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300 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back

Radio and Interphone
1. Use words and phrases in radio and interphone communications contained in the___?
•
FAA Order JO7110.65 Pilot Controller Glossary

2. En route controllers may omit the word heavy in communications, except:
1. In communications with a terminal facility about heavy jet operations.
2. In communications with or about heavy jet aircraft with regard to an airport where the en route center is providing approach control service.
3. In communications with or about heavy jet aircraft when the separation from a following aircraft may become less than 5 miles by approved procedure.
4. When issuing traffic advisories.

3. When in communication with Air Force One and Air Force Two___?
•
Omit the word heavy regardless of type

4. What should be done to aid in distinguishing between similar sounding call signs?
•
Emphasize digits, letters, similar sounding words

5. What should you do when there are similar sounding call signs on your frequency?
•
Notify each pilot concerned
• Notify FLM

6. Use radio frequencies only for____?
•
The specific purpose for which they are intended
• Radios and interphones are recorded and are official government records and may be reviewed in conjunction with operational errors, deviations, court proceedings, freedom of Information Act, etc.

7. Monitor interphones and assigned frequencies____?
•
Continuously
• Maintain adequate volume to hear all calls

8. Ensure acknowledgement from the pilot for all____?.....using___?
•
Clearances or instructions issued
• WILCO, ROGER, AFFERMATIVE

9. If altitude, heading, or other items are read back by the pilot____?
•
Ensure read back is complete and correct
• Incorrect read backs by the pilot that are not heard and corrected by the controller have the same effect as if the controller issued an incorrect clearance.

10. If a read back is incorrect or incomplete____?
•
Make appropriate corrections

11. What are pilots responsible for monitoring communications?
•
Monitor communications continuously unless otherwise authorized
• Pilot must receive clearance to leave an assigned frequency
• Pilot will request to abandon guard on assigned ATC frequency for a mutually agreeable time period

12. Transmit only those messages:
•
Necessary for air traffic control
• That contribute to air safety

13. What should be done to prevent and report false, deceptive, or phantom controller communications to an aircraft or controller?
•
Correct the false information
• Broadcast an alert on all frequencies where deceptive/phantom transmissions have been received
• Collect pertinent information regarding the incident
• Notify supervisor and report all relevant information pertaining to the incident

14. When and to who should you relay operational information?
•
Relay official FAA messages as required
• To Aircraft or aircraft operators as necessary including source (not on a regular basis)
• To military aircraft operating on or planning to operate in IFR military training routes (IR Routes)

15. Occasionally what can be relayed through other aircraft?
•
Clearances, flight plan cancellations, search and rescue information, emergency information, etc.

16. Initiate communications with an aircraft using what format?
•
Aircraft ID
• ATC Facility ID
• Message (if any)
• The word “over” if required

17. For subsequent radio communications from the same sector/position use____?
•
Same format except the ATC Facility ID my be omitted

18. Preface a clearance or instruction with___?
•
The aircraft ID

19. How do you abbreviate a general aviation aircraft?
•
Use the identification prefix and the last three digits or letters after communications have been established

20. What are the exceptions to abbreviating call signs?
•
Do not abbreviate similar sounding call signs, military aircraft, air carriers, civil aircraft with FAA authorized call signs

21. Transmit the message immediately after call up when___?
•
The message is short
• Receipt is generally assured

22. If the message is long or required writing __?
•
Warn the pilot before giving the message “advise when ready to copy”

23. Omit the word over if ___?
•
The message is obviously requires a reply

24. A clearance is not complete until?
•
Acknowledgement or read back

25. What messages are air traffic controllers authorized to transmit?
•
Messages necessary for air traffic control and that contribute to air safety

26. After advising ATC of the reason, a pilot may discontinue frequency monitoring. T F
•
False, must have clearance to

27. What radio messages are Air Traffic Controller authorized to relay?
•
Relay official FAA messages as required, To Aircraft or aircraft operators as necessary including source (not on a regular basis), To military aircraft operating on or planning to operate in IFR military training routes (IR Routes)

28. When does an En Route controller need to use the word heavy?
•
In communications with a terminal facility about heavy jet operations. 2. In communications with or about heavy jet aircraft with regard to an airport where the en route center is providing approach control service. 3. In communications with or about heavy jet aircraft when the separation from a following aircraft may become less than 5 miles by approved procedure. 4. When issuing traffic advisories.

