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253 Cards in this Set

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What is the NT-pro-BNP assay

B-typenatriuretic peptide (BNP) is a prohormone secreted from atrial and ventricularmyocardial cells in response to increased plasma volume, vasoconstriction, andactivation of RAAS


- hormone released as result of of cells being stretched

What is the NT-pro-BNP assay most helpful for?

-Helpful with catsin determining benign vs pathologic murmurs


- **Useful in discerning if dyspneicpatient is due to primary respiratory disease or cardiac

Why is congenital heart disease important even though it only makes up <1% of cases

important to not breed animals with congenital heart disease and to no longer breed the pair of parents that created the affected offspring as well

what are the 3 most common congenital heart diseases of dogs

•Aortic stenosis (AS)


•Pulmonic stenosis (PS)


•Patent Ductus Arteriosus (PDA)

What is the most common congenital heart disease in cats?

•atrioventricular (AV) septal defects(including ventricular septal defect, atrial septal defect)


•AV valve dysplasia


•endocardial fibroelastosis


•PDA


•aortic stenosis


•Tetralogy of Fallot

What are the most common congenital heart diseases of large animals?

•cattle—ventricular septal defect, ectopicheart, and ventricular hypoplasia


•sheep—ventricular septaldefect


•pigs—tricuspid valvedysplasia, atrial septal defect, and subaortic stenosis


•horses—ventricular septaldefect, PDA, tetralogy of Fallot, and tricuspid atresia.

What breed of horse is particularly susceptible to congenital heart disease

Arabian horses

what are clinical signs of congenital heart disease

•Failure to grow


•Dyspnea


•Weakness


•Syncope


•Cyanosis


•Seizures


•Sudden death

what are causes of congenital heart disease

•Genetic


•Environmental


•Infectious


•Nutritional


•Drug related

What is PatentDuctus Arteriosus?

•Ductus arteriosus fails to close duringparturition


•Blood is shunted from systemiccirculation to the pulmonary artery


•Normally closes 12-14 hours after birth


•Left side volume overload

What is the best diagnostic tool for a PDA? what is treatment?

Echo


Tx: surgery to ligate vessel, good prognosis with surgery

what are Atrialand Ventricular Septal Defects

•Openings in septa allow right-to-leftshunting in fetus


•Openings fail to close properly


•Atrial septal defect shunts left to right= R side overload


•Ventricular septal defects shunt = left side overload and enlargement

How do you treat Atrialand Ventricular Septal Defects

surgical closure of the opening in the septa, treatment of CHF

what is pulmonary stenosis

•pulmonic valves are dysplastic ormalformed


-outflow tract from the right ventricleis narrowed


-increased ventricular systolic pressure


-rightventricular hypertrophy and right atrial enlargement.


-In severe cases cardiacoutput is limited during exercise

what are clinical signs of pulmonary stenosis

•Older than 1 year


•Syncope


•Tiring with exercise


•Right sided heart disease


•Jugular pulse


•Left base murmur

what is the best diagnostic tool for pulmonary stenosis and how do you treat?

dx: echo


tx: Balloon valvoplasty (stretch valve open), Valvulectomy or valvulotomy toopen the outflowtract, Medial management of CHF

what is aortic stenosis

•SAS = subaortic stenosis


•Thickening of endocardial tissue justbelow the aortic valve


•Obstruction to left ventricular outflow = left ventricular hypertrophy and aorticdilation


•May affect coronary artery circulation


•Severe disease can lead to left-sided CHFor sudden death

what are clinical signs of aortic stenosis

•Soft to moderate ejection murmur 4th left ICS


-Tiring with exertion


•Syncope


•Left CHF


•Sudden death

how do you treat aortic stenosis

•Restrict exercise


•Balloon catheter dilation


•Atenolol for pressures

what are the four Tetralogyof Fallot ?

-genetically transmitted heart malformation involving 4 heart defects:


1.PulmonicStenosis with


2.2° rightventricular hypertrophy


3.Subaortic VSD


4.Overridingaorta


•Combination results in right-to-leftshunting


•Deoxygenated blood from RV enters VSD andmixes with LV blood

what are clinical signs of tetralogy of fallot

•Failure to grow


•Hypoxemia / cyanosis


•Exercise intolerance; shortness of breath


•Weakness


•Syncope


•Seizures


•Sudden death


•Adverse response tosedatives/tranquilizers

What is treatment for tetralogy of fallot

•Surgical: Create a systemic to pulmonary shunt•Medical: Phlebotomy – keep PCV 62-68% and replacewith crystalloids, Cage rest, oxygen

what is persistent right aortic arch?

PRAA


•Persistence of the right 4th aortic arch


•Constricts the esophagus, so once pups begin eating solid food, they regurgitate (megaesophagus)

what are clinical signs of persistent right aortic arch and how is it diagnosed

-regurgitation of solid food at weaning


- aspiration pneumonia


- weight loss


-diagnosed with barium swallow or fluoroscopy

what is the sinoatrial (SA) node

pacemaker of the heart

what is the atrioventicular (AV) node

ventricular myocardium is electrically separated from atrial myocardium

what is the impulse conduction through the heart

-SA node in right atrium initiates impulse


-AV node


-downbundle of His; left and right branches


-thruventricular muscle via Purkinje fibers

how are myocardial cells connected

viaintercalated discs which allows rapid transmission of impulses throughout wholemyocardium

what are cardiac arrhythmias

•Deviations from the normal heart raterhythm or rhythms originating from abnormal locations


•May be no abnormal visible anatomicpathology

why do arrhythmias occur

1.Abnormalimpulse formation: ischemia, Hypocalcemia or hypercalcemia,Cardiomyopathy, Excess catecholamines, Reperfusion injury2.Abnormalimpulse conduction: Development of abnormal depolarizationpathways


**or both**

What are the different arrhythmias and what causes them?

