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120 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
what is the lifespan of an erythrocyte?
70-160 days (note dogs > cat)
how long does it take to see new RBCs after EPO release from the renal cortex?
2-3 days
why are iron deficient RBCs microcytic?
the rubricytes undergo an extra, 5th division
what do you call a circulating reticulocyte that is stained with Diff-Quik?
hypochromatocyte
what are three things that can cause an elevated MCHC?
1. intravascular hemolysis
2. poor sample handling (in vitro hemolysis)
3. Heinz Bodies
long does it take myeloid stem cells to proliferate?
2-5 days
how long does it take to see a full regenerative response to anemia?
7-10 days
how long after bleeding resolves does it take for reticulocytes to return to normal?
1-2 weeks
what are five signs of a regenerative anemia?
1. macrocytosis (assuming many retics)
2. hypochromia (assuming many retics)
3. reticulocytosis
4. hypercellular bone marrow
5. metarubricytes (nRBCs)
what is the fancy name for a nucleated red blood cell?
metarubricyte
what type of poikilocytes do you see with iron deficiency?
keratocytes, schistocytes, acanthocytes, microcytes
why does epinephrine release cause lymphocytosis?
because it stops circulating lymphocytes from getting into the lymph node
what type of reticulocytes are counted and not counted in the cat when diagnosing regenerative anemia? Why?
- aggregate - counted
- punctate - not counted
- aggregate are 12-24 hours in the circulation and are indicative of regeneration; punctate have been 10-14 days in the circulation
what are seven causes of inappropriate metarubricytosis?
1. severe hypoxia
2. lead toxicity (uncommon)
3. bone fractures
4. heat stroke
5. leukemia/infiltrative bone marrow disease
6. splenic disease or injury
7. marked extramedullary hematopoiesis
what two chemicals are made by the body to adapt to chronic blood loss?
1. EPO
2. 2,3-DPG
what are three differentials for chronic GI hemorrhage?
1. parasites
2. neoplasia
3. ulcers
how does iron deficiency affect
- plasma protein?
- platelet count? (why?)
- panhypoproteinemia
- thrombocytOSIS (due to cytokine release)
what are the end products of hemoglobin that has been phagocytized?
- hemoglobin → heme + globin
- globin → amino acids
- heme → iron + bilirubin
why is unconjugated bilirubin soluble in the blood?
because it is bound to albumin
where do the majority of the macrophages that phagocytose RBCs reside?
in the SINUSOIDS of the spleen (not the BVs)
what are three lab findings that suggest INTRAvascular hemolysis, rather than extravascular hemolysis?
1. hemoglobinemia
2. hemoglobinuria
3. ghost cells
how do you test for autoimmune hemolytic anemia?
1. direct antiglobulin test
2. visualize autoagglutination on a slide
how will autoagglutination affect your CBC?
artificially ↓RBC and ↑MCV
what are two specific RBC changes with oxidative damage and why do these changes occur?
1. Heinz Bodies - damage to hemoglobin
2. eccentrocytes - oxidative damage to the RBC cell membrane
how can oxidative damage cause intravascular hemolysis?
Heinz bodies weaken the RBC membrane, which may lyse in circulation, producing hemoglobinemia and ghost cells
why is hemoglobinemia bad, other than it may be concurrent with anemia?
it damages renal tubules (horse >> dog, cat)
what liver protein binds to free hemoglobin to scavenge it?
haptoglobin
what is the difference between indirect and direct hyperbilirubinemia.
- Indirect: IVH → bilirubin in blood exceeds liver capacity; since the bilirubin is not conjugated and is albumin-bound, no bilirubinuria
- Direct: formation of conjugated bilirubin in liver → liver can't dump it into bile fast enough, so it spills into blood; bilirubinuria will occur
what are the four general causes of decreased RBC production?
1. anemia of chronic disease (most common)
2. renal failure (↓EPO)
3. generalized bone marrow disease (infiltrated by neoplasia, infection, fibrosis)
4. erythroid hypoplasia or aplasia
what are four causes of erythroid hypoplasia or aplasia?
1. destruction and/or apoptosis of RBC progenitors
2. chronic, late iron deficiency
3. endocrine disorders (hypothyroidism)
4. cobalamin or folate deficiency
how many functional nephrons are lost in CRF?
> 75%
what is the USG range for isosthenuria?
1.008 - 1.012
what is the upper normal limit of USG for the
- dog?
- cat?
- horse, cow?
- dog: 1.030
- cat: 1.035
- horse, cow: 1.025
what protein is made to sequester iron in anemia of chronic disease? Where is it produced, and what stimulates its production?
hepcidin. Produced by the liver in response to inflammatory cytokines (IL-6 and others)
what is a cause of primary absolute erythrocytosis?
polycythemia vera
what causes secondary absolute erythrocytosis?
increased EPO. Appropriate from low oxygen (respiratory disease or high elevation); inappropriate from an EPO secreting tumor
what are two causes of relative erythrocytosis?