29. What are the interphone transmission priorities?
•
Emergency messages (including essential information on aircraft accident or suspected accidents) *you may not violate separation rules to expedite an emergency
• Clearances and control instructions
• Movement and control messages (progress reports, departure or arrival reports, flight plans)
• Movement messages on VFR aircraft

30. How do you interrupt a lower priority message?
•
When you have an emergency or control message to transmit, use the words EMERGENCY or CONTROL “BREAK FOR CONTROL”

31. What is the format for inter/intra facility communications?
•
Caller states identification (hey you! It’s me!)
• Receiver states position ID
• Caller states type of coordination when advantageous
• Caller states message
• Receiver states response to message followed by initials
• Caller states initials

32. Terminate all interphone messages with?
•
Operating initials

33. Identify a control towers and approach controls by___?
•
Name of the facility followed by Tower or Approach

34. Controllers are required to _____, ____, and ________ massive amounts of ________ ___________ ____.
•
Speak, hear, remember
• Critical operational data

35. Controller information is?
•
Dynamic(constantly changing)
• Requires prioritization (there are so many items communicated that the controller must be able to identify those which are most critical to safety)
• Data is transmitted amid distractions(both the speaker and listener must pocus and communicate so that the message is clearly understood and remembers)

36. What are controller speaking responsibilities?
•
Use standard phraseology
• Use concise format
• Enunciate clearly
• Use even tone, pitch, and rate
• Be specific and explicit

37. What are controllers listening responsibilities?
•
Focus and pay attention
• Use active listening (a form of listening and responding that focuses on the speaker…the listener must attend to the speaker fully, and then repeat, in the listeners on words, what her or she thinks the speaker has said…the listener does not have to agree with the speaker but must simply state what they think the speaker said)

38. In pilot controller communication, the pilot is stating what he/she plans to do in the clearance read back, therefore it is essential that the controller…..?
•
Devote his/her full attention to the read back
• Verify that all essential elements are read back correctly
• Separate the unexpected or unusual information from the expected information

39. Pilot controller communications requires__?
•
Good speaking and listening skills
• Professional attitude
• Assertive communication
• Communication that is appropriate for the type of pilot

1. Bay headers allow for more____?
•
Organized traffic search since there is only one strip per aircraft in each FPA

2. Flight progress strips are used to____?
•
Record data on air traffic and clearances that is required for control and other air traffic services

3. What should be maintained on a flight progress strip?
•
Maintain only necessary current data

4. When do you remove a strip from its bay?
•
When it is no longer needed for control purposes

5. Do not erase or overwrite, instead..?
•
Use and X to delete unwanted altitude information, climb descend and maintain arrows, at or above/below arrows, cruise symbol
• Write new altitude information immediately adjacent to old information and within the same space
• Draw a horizontal line through other items
• Do not draw a line through an altitude until the aircraft reports or is observed leaving the altitude

6. How do you write up a manual strip?
•
In the same format as a machine generated strip

7. The computer will put information in what spaces?
•
1- verification symbol
• 2- revision number
• 6- sector number
• 7- CID
• 8- estimated ground speed
• 9- strip request originator
• 10- strip number
• 27- mode 3/A beacon code

8. A proposal strip should include?
•
3- AID
• 4- aircraft data (number of aircraft, heavy, type, equipment suffix)
• 5- filed true airspeed
• 16- departure arrow
• 19- fix and proposed departure time
• 21- next posted fix or coordination fix
• 24-requested altitude
• 25- point of origin, route, and destination, ETE
• 26- pertinent remarks (use plain language or words/phrases/symbols contained in .65)
• 27- beacon code

9. Both automated and non-automated environments are required to use the approved aircraft type codes contained in Appendices A-C in indicate aircraft type. T F
•
True

10. What does the equipment suffix tell a controller?
•
Determines the type of clearance/routing aircraft canaccept





11. A departure strip should include?
•
15-clearance information
• 18- departure time assumed or actual
• 20- altitude information
• 22- pilots estimated time over next fix
• 28- miscellaneous control data
• 29-30- TCP data and coordination indicator if required