•Increasedexcitability:tachycardia or extrasystole


•Reducedexcitability: bradicardia orasystole


•Conductiondisturbance: blocks to different degrees

when are arrhythmias an emergency?

•Depress cardiac output: circulatory collapse or heart failure


•Cardiac and non-cardiac disease


•Detect and treat underlying disease iscrucial

do arrhythmias always need to be treated? why?

•Depends upon hemodynamic status
•Weak peripheral pulse, pale mucousmembranes, prolonged crt
•Clinical signs
•Weakness, collapse, exercise intolerance
•Malignancy
•Dangerous heart rate, frequency
(treatment goal is to treat underlying disease)

how much do arrhythmias affect hemodynamics and decrease cerebral blood flow

8-75%

many arrhythmias can be asculted and confirmed by....

ECG/EKG

the sites of problems for arrhythmias are either


supraventricular (above the ventricles-atria)


ventricular

what are supraventricular arrhythmias?

•Supraventricular Arrhythmias


•Supraventricular tachycardia (SVT)


•Atrial premature contractions (APC)


•Atrial fibrillation (AF) “a-fib” (emergency)


QRScomplexes appear normal…..problemis with the p wave

what is supra ventricular tachycardia

- high HR exceeds 160-180in the dog


-p-qrs-t complexes are normal


-causes: fear, excitement, exercise, anemia, hyperthyroidism

what are atrial premature contractions (apcs)

-HR normal


- P wave occurs earlier than normal, impulse originates from other than SA node followed by normal QRS


- asymptomatic, may hear heart sound or palpate pulse deficit


- may progress to a fibb


-causes: LA enlargement, atrial disease, electrolyte imbalance, drug rx

what is atrial fibrillation?

•Occurs when there is no organized atrialcontraction


•Cardiac output declines


•No atrial push and rapid heart rate>180 bpm dog; >240 bpm cat


•Irregular rhythm


•No P waves – small fibrillatorywaves instead


•Causes: Enlarged hearts

what are the 3 signs an EKG is in a-fib

-tachycardia


- no p wave


- irregular rhythm

Clinical signs of a-fib

- weakness, syncope


- cat-dyspnea


- collapse


- rapid, irregular HR


***calcium channel blockers to treat***

what are ventricular arrhythmias

- ventricular tachycardia


- ventricular fibrillation


- impulse originates in the ventricles instead of the SA node of the atrium


-QRS waves are wide and bizarre andmay not be associated with the P-wave

what is ventricular tachycardia?

•Impulse originates from somewhere inventricle NOT in response to atrial impulse =ventricular premature contraction (VPC)


•Wave is wide and bizzare


•Can be isolated with relatively normal HR


•Can be in runs


•Decreased fill time=decreasedcardiac output


•May progress to ventricular fibrillation

what are clinical signs of v-tach

-weakness, collapse, syncope


- sudden death


- CHF

when do you treat v-tach

- > 25 vpc per min


- HR > 130 per min


- at-risk breed


- if clinical symptoms exist

what is ventricular fibrillation

•Complete lack of well-defined QRScomplexes


•Lack of heart sounds, blood pressure, andpulse = cardiac arrest

How do you treat v-fib

-electrical defibrillation


- IV amiodarone


- CPR


- low dose epinephrine

what are brady arrhythmias and which two are emergency situations?

•HR <60 bpm dog; < 160 bpm cat inclinic


•Emergency situation:Third degree AV block, Sick Sinus Syndrome

what is sick sinus syndrome?

•Degeneration of conduction system


•Sinus node dysfunction


•Characterized by episodes of bradycardia(sinus arrest, AVB)


•May be accompanied by short burst of SVT


•Marked bradycardia leads to syncope


•**High anesthetic risk


- pause between HR complexes

How do you treat bradycardias

pacemaker

what is 3rd degree av block

•Lack of relationship between Pwaves and QRS-T


•Pathology of AV node or Bundle of His


•QRS-T originate from ventricle


•Medium-high risk of sudden death


EKG: ventricular escape rhythm

what is a disease associated with 3rd degree av block

lyme disease (inflammation)

what makes up the upper respiratory tract

•Nasal cavity


•Sinuses


•Nasopharynx


•Larynx

what makes up the lower respiratory tract

•Trachea


•Bronchi


•Lungs


•Pleural cavity

what are some upper respiratory diseases

•Rhinitis


•Nasal tumors


•Epistaxis


•Sinusitis


•Tonsillitis


•Laryngitis


•Laryngeal paralysis

What is rhinitis

inflammation of the nasal cavity

what are some causes (etiology) of rhinitis

•Tooth root abscess


•Viruses


•Fungal:Aspergillus, Cryptococcus,Penicillin


•Parasites: mites


•Idiopathic inflammatoryrhinitis


•Inflammatory polyp(cats)


•Congenital abnormalities: cleft palate or primary ciliary dyskinesia


•Foreign body: plantmaterial, awns


•Allergicrhinitis


•*Neoplasia – lymphoma,adenocarcinoma


•Bacteria e.g. Bordetella

What are the viruses that cause rhinitis in cats and dogs most commonly

Feline: herpesvirus-I,calicivirus,chlamydia 90% rhinitis


canine: distemper

what are the two types of idiopathic rhinitis diseases

lymphocytic plasmacyticrhinitis and chronic rhinosinusitis

what happens with chronic rhinitis

turbinate destruction and erosion of the mucosa

what are the 3 types of nasal discharge and what are the terms used to define the sides it affects?

serous, mucoid, mucopurulent


unilateral, bilateral (both sides)

if you have acute, unilateral nasal discharge what is your immediate suspicion

foreign body

what are signs of chronic rhinitis

intermittent sneezing


nasal depigmentation

how do you diagnose rhinitis?