1. dehydration / hemoconcentration
2. splenic contraction (e.g. epinephrine release)
what is the preferred technique for a WBC differential?
manual
what is the chemical mediator of a physiologic neutrophilia?
epinephrine (excitement)
describe a physiologic ('excitement") CBC
- neutrophilia (no left shift)
- lymphocytosis
- erythrocytosis
- thrombocytosis
how long does physiologic/excitement neutrophilia last?
about 20 minutes
describe a stress leukogram
- leukocytosis
- neutrophilia (± clinically insignificant left shift)
- lymphopenia
- monocytosis
- ± eosinopenia
what are three causes for excess circulating corticosteroids and thus a stress leukogram?
1. severe physical or emotional stress
2. Hyper-A
3. Iatrogenic (e.g. prednisone)
what causes neutrophilia in a stress/corticosteroid leukogram?
1. ↓margination
2. ↑bone marrow release
3. ↓emigration to the tissue neutrophil pool
what comprises the neutrophil proliferation pool?
1. stem cells
2. myeloblast
3. progranulocyte
4. myelocytes
what comprises the neutrophil storage pool?
1. metamyelocytes
2. bands
3. segs
how long does a neutrophil circulate in the blood?
10 hours
how long does a neutrophil survive in the tissues?
2 days
hypersegmented neutrophils are usually related to what?
cortisol (stress neutrophilia)
how long does a stress neutrophilia last?
hours to days
what is the normal ratio of marginal:circulating neutrophils?
- 1:1 in most animals
- 1:3 in cats
how long from myeloid stem cell to:
- storage pool?
- blood?
- 2.5 days (five cell divisions in the proliferation pool)
- 5 days (proliferation pool → storage pool; no divisions in the storage pool)
describe an acute inflammatory leukogram?
- note "acute" refers to inflammatory type, not time of insult
- neutrophilia
- orderly left shift (bands > reference range; ± metamyelocytes)
- ± lymphopenia (stress most likely reason)
what cytokine stimulates the neutrophil proliferation pool
GM-CSF, secreted by T cells
how long must inflammation persist before you start seeing myeloid hyperplasia?
> 2 days
what is the difference between neutrophil toxic and degenerative change?
- toxic = cytoplasm change
- degenerative = nuclear change
how do you interpret neutrophil toxic change without a neutrophilia or left-shift
inflammation
what are four changes in neutrophil appearance?
1. Döhle bodies
2. cytoplasmic basophilia
3. cytoplasmic foamy vacuolization
4. retention of primary granules
what is a degenerative left shift?
bands > segs
what neutrophil changes would you see with very severe inflammation?
1. degenerative left shift
2. leukemoid response
3. neutropenia (inflammatory; bone marrow disease; transient--endotoxemia)
how many neutrophils would you see in a leukemoid response?
> 50,000 (in the dog)
what are three important types of neutropenia?
1. inflammatory - excessive tissue demand
2. endotoxemia - sequestration (margination)
3. decreased production (bone marrow)
what three effects on neutrophils does endotoxemia have?
1. ↑ neutrophil production
2. ↑ bone marrow release of neutrophils
3. ↑ tissue demand
decreased neutrophil production by bone marrow is called what?
myeloid hypoplasia / granulocytic hypoplasia
what are five differentials for myeloid hypoplasia?
1. infection (e.g. parvovirus)
2. primary or metastatic bone neoplasia
3. toxicosis
4. necrosis
5. myelofibrosis
what is myelophthisis?
bone marrow infiltrated and crowded out by neoplasia, fibrosis, etc.
what is the lifespan of a platelet?
5-7 days
what is a major difference between the leukogram of a small animal versus a ruminant?
lymphocytes > neutrophils 1:1 - 2:1
why might you see neutropenia and a left shift in a ruminant with severe acute inflammation?
because they have a small neutrophil storage pool
what can happen to the leukogram of a ruminant that has inflammation and stress?
N:L inversion (N > L)
in a ruminant with an acute inflammatory neutropenia, how long would you expect a recovery of neutrophils if all is well?
4 days
what are the major (-) and (+) acute phase proteins?
- (+) fibrinogen, globulin
- (-) albumin
what is a useful blood chemistry measurement to determine if inflammation or dehydration is present in a ruminant?
PP:fibrinogen ratio
when is using the PP:fibrinogen ratio appropriate when evaluating the blood chemistry of a ruminant?
when they have HYPERfibrinogenemia
what are 2 causes for hyperfibrinogenemia?
1. dehydration (relative increase)
2. inflammation (absolute; positive APP)
what four places produce lymphocytes?
1. lymph nodes
2. thymus
3. spleen
4. GALT
what are four causes of lymphopenia?
1. glucocorticoids (stress)
2. acute inflammation
3. loss or blocked flow of lymph (ruptured thoracic duct/PLE)
4. lymphoid hypoplasia/aplasia (congenital or acquired)
why does stress produce a lymphopenia?