12. An en route strip should include?
•
11- previous fix
• 12-estimated time over previous strip (usually a center estimate)
• 14a- plus time
• 15- center estimated time over fix
• 19- posted fix
• 20- altitude information
• 14- actual departure time(first fix posting after departure)
• 17- pilot estimated time over fix
• 16- actual time over the fix
• 24- requested altitude

Recording Clearances and Control Information
1. Use authorized symbols or abbreviations for recording what information?
•
Clearances
• Reports
• Instructions

2. Plain language markings may be used___?
•
When necessary for clarification

3. Locally approved identifiers and abbreviations may be used__?
•
Within your facility

4. What follows an appropriate clearance symbol?
•
Dash (-) and other information to show the status of aircraft

5. Clearance abbreviations:
•

D- cleared to depart from fix
• A- cleared to destination airport
• F- cleared to fix
• H- cleared to hold and instructions given
• V- cleared over fix
• Z- Tower jurisdiction
• PD- cleared to climb or descend pilots discretion


6. When using the symbol F, the fix need not be included when?
•

The aircraft is cleared to the posting fix or holding instructions have been issued and recorded.


7. Holding instructions must include:
•
Direction from the fix
• Holding fix (if not the posted fix)
o Upper portion of the H indicates distance from the station to the fix
• Radial, course, azimuth, or route on which aircraft will hold
• Leg length if other then standard (at and below 410 1 min, above 410 1.5 mins)
o Bottom portion of the H
• Direction of turn
• Holding airspeed or EFC time is sometimes included

8. How do you write a release time on a strip?
•
RLS 1 MIN

9. How to you denote released your discretion on a strip?
•
SYD/call sign

10. How do you write a report passing on a strip?
•
RP 25NE HEZ/(time reported)

11. Report leaving and report reaching go in what block on the strip?
•
Space 20 with altitude restrictions

12. Clearance void times are used at airports where….?
•
Communications with aircraft are difficult until airborne and there is no control tower

13. When would you write a frequency in the C on a strip?
•
When other than standard

14. Information describing an emergency is written in?
•
Black (E is in red)

15. How do you write a block altitude?
•
100B150 (lowest always goes first)

16. How do you show that you have cleared an aircraft for an approach?
•
APCH, VR, ILS, NDB, VA, GPS with time underneath


1. When a flight plan is filed directly with the center, record all items given by the pilot on ____ ?
•
Flight progress strip
• Flight data entry(automated)
• Voice recorder

2. Enter ___ in block 26 of the initial flight progress strip for ___use.
•
Sector position number
• To identify where information may be found in the event of Search and Rescue

3. When En Route Flight Data Processing is not in operations, forward flight plan information to the appropriate____? and include ____ on the strip.
•
ATC facility
• FSS
• Military Base Operations
• Record the time of filling and delivery on the flight progress strips

4. Who is data forwarded to as an aircraft progresses along its route?
•
Controller to Controller within the facility and then to the receiving facility

5. When forwarding data make sure the information is_____?
•
Correct and up to date

6. You cannot use the remarks section of a flight progress strip in lieu of voice coordination to pass what kind of information?
•
Control information

7. Use automation in preference to manual procedures when permitted by:
•
Workload
• Communications
• Equipment capabilities

8. Flight progress data must be forwarded at least ___ minutes before the aircraft is estimated to enter the receiving facilities area.
•
15

9. Time requirements may be increased or deceased depending upon___?
•
Decreased by LOA or Facility directive
• Increased due to manual data processing or non radar operations

10. What items need to be forwarded?
•
Aircraft ID
• Number of aircraft/H/type/equipment suffix
• Assigned altitude
• ETA over last reporting point/fix in your sector, or assumed departure time
• Altitude at which the aircraft will enter the receiving facilities area other than assigned (including climbing to descending)
• TAS
• Point of departure
• Remaining route of flight
• Destination airport and clearance limit if other than
• ETA at destination(not required for military or scheduled air carriers
• Requested altitude if other than assigned (within facility only)
• Assigned beacon code(when forwarded manually and aircraft is on a computer assigned beacon code)
• Longitudinal separation used between aircraft at the same altitude if less than 10 minutes separation exists at the boundary
• Additional non-routine information pertinent to flight safety(minimum fuel or emergencies)