-history, clinical signs


- cult. and sens.: nasal sample, cytology


- anesthesia: nasopharygeal exam, rhinoscopy, rads, CT, MRI, biopsy


- nasal flush (foreign bodies, nasal plug)


- periodontal probing


- Secondary test: FeLV, FIV

how do you treat rhinitis

- treat underlying disease


- cleanse nares


- antimicorbials: if secondary bacteria infection


- occasionally topical vasoconstrictive drugs: phenylephrine, ephedrine, can be irritating

what are nasal tumors

•Can occur in nasal passages or sinuses ofdogs and cats of all ages


•Most are malignant (75-80%)


Etiology: Dog: squamous cell carcinoma &adenocarcinoma > sarcomas Cat: lymphoma

Possible causes of nasal tumors

- predisposition:docliocephalic dogs


- environmental exposure:tobacco


- indoor coal or kerosene heater


clinical signs of nasal tumors

- unilateral or bilateral nasal discharge


- sneezing, dypsnea, stertor, facial distortion, ocular discharge


- dyspnea if obstructed

more rostral tumors mean what

unilateral, unless there is erosion into the other side

more caudal tumors mean what

bilateral even if unilateral in location since nares converge in rear of nasal passages

how do you diagnose nasal tumor

-rads


- MRI & CT


- rhinoscopy


- nasopharyngoscopy


- biopsy and histopathy for definitive diagnosis

how do you treat nasal tumors

- radiation (tx of choice)


- surgery (no effective)


- chemotherapy (no effective by itself, good with radiation)


- supportive care (piroxicam-needs more study)

what does epistaxis mean?

bleeding from the nose

what are some causes of epistaxis?

- coagulopathys


- local: trauma, fungal, bacterial, tumor

what is sinusitis?

inflammation of the sinuses


- can be viral, bacterial, neoplasia


- can be caused by dental disease and tooth root abscess

what are clinical signs of sinusitis? what are diagnostic tools? treatment?

- tooth root abscess (swelling under eye) , unilateral nasal discharge


- rads, CT, dental exam, rhinoscopy, biopsy if mass


-dental will treat if tooth root abscess, antibiotics to help before procedure for comfort

what is tonsillitis? causes?clinical signs? diagnostic tool? treatment?

- inflammation of the tonsils


- infection, neoplasia


- anorexia, salivation, pain in mouth


- exam, history


- antibiotics, soft food, sucrulfate (to coat), pain meds

what is laryngitis? causes? signs? diagnosis?

-inflammation of the larynx (acute or chronic)


- allergies, aspiration, viruses, bacteria, chemical/smoke inhalation, excessive vocalization


- inflammation/irratation of larynx, voice change, inspiratory effort increased, laryngospasm from swelling and edema


- visualize tissue (anestetize patient), biopsy


- treat underlying cause, debulk (mass), tracheostomy, glucocorticoids

what is laryngeal paralysis?

Failure of laryngeal musculature toproperly open and close the arytenoid cartilages

what is GOLPP

geriatriconset laryngeal paralysis and polyneuropathy

what is laryngeal paralysis called in horses

roaring

Causes of lar par?

- genetic/hereditary, iatrogenic (surgery), idiopathic (most common), myasthenia gravis, neoplasia, poly neuropathy, trauma

what is the difference between lar par and GOLPP

GOLPP also has appendicular weakness, dysphagia due to generalized neuropathy

Treatment for larpar or GOLPP

- use harness, avoid heat/humidity, tranquilize, doxopin (in study), in emergency: intubate, tracheostomy, sedation, steroids, oxygen


- surgery for permanent treatment (tie back one side of arytenoid cartillages

what are some diseases of the lower respiratory tract?

- kennel cough


- canine influenza


- collapsing trachea


- feline asthma


- chronic bronchitis


- heartworm disease (dogs & cats)


- neoplasia


- infectious (fungal/viral)

what is infectious tracheobronchitis

- kennel cough


- highly contagious


- involves multiple infectious agents (virus, bacteria, fungal)


- predispostion: crowding, unsanitary conditions

what is the difference between the mild and severe form of infectious tracheobronchitis

- mild: accute onset of cough, fever, lethargy, inappetence not present, cough may last a week


- severe: immunocompromised and puppies or other resp dz, bronchopneumonia, coughing, distress, anorexia, fever, depression

what is the pathophysiology of infectious tracheobronchitis

- virus may be initial invader w/ secondary bacteria


- bordetella can attach and invade without co-infection, attach to cillia of bronchial epithelium and interfere with motility, also endotoxins and exotoxins


- CPIV: few signs


- CAV-2: mild, short acting

what are clinical signs of infectious tracheobronchitis?

- 4-10 days after exposure


- coughing, +/- nasal discharge, gag and retch


- anorexia, depression, fever


- cough may become chronic due to damaged epithelium


- bordetella organisms can persist 8-14 weeks

how do you diagnose and treat infectious tracheobronchitis?