- glucocorticoids
1. lymphocytes trapped in the lymph nodes
2. redistribution to lymphocytes to bone marrow
3. chronic stress: lymphoid hypoplasia → ↓lymphopoiesis
why does acute inflammation produce lymphopenia?
- cortisol
1. lymphocytes to inflamed tissue
2. lymphocytes to lymph node
3. lymphocytes stay in lymph node
what are four causes of lymphocytosis?
1. chronic inflammation or antigenic stimulation
2. physiologic (epinephrine)
3. neoplasia
4. Hypo-A (mild; due to ↓glucocorticoids)
what are three causes of monocytosis?
1. stress (cortisol; demargination)
2. inflammation (tissue demand for neutrophils)
3. compensatory to neutropenia ("the B team")
how long do monocytes circulate in the blood?
10-12 hours
how long do eosinophils circulate in the blood?
10 hours
how long do eosinophils live in tissue?
> 2 days
what is the difference in the CBC between acute leukemia and chronic leukemia?
acute leukemia has many blast cells, where chronic leukemia has small cells that may look identical to non-neoplastic lymphocytes
what is the appearance of lymphoma on a lymph node biopsy?
mostly lymphoblasts; normal should be >90% small lymphocytes
what are the common locations for plasma cell tumors?
- cutaneous (usually benign)
- bone marrow
- spleen
number of platelets for
- spontaneous bleeding
- induced bleeding
- spontaneous: < 25,000
- induced: < 50,000
what are the factors for the intrinsic system?
12, 11, 9, 8
what are the factors for the extrinsic system
7, 3
when does a prolonged ACT test not caused by a coagulation defect?
with severe (< 10,000) thrombocytopenia
what system does the ACT test?
intrinsic & common
what system does the PTT test?
intrinsic & common
what system does the PT test?
extrinsic & common
what does a prolonged TT test indicate?
hypofibrinogenemia or excessive FDPs
what is a normal platelet range at 100X?
10-25
how do thrombopoietin (TPO) and platelet count relate?
- TPO adsorbs to platelet surface
- fewer platelets = more free TPO
- more platelets = less free TPO
- free TPO → megakaryocytic hyperplasia
what are the four general causes of thrombocytopenia?
1. peripheral destruction
2. decreased production
3. consumption
4. sequestration (e.g. in spleen)
what are three differentials for immune-mediated thrombocytopenia?
1. tick-borne diseases (e.g. A. phagocytophilum, E. canis, RMSF, Babesia, Bartonella)
2. drug reactions
3. paraneoplastic
what are two major causes of consumption of platelets?
1. DIC (severe thrombocytopenia)
2. blood loss (mild to rarely moderate)
what are four causes of acquires thrombopathia?
1. uremia
2. drugs (aspirin, NSAIDs)
3. hetastarch
4. supplements (e.g. ω-3 FA)
what are four differentials for thrombocytosis?
1. excitement
2. chronic bleeding/iron deficiency
3. inflammation (IL-6)
4. essential thrombocytopenia (> 1+ million)
describe two major coagulation abnormalities of the intrinsic pathway
- Hemophilia A - Factor 8 - x-linked
- Hemophilia B - Factor 9 - x-linked
what is the most common extrinsic pathway inherited defect, and what breed is predisposed?
Factor 7 deficiency, reported in beagles
what are the three big differentials for a prolonged PT and PTT?
1. Vitamin K antagonism
2. hepatic failure
3. DIC
what factors are dependent on Vitamin K?
2, 7, 9, 10
in early warfarin toxicosis, what test will indicate it first and why?
prolonged PT because factor 7 has the shortest half-life of all of the other factors
what are five indirect measures of liver function?
1. BUN
2. glucose
3. albumin
4. cholesterol
5. coagulation factors
which coagulation factor is not produced by the liver?
8
what RBC abnormality will you commonly see with DIC?
schistocytes
which in vitro anticoagulant (tube top color) is used for
- CBCs?
- coagulation testing?
- chemistry panels
- CBC: EDTA (purple top)
- coagulation: citrate (blue top)
- chemistry: heparin (green top); or you can use red top
what does heparin inhibit?
thrombin and 10a
what are three in vivo anticoagulants?
1. AT (ATIII)
2. Protein C
3. Protein S
what does antithrombin inhibit?
thrombin (2a), 9a, 10a
why can protein-losing nephropathy cause a pro-coagulant state?
because antithrombin, being similar in size to albumin, is lost in the urine
what compound cleaves fibrin, fibrinogen, and cross-linked fibrin?
plasmin
what is the difference between plasma and serum?
plasma has fibrinogen, due to anticoagulants; serum is clotted, and has no fibrinogen.
what are four differentials for increased loss of albumin?
1. blood loss
2. renal loss
3. PLE
4. inflammatory exudate
what are three differentials for decreased production of albumin?
1. hepatic failure
2. inflammation (negative APP)
3. severe malnutrition
what are two differentials for hypoglobulinemia in a foal?
1. FPT
2. combined immunodeficiency