11. When must you forward a position report over the lest reporting point in the transferring facilities area?
•
Time differs by more than 3 minutes from the estimate given
• Requested by the controller
• Agreed upon between facilities
• During FDP time will update automatically via computer

12. What information is circled in red?
•
Information or revised information forwarded
• Minutes and altitude when a flight plan or estimate is forwarded(inter & intra) it is acceptable to circle hour and minutes even though it is not required to circle the hour

13. How many minutes before an aircraft is estimated to enter a receiving facilities area must flight progress data be forwarded?
•
15

14. Other than the time component what other item should be circled in red to indicate that a flight plan or estimate has been forwarded?
•
Altitude

15. When must you coordinate with the receiving facility before an aircraft departs?
•
When the departure point is less than 15 minutes flying time from the boundary

16. When automated transfer of flight data occurs, coordination requirements may be reduced by LOA to:
•
5 minutes
• Specific mileage

17. Forward departure time or subsequent strip posting time unless:
•
The assumed departure time is within three minutes on actual departure time

18. Inbound information must be forwarded to approach control when?
•
Before the Transfer of control point

19. Transfer radio communications and control responsibility early enough to?
•
Allow the receiving facility to clear the aircraft beyond the clearance limit prior to the aircraft reaching it

20. When should you forward arrival information to a non approach control tower?
•
Soon enough to permit adjustment to traffic flow or before issuing a clearance that requires flight within a surface area of which the tower has responsibility unless covered in an LOA

21. What information should be forwarded to FSS from airborne military flights?
•
IFR flight plans
• Change from VFR to IFR
• Change in IFR flight plan such as
o Change in destination
 Aircraft ID
 Departure point
 Original destination
 Position and time
 New destination
 ETA
 Remarks (fuel exhaustion)
 Revised ETA
o Change in fuel exhaustion (given in hours and minutes)

22. What is the North American Route Program?
•
A set of rules and procedures that are designed to increase the flexibility of user flight planning within published guidelines

23. NPR must only be entered in the remarks section of a flight plan when?
•
Prior coordination is accomplished with ATCSCC or by international NRP flight operations procedures

24. When an international flight entering the US requests to participate in NRP what must happen?
•
The en route facility that received the request must enter NRP in the remarks section of the flight plan

25. NRP must be retained in the remarks section of the flight plan is the aircraft is moved due to:
•
Weather, traffic, or other tactical reasons (return aircraft to originally filed route as soon as condition warrent)

26. When would you remove NRP from the remarks section?
•
When the pilot request a change in route

1. What service must ZAE provide for GWO TWR?
•
Approach and departure control services

2. GWO TWR must advise ZAE of what?
•
Runway in use, change of runway in use prior to change, facility status, and all significant weather changes

3. Is GWO TWR authorized to provide visual separation between IFR arrivals and departures?
•
Yes provided other separation is used before and after the application of visual

4. When must data be forwarded to GWO TWR is FDIO is operational?
•
When the sequence of aircraft changes and/or the aircraft is issued an approach to a runway other than the tower specified runway in use

5. When must arrival information be forwarded to GWO TWR and what must be included?
•
When FDIO is non operational prior to clearance permitting flight into class D surface area, to include type of approach

6. What happens when a controller receives a UTM(unsuccessful transmission message) notification to an FDIO only facility
•
Controller must effect manual coordination for the flight plan data and must verify it to the receiving facility within three minutes of the TCP estimate

7. When can GWO TWR clear an aircraft for a visual approach?
•
Weather permitting and with prior coordination with ZAE before the clearance is issued

8. ZAE must transfer communications to GWO TWR when?
•
Prior to the aircraft reaching the FAF inbound or if on a VA 5 miles from the airport or prior to entering the surface area, unless otherwise coordinated

9. When must GWO TWR advise ZAE of an unplanned missed approach?
•
Immediately

10. What is the procedure for GWO TWR to request a departure clearance from ZAE?
•
Specify the destination and request then in the order the aircraft will depart