- clinical signs/ history


- tracheal/ bronchial wash


- others: CBC, Rads, virus isolation, blood gas


- treat: mild (self limiting, give supportive care), severe (systemic antibiotics, nebulized antibiotics, supportive), other: anti-tussives, glucocorticoids (decrease inflammation), bronchodilators

with what form of infectious tracheobronchitis do you want to avoid cough suppressants?


the severe form, want a productive cough to remove bacteria and such


Canine influenza (CIV) (etiology, predisposition, transmission, pathophysiology)

Etiology: H3N8/H3N2


Predisposition: Worldwide, dogs, some crossover to cats/ferrets, young and older moreseverity, Crowding, immunosuppressive drugs


Transmission: aerosols, fomites, direct contact, occurs withinhours


Pathophysiology: Virus replicates exclusively inepithelial cells lining respiratory tract, can take weeks to resolve (chronic coug)



What percentage of dogs with respiratory disease where positive for H3N2?

11%

clinical signs of CIV

May be clinically normal


Severity variable, typically self-limiting and mild


Mild cough, anorexia, lethargy, sneezing,nasal discharge, +/- dyspnea


Low grade fever


Cough persists 10-14 days, dry,non-productive Persistence may indicate pneumonia(tachypnea, dyspnea, crackles)

What is the more severe strain of CIV

H3N2

CIV diagnosis and treatment

Diagnose: Sample from nasal, nasopharyngeal, ororopharyngeal , Lung tissue (necropsy), Acute and convalescent titers


Other: CBC: leukocytosis with left shift (pneumonia), +/- tracheal or bronchial wash, Rads
Treatment: supportive, nebulization and coupage, antibiotics (secondary infection), Antivirals, Corticosteroids (resp distress)Antitussives:disrupt cough cycle, NOT w/pneumonia

FelineInfluenza and Bordetella

•Cats can get Bordetella: Self-limiting in healthy patient, More severe in young or immunecompromised


•Cats can get CIV: H7N2 avian influenza outbreak right nowin NYC shelters, somewhat rare

Collapsing trachea

Etiology/Pathophysiology: Decreased glycoprotein andglycosaminoglycan (Lose firmness, Collapses during resp) Progressive


Clinical Signs: harsh, dry cough “goose honk”, Worse w/ excitement/exercise, heart disease


Diagnosis: Rads, Bronchoscopy, Fluoroscopy


Treatment: Symptomatic ( tranquilizers, O2, Glucocorticoids, Antitussives, Bronchodilators Surgical: External rings, Internal mesh stent

Feline asthma (predispostion and etiology)

Allergic bronchitis (type I)


Predispostion: Siamese; 1-11 years of age (5.5y)Etiology/Pathophysiology: IgE mediated hypersensitivity, eosinophil and mast cell involvement, inflammation,mucous hypersecretion, bronchoconstriction, smooth muscle spasm, vascularleakage, and airway remodeling

Feline asthma (signs, diagnosis, treatment)

Clinical Signs: intermittent or seasonal, acute respiratory distress, Coughing, dyspnea, wheeze tachypnea, inspiratoryrattle


Diagnosis: CBC: eosinophilia andhyperproteinemia, Rads (interstitial pattern, donuts,, hyperinflation / flattened diaphragm, heartworm, Baermann, NT-proBNP, Mycoplasma


Treatment: Acute (Terbutaline IV, Dexamethasone, O2, Albuterol) Chronic(prednisolone Bronchodilators, inhaled steroids)

what disease is a irreversible, slowly progressive inflammation of the bronchial mucosa, with coughing. Also can be initially infective as a bacteria or fungus, also sometimes associated with a foreign body

chronic bronchitis (K9)

what are clinical signs of chronic bronchitis

Cough worse with exercise, excitement, and uponwaking


Exercise intolerance


Increased effort for perceived level ofexertion +/- Concurrent obesity


+/- Concurrent heart murmurs


Crackles, wheezes, abdominal effort

what respiratory disease causes epithelial edema, mucosal thickening and metaplasia (loss of ciliated epithelium with replacement of cuboidal cells)

chronic broncitis (k9)

How do you diagnose chronic bronchitis

Diagnosis of exclusion*


Steroid trial


Rads: 3 view thorax: generalized increase in interstitial or peribronchialmarkings


Cult/cyto of bronchoalveolarlavage


Request Mycoplasma;not usually bacteria


Bronchoscopy


Echo: r/o heart dx, pulmonaryhypertension


HW test and fecal exam

Treatment for chronic bronchitis

•Remove triggers


•Corticosteroids


•Metered Dose Inhalers


•Oral ? Long-term


•Cough Suppressants


•Bronchodilators


•Weight loss

What are the 3 stages of feline heartworm disease

•Stage 1:immature wormsarrive in pulmonary arteries, cause acute parenchymal inflammatory reaction


•Stage 2:adult wormsstart to die, results in marked inflammatory response


•Final stage: permanentlung damage that usually involves type II alveolar cell hyperplasia and chronicrespiratory disease

in feline heartworm disease where does the worm reside

pulmonary artery

what is the usual worm burden in feline heartworm disease

1-4 worms

What disease is marked by pulmonaryvascular narrowing and tortuosity, thrombosis, and hypertension, smallnumber of worms which can lead to marked infarction, pulmonary edema,pneumonitis, and type II cellular proliferation

feline heartworm disease

clinical signs of feline heartworm disease

•Vomiting


•Cough, dyspnea


•Weight loss anorexia, lethargy


•Asymptomatic


•Acute presentation: Salivation, tachycardia, dyspnea, Hemoptysis*, cough, CNS signs, sudden death

How do you diagnose feline heartworm disease

Microfilaremia israre


Antigen: canmiss low worm burdens


Antibody:indicates infection, past exposure


Rads: enlarged pulmonary arteries, otherbased on severity


Echo: may see in RV or PA

How do you treat feline heartworm disease

supportive care and prevention methods adulticide is not recommended

what is the pathophysiology of caine heartworm disease

1.Pulmonaryhypertension and pneumonitis: inflammation ofendothelium,dilation and tortuosity of the pulmonary arteries, pulmonary thrombosis, interstitial and alveolar lung disease


