gums.”
Which of the following statements is associated with a periodontal abscess?
a. Clinical features are similar to peri-implantitis.
b. Tooth intrusion is a common finding.
c. Microflora resembles that of chronic periodontitis lesions.
d. Suppuration comes from the occlusal surface of the tooth.
Microflora resembles that of chronic periodontitis lesions
Which of the following techniques will allow pus to be drained from the gingival crevice?
a. Use probe or curet to open pocket entrance
b. Brush area with a hard-bristled toothbrush
c. Application of cold gauze
d. Application of heated gutta percha point
Use probe or curet to open pocket entrance
A periodontal abscess is primarily composed of
a. bacteria, dental calculus.
b. bacteria, plasma cells, neutrophils.
c. bacteria, dead tissue, neutrophils.
d. dental calculus only
bacteria, dead tissue, neutrophils.
Which of the following treatments should be performed on a patient with a gingival abscess?
a. Extraction of offending tooth
b. Debridement of affected area
c. Periodontal surgery with regeneration
d. Endodontic therapy
Debridement of affected area
A radiograph showing a radiolucent area on lateral aspect of the tooth is most likely diagnosed as
a. an endodontic abscess.
b. periocoronitis.
c. a periodontal abscess.
d. a gingival abscess.
a periodontal abscess.
A periodontal abscess originates from the
a. pulp.
b. soft tissue wall of pocket.
c. root cementum.
d. dentin.
soft tissue wall of pocket.
Establishing drainage of a periodontal abscess may be difficult because the
a. pocket is occluded.
b. pocket is too shallow.
c. tooth is nonvital.
d. tooth is extruded.
pocket is occluded.
Which of the following treatments should initially be performed on a patient with a periodontal abscess?
a. Administering an antibiotic
b. Perform endodontic therapy
c. Periodontal debridement/periodontal surgery
d. Recommend antibacterial rinse
Periodontal debridement/periodontal surgery
Each of the following terms is used to describe the health or disease of the gingival tissues EXCEPT one. Which one is the exception?
a. Contour
b. Size
c. Consistency
d. Percussion
e. Surface texture
Percussion
Several factors affect the probing depths achieved when completing a periodontal chart. One of the limitations is presence of inflammation, which can result in a reading shallower than the actual probing depth.
a. Both statements are TRUE.
b. Both statements are FALSE.
c. The first statement is TRUE. The second statement is FALSE.
d. The first statement is FALSE. The second statement is TRUE.
Several factors affect the probing depths achieved when completing a periodontal chart. One of the limitations is presence of inflammation, which can result in a reading shallower than the actual probing depth.
a. Both statements are TRUE.
b. Both statements are FALSE.
c. The first statement is TRUE. The second statement is FALSE.
d. The first statement is FALSE. The second statement is TRUE.
Which of the following describes the presence of bleeding on probing?
a. Occurs when there is a disruption of the sulcular epithelium
b. Considered to be an indicator for disease activity
c. Determines the amount of attachment loss
d. Determines the amount of alveolar bone loss
Occurs when there is a disruption of the sulcular epithelium
The gingival landmark that is the entrance to the crevice is called
a. attached gingival.
b. free gingival.
c. marginal gingival.
d. gingival pocket.
marginal gingival.
Clinical attachment level is synonymous with clinical attachment loss because clinical attachment levels are determined by the measurement from the marginal gingival to the apical extent of the periodontal probe.
a. Both statement and reason are correct.
b. Both statement and reason are incorrect.
c. The statement is correct, but the reason is incorrect.
d. The statement is incorrect, but the reason is correct.
Both statement and reason are incorrect.
Suppuration is also referred to as
a. gingival bleeding.
b. purulent exudate.
c. dental plaque.
d. dental calculus.
e. dental biofilm.
purulent exudate.
Which of the following terms describes the movement of teeth due to the disruption of forces that normally maintain physiologic tooth position?
a. Tooth fremitus
b. Tooth mobility
c. Pathologic migration
d. Attachment loss
Pathologic migration
Which of the following terms describes the loss of interradicular bone?
a. Mucogingival defect
b. Furcation involvement
c. Attachment loss
d. Pathologic migration
Furcation involvement
Gingival (soft tissue) recession is measured according to the
a. position of the marginal gingival.
b. depth of the pockets.
c. level of the mucogingival junction.
d. level of the soft tissue attachment.
position of the marginal gingival.
All of the following are etiologic factors for gingival recession EXCEPT one. Which one is the exception?
a. Toothbrushing
b. Orthodontic movement
c. Oral habits
d. Occlusal trauma
e. Anatomic variations
Occlusal trauma
All of the following are causes of pathologic tooth mobility EXCEPT one. Which one is the exception?
a. Bone loss
b. Gingival recession
c. Occlusal trauma
d. Gingival inflammation
Gingival recession
Which of the following instruments is BEST for measuring the vertical component of bone loss in a furcation defect?
a. Nabers probe
b. Periodontal probe
c. 11/12 explorer
d. Curet
e. Scaler
Periodontal probe
Which of the following structures is used for measuring the clinical attachment level?
a. CEJ and free gingival margin
b. CEJ and apical extent of probe
c. Free gingival margin and apical extent of probe
d. Free gingival margin and mucogingival junction
CEJ and apical extent of probe
Which of the following structures is used for measuring the amount of gingival (soft tissue) recession?
a. CEJ and free gingival margin
b. CEJ and apical extent of probe
c. Free gingival margin and apical extent of probe
d. Free gingival margin and mucogingival junction
CEJ and free gingival margin
Before a periodontal site can be labeled as disease-active, there must be a change in clinical attachment level of
a. 1–2 mm.
b. 2–3 mm.
c. 3–4 mm.
d. 4–5 mm.
e. 5–7 mm.
2–3 mm.
The mesiofacial site on the maxillary left canine has a probing depth of 3 mm and 2 mm of soft tissue recession. The clinical attachment level (in mm) is
a. 1.
b. 2.
c. 3.
d. 4.
e. 5.
5.
In the above questions, the attachment loss (in mm) is
a. 1.
b. 2.
c. 3.
d. 4.
e. 5.
5.
The primary purpose of periodontal probing is to determine the extent of detachment of which of the following periodontal structures from the tooth surface?
a. Periodontal ligament fibers
b. Gingival fibers
c. Junctional epithelium
d. Sulcular epithelium
Junctional epithelium
Which of the following terms describes mobility of a tooth under function (e.g., chewing, lateral excersions)?
a. Tooth fremitus
b. Pathologic migration
c. Clinical attachment loss
d. Tooth mobility
Tooth fremitus
The periodontal probe is slightly angled when measuring the probing depth on interproximal surfaces of posterior teeth because of the
a. deeper pockets.
b. wider root surface.
c. col.
d. bone.
col.