11. Issue clearances utilizing what data?
•
FDIO data

12. When can you not issue as filed?
•
When issuing alternate routing instructions or FRC is noted

13. Advise aircraft to expect requested altitude when?
•
10 minutes after departure when released to an interim altitude

14. GWO TWR must advise ZAE if the aircraft does not depart within ___?
•
3 minutes of the time the release is issued(not a void time and should not be used for separation)

15. When FDIO is not available, ZAE assumes responsibility for issuing____, to include?
•
Full departure clearances
• Altitude to maintain and any alternate routing or instructions as necessary

16. Is GWO TWR authorized to conduct Special VFR?
Yes to aircraft with a functioning 2 way radio in the class D at or below 2,700 upon approval by ZAE

17. During non radar (after coordination) ZAE assumes what airspace over JAN?
•
At and above 6,000ft in the terminal area

18. How must ZAE clear JAN arrivals?
•
To JAN VORTAC at lowest center altitude available(D66), to RAKIN on V11 or to BEATT on V18 lowest available altitude, established on an airway

19. ZAE must protect holding pattern airspace until when?
•
Approach advises the arrival is tower jurisdiction

20. Transfer of communication point at JAN is?
•
Must be the common boundary

21. What control does JAN APCH have at the TCP before an aircraft reaches their airspace?
•
descent

22. JAN APCH must not transition arriving aircraft beyond the clearance limit until…..
•
At or below 5,000

23. When must ZAE forward the destination airport to JAN APCH?
•
When other than JAN

24. What route must JANAPCH clear departing aircraft on?
•
Direct JAN VORTC then the route/altitude obtained from ZAE with the restriction to cross JAN VORTAC at or below 5,000

25. ZAE is responsible for separating?
•
Departing aircraft from arriving aircraft still in their airspace
• Departing aircraft on the same airway (must specify to APCH the rule to be used to separate departures entering ZAE airspace)

26. Can over flights enter JAN APCH airspace during non radar operations?
•
no

27. During non-radar what air airspace does ZAE own over MLU APCH?
•
At or above 7,000

28. What is the procedure for a MLU arrival?
•
TCP is Dinky (31 from MLU), EFC time is 5 minutes after the TCP time (after Dinky), Communication change is 49 NE MLU or 5 minutes before Dinky, ZAE must clear arrivals to Hold on V18 at Dinky(TCP) at lowest available altitude, Dinky is the clearance limit as well as the holding fix, APCH must transition arrivals into their airspace prior to 17 NM arch east of MLU

29. What is the procedure for MLU departures?
•
ZAE issues and APCH relays clearances, ZAE must issue an EFC time if unable to issue the clearance right away, ZAE must separate departures from arrivals still in ZAE airspace, ZAE must specify the separation to be used if cleared on the same airway, APCH cannot clear an aircraft above 6,000 until established on ZAE assigned route and clear of ZFW, APCH must separate aircraft of different airways

30. During non-radar all centers must clear aircraft via___?
•
Radials of NAVAIDs or established on airways

31. What is the TCP and communications point for all centers?
•
Common boundary

32. During non-automated data transfer between facilities, when must coordination by effect with the receiving center?
•
Before departure when the departure point is less than 15 minutes flying time from the boundary
• Before changing an aircraft route or altitude when the aircraft is less than 15 minutes flying time from the boundary

1. When do you not have to provide service in accordance with the 7110.65?
•
When other procedures or minima are prescribed in a LOA or FAA or Military documents or deviation is necessary to assist an emergency aircraft

2. What is a controller’s first priority?
•
Separate aircraft and issues safety alerts and provide support to nation security and homeland defense (including reporting suspicious and or unusual aircraft or pilot activity, good judgment must be used in prioritizing other situations based on the requirements of the situation at hand

3. Issue a safety alert to aircraft under your control when…?
•
You are aware that the aircraft is at an altitude which in your judgment places the aircraft in unsafe proximity to terrain, obstructions, or other aircraft

4. When does a safety alert become a first priority?
•
Once the controller observes and recognizes a situation of unsafe aircraft proximity to terrain, obstacles, or other aircraft(although a controller cannot see immediately the development of every situation they must remain vigilant for such situations and issue a safety alert when the situation is recognized) applies to VFR and IFR

5. Provide additional services to the extent possible contingent upon….?
•
Higher priority duties, limitations to radar, volume of traffic, frequency congestion, workload