2.Right-sidedheart failure: high worm burdens, some backup into right ventricle; interfere with valve


3.Hepaticand renal disease: worms can reside in caudalvena cava; cause deposition of Ab-Ag complexes in kidneys


4.Cavalsyndrome: Hemolysis, shock, hypotension

how do you diagnose canine heartworm disease

HWantigen test


Microfilariaexam


CBC: r/o concurrent anemia, may seeeosinophilia, basophilia, monocytosis


Chem: Increased globulins, azotemia


Thoracicrads: Cardiomegaly, Pulmonary arterial enlargement,tortuosity, Pulmonary edema, infiltrates, Right atrial or ventricular enlargement


Echo: “linear foreign body” in PA orright ventricle

What are the 4 classes of canine heartworm disease

Class 1: Dogs with either no clinical,radiographic or laboratory signs of disease, or very mild signs (cough)


Class 2: moderate heartworm disease consisting of clinicalsigns (coughing, fatigue, weight loss), but no heart failure


Class 3: Dogs with severe heartworm disease havea guarded prognosis


Class 4: Dogs with CavalSyndrome

what are the major clinical signs of class 3 heartworm disease

cardiac cachexia,constant fatigue, persistent cough, dyspnea


Right-sided CHF

should you treat dogs with class 4 heartworm disease

no, must have worms surgically removed

what does a heart with heartworms look like

Backwards D

PleuralEffusion

Build-up of fluid within the PLEURALSPACE

PulmonaryEDEMA

fluid within the lung interstitium

Empyema

purulent exudative fluid

Chylothorax

chylous fluid accumulates in pleural space

Transudate pleural effusion is marked by:

Mesothelial, macrophage


Portal hypertension, mass, hypoalbuminemia

Modified Transudate pleural effusion is marked by:

Mesothelial, macrophage


Rt side HF Mass

Exudative pleural effusion is marked by:

neutrophil


Inflammation, septic or non-septic; irritant: bile, urine, chyle, foreign body; mass

pulmonary edema

what do fungal radiographs show

Radiographs show a diffuse, nodularinterstitial pattern; lytic bone lesions

Blastomycosis

Clinical Forms: Primarypulmonary, Disseminated, Localcutaneous


Clinical Signs: more in dogs, Anorexia, depression, wt. loss, Fever, cough, dyspnea, Ocular and nasal discharge, Wound exudate, Lymphadenopathy


Not zoonotic but take precautions•Expensive; relapse common

Blastomycosis

Coccidioidomycosis

Clinical Signs: May appear weeks/years afterexposure, Mild cough, Anorexia, weight loss, Mild fever, Lameness and pain if bone involvement, +/- lymphadenopathy



Coccidioidomycosis

Histoplasmosis

Clinical Signs: 12-16 day incubation, GI disease as well ***, Cats: pulmonary signs, Dogs: GI signs - diarrhea


Associated with bird and bat droppings


prognosis poor for GI, good for pulmonary

Histoplasmosis

Cryptococcosis

Most common systemic fungal disease incats!


Organism grows in pigeon droppings


Clinical Signs: Nasal cavity/sinus disease, chronicdischarge, 25% CNS disease, Ocular lesions, Mild fever, malaise, weight loss,anorexia, Dogs: CNS, skin

Cryptococcosis

Aspergillosis

In decaying vegetation, compost


Predominantly nasal dz, Young to middle aged, Opportunistic, Chronic unilateral nasal discharge, Sneezing, stertor, pain


Common in German shep 1-7 yrs

Aspergillosis

pulmonary neoplasia

What is a highlycontagious systemic infection causedby an RNA virus


Transmitted: Aerosols, Mother to fetus


Clinical Signs: unvaccinated puppies, Fever, respiratory signs, hyperkeratosis of foot pads and nose(excess keratin)=hard pad, Vomiting and diarrhea, Enamel hypoplasia, Seizures: chewing gum, focal facialseizures

Canine distemper virus

Labile

Easily killed in environment and with disinfectants

What is a highlycontagious DNAvirus


Transmitted: feces (dog,vector, fomite) Shed up to 3 days before clinical signs and 3 weeks after recovery


Clinical signs: exhibited in 4-9 daysof exposure, replicates in lymphoid tissue, spreads to bloodstream, Attacks rapidly dividing cells, Destroys intestinal microvilli; bonemarrow cells

Parvovirus

canine parvovirus

what is an infectious canine hepatitis of dogs, wild canids andbears, DNA virus


Transmitted: Contact with infected urine,feces, saliva inenvironment, Virus replicates in tonsils and spreadsto lymph nodes, Continues via bloodstream to liver,kidney, spleen, eye

canine adenovirus

what disease has Clinical Signs that include, Subclinical infection, acute death, Fever, Hepatitis and necrosis, hepatic encephalopathy, seizures,ataxia, coagulopathy, DIC, icteric MM, serum,and urine, Can get pyelonephritis and chronic renaldisease, Can get uveitis and corneal edema

canine adenovirus

what is a Spirochete , passed via Ixodes tick


Clinical Signs: Fever, lethargy, Anorexia, Episodic lameness, Lymphadenopathy, Rash, Myocarditis, nephritis



Borreliosis (lyme disease)

what is a Gram negative intracellular rickettsialorganism, passed via Ixodes tick


Pathophysiology: bacteria binds to cell surface receptorsand is endocytosed into the cell, Inhibits neutrophil adherence andapoptosis


Clinical Signs: Fever, lethargy, inappetence, Lameness, joint effusion, Lymphadenopathy, hepatomegaly,splenomegaly

anaplasmosis

What disease is a monocytic form vector is Rhipicephalussanguineus,brown dog tick


Clinical Signs: Acute, Subclinical, and Chronic phases (Acute: Organisms multiply in spleen and liver; then to lungs, meninges, kidneys, Causes vasculitis Subclinical: not have any signs Chronic: bone marrow suppression, anemia, thrombocytopenia

Ehrlichiosis- granulocytic

what are the two different forms of ehrlishiosis granulocytic

1.E.ewingii: Amblyomma americanumtickvector ( Sudden fever, lethargy, anorexia, Lameness (polyarthritis) and musclestiffness)


2.E.equi: Ixodesdamminitickvector (Fever, debilitating lethargy, anorexia)

what is the disease Rickettsia rickettsia, Vector is Dermacentortick, Rhipicephalus


Pathophysiology: Replicate in vascular endothelial cause inflammation,necrosis, and increased vascular permeability


Clinical Signs: Fever, anorexia, deperession, Ocular discharge, Tachypnea, coughing, Vomiting, diarrhea, Muscle pain, CNS signs, Retinal hemorrhage, Scrotal edema, weight loss

Rocky mountain spotted fever

in what tick borne disease is the blood infectious

rocky mountain spotted fever

what vax was given to parvo dogs with the idea it would help prevent or make the disease less severe

panleuk vax

rocky mountain spotted fever

what disease is Feline “distemper”, DNA virus in Parvoviridae


Pathophysiology: virus replicatesin rapidly dividing cells (Neonatal brain, bone marrow, lymphoidtissue, intestinal lymphoid, Cells destroyed releasing largenumbers of virions)


Clinical Signs: Young, unvax cats, Fever, depression, anorexia, Vomiting, fetid diarrhea, Dehydration, Fetal death, abortion, resorption, Cerebellar hypoplasia*, retinal defects

panleukopenia

what disease is Feline viral rhinotracheitis(FVR), contagious upper resp disease with high morbidity, moderate mortality, transmitted via aerosol and directcontact


Clinical Signs: Acute onset sneezing, ulcerated nasal planum: Severe conjunctivitis,ulcers, Rhinitis withmucopurulent discharge, salivation, Fever, depression, anorexia,

FelineHerpesvirus

is FelineHerpes virus ever cured

no

what is an acute, highly contagious upperrespiratory tract disease with High morbidity, low mortality


Transmitted by direct contact


Clinical Signs: Fever, Serous ocular or nasal discharge, oral ulceration, salivation, Pneumonia, arthritis, diarrhea

Feline calicivirus

what medication does DR.A like with ulcers associated with feline calicivirus

sucralfate

what is Hemorrhagic calicivirus, Almost exclusively in group housed cats with 60% mortality that is Acute, severe systemic form, Acute respiratory disease, Vasculitis, Facial and limb edema, Skin ulcers, Organ failure, DIC Hemorrhagic Calicivirus

VirulentSystemic Calici

what is an enteric coronavirus , highlycontagious and spread through feces, urine, saliva


Transmitted: via inhalation oringestion, fomites, direct contact, Virus replicates in intestinalepithelium; enters macrophages and spreads systemically, extreme inflammation, Form granulomas in target organs (CNS,eyes, other)

Feline infectious peritonitis (FIP)

Clinical signs of the wet form of FIP include

WetForm (Effusive)


•Develops rapidly


•Ascites and pleural effusion secondary tovasculitis


•Anorexia, depression, weight loss


•Dehydration


•+/- fever

Clinical signs of the dry form of FIP include

DryForm (Non-effusive)


•More chronic


•Fever


•Anorexia, depression, weight loss


•Ocular lesions: uveitis, retinal lesions


•Neurologic lesions


•seizures

is FIP easy or difficult to diagnose and what is the prognosis

difficult, usually have to rule out other disease to determine


poor prognosis

what are the 2 treatment option for FIP

Supportive care: Centesis, Steroids – immune suppression, Antibiotics


Immunotherapy: Interferon, Polyprenyl Immunostimulant (PI), Experimental, good results for dryform (UT-CVM), Immunoregulin –non-specific immunostimulant

what is a Retrovirus causing major mortality incats due to immunosuppression, anemia, and neoplasia


Transmitted via contact with secretions, urine, feces, tears; fighting, grooming, fomites, in utero and duringnursing



Feline Leukemia Virus

What are the 3 possible sequelea of feline leukemia infection

1.Regressiveinfection: cat has transient viremia, then clears it


2.Progressiveinfection: persistent viremia (bone marrow), Anemia,immune suppression, enteritis


3.Activeinfection: exhibit clinical signs, Fever, lethargy, lymphadenopathy, bloodcell deficiencies

what is Retrovirus causing bone marrowsuppression and immunodeficiency, is lifelong


Transmitted: Saliva and bite wound



Feline immunodeficiency virus (FIV)

What are the 3 stage of FIV

Acute: Fever, lymphopenia, neutropenia,lymphadenopathy, GI or skin infection, Virus in T-cells, spreading to lymphnodes