6. Are additional services optional? And what are they?
•
No, required as workload permits and include merging target procedures, traffic advisories, and weather advisories

7. Use automation procedures in preference to non-automation procedures when permitted by:
•
Workload, communications, and equipment

8. Use radar separation in preference to non-radar procedures when?
•
It will be operationally advantageous and workload, communications, and equipment permit

9. Use non-radar separation in preference to radar separation when?
•
It will be operationally advantageous

10. Provide ATC services on a ___ basis, except___?
•
First come first served
• Aircraft in distress, Military Air Evacuation when requested, Scheduled air carrier/air taxi/civilian air ambulance flight use Lifeguard call sign, Search and Rescue while performing a SAR mission, presidential or vice presidential aircraft and any escort aircraft(including movement and related control messages when traffic and communications permit) Flight check aircraft(when required provide special handling to expedite

11. Use the word immediately when…
•
Only when expeditious compliance is required to avoid an imminent situation (include reason is time permits)

12. Use the word expedite when…
•
Only when prompt compliance is necessary to avoid the development of an imminent situation (include the reason is time permits) and expedite clearance is canceled when a new instruction is given without the word expedite.

13. What do you do when an aircraft reports an inflight equipment malfunction?
•
Determine the nature of the malfunction, consider any special handling, provide needed assistance, coordinate with other controllers and concerned facilities

14. What does it mean when a pilot declares minimum fuel and what should the controller do?
•
Minimum fuel indicates recognition by the pilot that his/her fuel supply has reached a state where upon reaching destination, he/she cannot accept any undue delay. This is not an emergency situation but merely an advisory that indicates an emergency situation is possible should any undue delay occur.
• Controller should inform any other controller or facility that will assume control of the aircraft, provide necessary assistance, avoid undue delays

15. Who must you report information concerning components of the NAS or flight conditions that may adversely affect air safety to? And what would be an example of this information?
•
FSS, airport managers office, ARTCC, APCH control facility, operations office, or military office
• NAVAID outages, radar system failures, computer outages, turbulence, and other weather conditions.

16. What do you do when at aircraft reports a ground based NAVAID malfunction? GPS anomaly?
•
Request a report from another aircraft, if the second aircraft reports normal, continue use of NAVAID and inform the pilot making the report, if second pilot confirms malfunction or if unable to get a second report, notify FLM
• Report a GPS anomaly to FLM

17. How do you control formation flights?
•
Control formation flights as a single aircraft until aircraft have established separation and reported by pilot
• Issue control instructions to the formation leader and when individual control is requested issue advisory information that will assist the pilots in attaining separation to the lead

18. Can civil aircraft conduct formation flights?
•
Yes

19. When can you allow an aircraft under your control enter another controllers airspace?
•
After proper coordination

20. What must be done before issuing control instructions to an aircraft not in your airspace?
•
Coordination with the controller whose airspace the aircraft is in, the controller receiving the transfer of control, and any intervening controllers whose airspace the aircraft will pass through, unless covered in an LOA or facility directive

21. When do you transfer control responsibility?
•
At a prescribed or coordinated location, time, fix, altitude or at the time a radar handoff and frequency change to the receiving controller have been completed as specified in an LOA or facility directive
• Only after eliminating any potential conflict with other aircraft for which you have separation responsibility

22. When should you assume control of an aircraft?
•
Only after the aircraft is in your area of jurisdiction or specifically coordinated or as specified in an LOA or FD

23. When must you coordinate with the appropriate control tower?
•
Prior to issuing a clearance that would require flight within the surface area for which a tower has responsibility, unless in a LOA or for transit authorization when providing radar traffic advisory service to an aircraft that will enter another facilities airspace

24. When are communications transferred to a tower?
•
Prior to operation within the surface area if required

25. When do you transfer communications of an aircraft?
•
Before the aircraft enters the receiving controllers airspace unless coordinated or specified in an LOA or FD

26. Transfer communication by…
•
Who to contract(facility name, location name and terminal function), Frequency (optional for FSS and Departures if previously given or publish on a SID), Time, Fix, Altitude, or specified condition when to change (may be omitted if compliance is expected upon receipt)