Latentstage: normal overall with persistent lymphadenopathy


Chronicstage: Severe immunosuppression, secondaryinfections (URI, GI, UTI, skin), Gingivitis, stomatitis, diarrhea,wasting, anemia

what are causes of anemia

Irondeficiency


Hemorrhage


Hemolysis


Parasites


Toxins


IMHA

what are clinical signs of anemia

increased HR and RR


pale MM


weak


lethargic


increased CRT

anemia is caused by 1 of 3 things

Decreasedproduction


Increaseddestruction


Loss of redblood cells (hemorrhage)

how do you identify if anemia is regenerative of non-regenerative

reticulocyte count

how do we diagnose anemia

PCV

what are signs to look for with clotting issues

Petechia, ecchymoses

what anemia is Secondary tochronic blood loss (Fleas, GI bleed(ulcer), GI parasites, Neoplasia)


Lose iron andhemoglobin(Microcytic,hypochromic red bloodcells (decreased MCV and MCHC))


Iron deficiency anemia

what type of anemia is when immunecomplexes attach to rbc’s and body tries to remove them


Dogs occurssecondary to inflammatory diseases TX: immune suppression


Cats: occurssecondary to hemobartonellosis (Mycoplasma), FeLV TX:Transfusion, docy

Hemolysis anemia

Rememberneonatal isoerythrolysis?

Dam passesantibodies to the neonate’s rbc in colostrum

what type of anemia is:


Mycoplasma hemofelis (Bacteriaattaches to rbc membrane, increased destruction, Anorexia,fever, weight loss, hepatosplenomegaly)


Cytauxzoon felis (Protozoalorganism, Intracellular- anemia, Extracellular-macrophage involvement and creates vascularobstruction)


Babesia (viabrown dog tick, Infects rbc’s, causeshemolysis, Hemoglobinuria,fever, anorexia, depressio)

Blood- borne parasites

What anemia is caused by oxidants where Hemoglobindenatures and forms Heinz body aggregates (Cats moresusceptible, Dog – onions!)


or caused by Drugs (Acetaminophen: Causes methemoglobinemia, Methylene blue)

Toxins / HeinzBody Anemia

In what anemia do antibodiesattach to rbc membrane, accelerate their destruction and removal, complementsystem activated causing agglutination and destruction/macrophagesengulf and cleared in spleen


Common in dogs 2-8 yrs, Breeds (Poodles, IrishSetter, Sheepdogs, Cockers, Females 4 xmore likely than males

Immune mediated hemolytic anemia (IMHA)

how do you treat IMHA

Glucocorticoids


Proton pumpinhibitors


Heparin(thromboembolism, DIC)

what is the prognosis for IMHA

Guarded prognosis –30-40% will die. Relapses are common.

What platelet disorder is when plateletsbecome coated in antibodies, abnormalplatelets destroyed by spleen/bone marrow/liver causes are drugs, toxins, infectious disease, females > males affected; 5-6 years old


Clinical Signs: Petechia, ecchymoses, Epistaxis,hematemesis, hematochezia/melena, Weakness,lethargy, Hemorrhagewhen platelets < 30,000

Immune-mediatedThrombocytopenia

How do you diagnose ITP (Immune-mediatedThrombocytopeni)

Plateletcounts


Bone marrowexam


Clinical signsand response to treatment

How do you treat ITP (Immune-mediatedThrombocytopeni)

Glucocorticoids


Vincristine


Platelet –richplasma transfusion / whole blood


Splenectomy inrefractory cases

What is the prognosis for ITP (Immune-mediatedThrombocytopeni)

Prognosis = guarded to good. May relapse.

where are leukocytes formed

Formed in bonemarrow, thymus, lymph system

what are granulocytes

Neutrophils,basophils, eosinophils

what are agranulocytes

Lymphocytes,monocytes


-T-lymphocytes:recognize self, active in cell-mediated immunity (helper,natural killer, cytotoxic T cells)


- B-lymphocytes (Humoralresponse (Ab), complement activation, opsonization)

what are diseases of the leukocytes

Ehrlichia


FIV


FeLV


Lymphoma (Feline, Mediastinal, Alimentary, Multicentric, Canine)

what disease accounts for90% of feline hematopoietic tumors, most inducedby FeLV


- 70% felinelymphoma are positive for FeLV


-Average age is 3 years


- Average age in negative cats is 7 years


- 80% of catswith multicentric LSA are FeLV positive

Feline Lymphoma (Lymphosarcoma - LSA)

What disease occurs in young FeLV cats


Signsrelate to mass in mediastinum, Dyspnea, Tachypnea, Regurgitation, Cough, Anorexia,weight loss, depression, Pleuraleffusion

Mediastinal LSA

what disease occurs inolder cats, most FeLV negative


Clinical signsrelate to intestinal mass, vomiting,diarrhea, Weight loss, obstruction

Alimentary LSA

what is the most commonform, most FeLV positive, ~ 4years old


Clinical signsdepend on location (Asymptomatic, Anorexia,weight loss, lethargy, Enlargedperipheral lymph nodes, Anemia if FeLV +, Liver, GI: Vomiting, diarrhea, Lungs: Dyspnea, Renal:enlarged kidney, renal failure, Ocular:uveitis, blindness

Multicentric LSA

how do you diagnose multicentric LSA

Diagnosed viacytology of mass or lymph node

what is treatment for lymphoma

Chemotherapy preferred :Remissionrates up to 80% reported, Remission lasts 42 days to 42 months


Chemo sideeffects: Anorexia,vomiting, Leukopenia, Renal toxicity


Localizedradiation can be helpful for some


Will return remission average time is 5 months

what is mostcommon hematopoeitic tumor of dogs, 85% involveregional or generalized lymphadenopathy


Treatment: Chemotherapy, Prednisonetreatment alone = shorter survival


Best rates arewith combination protocols


Drug resistanttumor cells have emerged

Canine Lymphoma

what breeds are predisposed to Canine Lymphoma

Boxers, Bullmastiffs, Bassets, Saint Bernards,Scotties predisposed

Which congenital heart disease is where valves are dysplastic or malformed and outflow tract from the right ventricleis narrowed

Pulmonic stenosis

What arrhythmia is fast but normal?

Supraventricular tachycardia (SVT)

What is this complex called?

VPC

What is a clinical sign a pup with Persistent right aortic arch (PRAA)might show?

Regurgitation

Most common cause of sinusitis in dog?

tooth root abscess

Whichcongenital heart disease has excellent prognosis with surgicalcorrection60% fatality within 1 year without sx

Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA)

What arrhythmia?

ventricular flutter/ fibrillation

What arrhythmia has a lack of relationship between Pwaves and QRS-T, and treatment is with anticholinergics or sympathomimetics

AV block

Name two causes of rhinitis

bacteria, virus, foreign body, fungus

Name a type of nasal tumor

Squamous cell carcinoma (SCC)


Adenocarcinoma


Lymphoma

Which congenital heart disease is obstruction to left ventricular outflow, left ventricular hypertrophy and aorticdilation

Subaortic stenosis

Name a differential for bilateralepistaxis

Coagulopathy


Nasal tumor

epistaxis is what

nose bleed

What type of arrhythmia has QRS complexes appear normal…..problemis with the p wave

Supraventricular

Which congenital heart anomaly causes megaesophagus?

Persistent right aortic arch (PRAA)

What arrhythmia has Pwaves occur earlier than normal; impulse originates from other than SA nodefollowed by normal QRS

APC(atrial premature contraction)

What is the cause of these signs in an older lab:


- Stridor


- Worsewith exercise, excitement, heat


- Inspiratory dyspnea


- Dysphonia

LarPar (GOLPP: geriatric onset laryngeal paralysis and polyneuropathy)

Organism that does the following: attach to cilia of bronchial epitheliumand interfere with motility; also endotoxins and exotoxins

bordetella

Edema or effusion?

Effusion

Two strains of canine influenza

H3N8


H3N2

What disease?


Losefirmness


Collapsesduring respiration


Progressive

Collapsingtrachea

Most likely disease?

calicivirus

What 2 possible diseases?

Neoplasia


?

Most common systemic fungal disease incats?

cryptococcosis

What likely disease?

Heartworm disease

What fungal disease?


•Cats:pulmonary signs


•Dogs:GI signs – diarrhea

histoplasmosis

What fungal disease?


•Nasalcavity/sinus disease, chronic discharge


•25%CNS disease


•Ocularlesions

cryptococcosis

Three phases of leptospirosis?

•Acute


•Convalescent


•Chronic

What tick disease?


•Replicate in vascular endothelial cellscausing inflammation,necrosis, and increased vascular permeability

Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever (RMSF)

What fungal disease?


•Predominantlynasal dz


•Youngto middle aged


•Opportunistic


•Chronicunilateral nasal discharge


•Fromdecaying vegetation

aspergillosis

Most likely disease?

Feline herpesvirus

Two rickettsialdiseases:

•Ehrlichia


•RMSF

What disease?


•Destroysintestinal microvilli; bone marrow cells


•Canget bacterial translocation and septicemia

parvo

What disease?


•Maystart as tonsillitis but often goes unnoticed


•Fever


•Hepatitisand necrosis

CAV

What disease?


•Spirochetebacteria


•Many serovars: icterohemorrhagiae,canicola,pomona,grippotyphosa,bratislava,autumnalis

Lepto

What disease?


•Organism enters through mucous membranes,abrasions, or ingestion of contaminated food/water

lepto

What lower respiratory disease?

Feline asthma

Name 2 tick diseases that cause lameness.

•Lyme


•Ehrlichia


•Anaplasma

What disease?


•causing major mortality in cats due toimmunosuppression, anemia, and neoplasia

FeLV

What feline disease?


•Cerebellar hypoplasia*, retinal defectswhen exposed in utero

panleukemia

What disease?


•Serousocular or nasal discharge


•**oralulceration**,salivation


•Pneumonia,arthritis, diarrhea

calici

Treatment for most tick diseases?

Doxycycline

What are the forms of FIP?

Dry


Wet/effusive

What disease?


•Hyperkeratosis of foot pads and nose(excess keratin)=hard pad


•Enamel hypoplasia

Canine distemper virus (CDV)

What is a regressive infection in Felv?

•Cat clears viremia

What disease?

rabies

What zoonotic disease?


•Feline is definitive host but others canbe intermediate

toxo

What cause of anemia?


•Antibodiesattach to the rbcmembrane which accelerates their destruction and removal•Complementsystem is activated causing agglutination and destruction, or•Macrophagesengulf and are cleared in the spleen

IMHA

What disease?


•Virusreplicates in intestinal epithelium; enters macrophages and spreadssystemically


•Causesextreme inflammation


•Formgranulomas in target organs (CNS, eyes, other)

FIP

What test tells you if anemia isregenerative or not?

•Reticulocyte count

What type of anemia?


•Microcytic, hypochromic redblood cells (decreased MCV and MCHC)

•Iron deficiency

What disease?


•Plateletsbecome coated with antibodies or complement-Ab complexes


•Abnormalplatelets are destroyed by the spleen, bone marrow, or liver

ITP (Immune mediated thrombocytopenia)

Accounts for 90% hematopoietic tumors incats?

lymphoma

Cause of 70% of lymphoma in cats?

FeLV

What disease in cats?


•Once infected, virus reproduces in Tcells and spreads to other wbc’s and lymph nodes, salivary glands, CNS

FIV