27. Controllers must take appropriate action to establish/restore communications with all aircraft for which a communications transfer or initial contact to his/her sector is expected or required when?
•
Within a reasonable amount of time (5 minutes from the time the aircraft enters the controllers area of jurisdiction or comes within range or radios/communications coverage)

28. How do you instruct an aircraft to change to another frequency in your sector?
•
Change to my frequency (…)

29. When should you avoid issuing a frequency change to a single piloted helicopter?
•
Air taxing, hovering, low level flight

30. If you do not want a pilot to leave a frequency what do you do?
•
State Remain this Frequency

31. When control responsibility is being transferred between facilities or between controllers within a facility, effect the transfer at a ___?
•
Time fix or altitude

32. How do you respond to a request from another controller?
•
Restate the request in complete or abbreviated terms followed by APPROVED
• Issuing the requested clearance
• Stating restrictions followed by APPROVED
• Stating UNABLE (give reason if time permits)
• Stating STAND BY

33. What conditions affecting sector operations should you ensure that your CIC or FLM are aware of?
•
Weather, Equipment status, Potential Sector Overload, Emergency Situations, Special Flights/Operations

1. Scan flight progress strips for?
•
Proper sequence, conflicts, IAFDOF, arrivals MEA violations, routing errors, coordination functions, type aircraft (number of aircraft, category if Heavy), non DME, speed

2. Red W’s on a strip indicate?
•
Less than 10 minutes at the same fix and altitude, aircraft conflict, MEA/MOCA violation, Warning/Prohibited Area violation

3. When do you line out a red W?
•
When restrictions to fix the conflict are issued to the aircraft, never lined out on a requested altitude unless the route has changed

4. How do you determine solutions to traffic situations?
•
Analyze the situation to determine alternative solutions based on (pilots request, other controllers request, operational priorities, operational advantages)

5. When do you remove flight progress strips?
•
When no longer required for control purposes

6. Take action to obtain a position report affecting separation no later than __?
•
5 minutes after the aircraft is estimated over the fix

7. Pre planning checklist.
•
Stuff/sequence, TUX, on frequency, arrows, IAFDOF, W’s, resolve, arrivals, priorities

8. Prefix a clearance, information, or a request for information which will be relayed through a non-facility by stating?
•
ATC Clears (clearance), ATC Advises (information), ATC Requests (request)

9. FSS must prefix a clearance with the appropriate phrase…and….
•
ATC Clears (clearance), ATC Advises (information), ATC Requests (request)…and relay clearances verbatim

10. Define Airway.
•
A class E airspace area established in the form of a corridor, the centerline of which is defined by radio navigational aids

11. Define Fix Radial Distance.
•
Is a geographical position determined by a fix (un to 5 Characters), an azimuth from the fix (3 digits in degrees magnetic), and a distance from the fix in NM (3 digits) (SQS270040)

12. Define Route.
•
A defined path consisting of one or more courses in a horizontal plane, which aircraft traverse over the surface of the earth.

13. Define Jet Route.
•
A route designed to sever aircraft operations from 18000 ft up to and including FL450, refered to as J routes

14. Define Q Route.
•
An RNAV route published for use in the US

15. Define Vector.
•
A heading issued to an aircraft to provide navigational guidance by radar

16. Define Preferential Arrival Route.
•
Specific arrival route from an appropriate en route point to an airport or terminal area. May be included in a STAR or preferred IFR route. Called a PAR not to be confused with precision approach radar.

17. Define STAR.
•
Preplanned IFR ATC arrival procedure published for pilot use in geographic and or textual form. They provide a transition from the en route structure to an outer fix or instrument approach fix/arrival waypoint in the terminal area

18. Define SID.
•
Preplanned IFR ATC departure procedure printed for pilot/controller use in geographic form to provide obstacle clearance and a transition from the terminal area to the appropriate en route structure. SID’s are designed fro system enhancement to expedite traffic flow and to reduce pilot/controller workload. ATC clearance must always be received prior to flying a SID.

19. Always clear aircraft via route consistent with the____ by one or more of the following…..?
•
Altitude stratum in which the operation is to be conducted by designated airways and routes (via victor___ or J___)
• radials, courses, azimuths, or direct (to utilize an airway above or below its route structure or to define a route when air airway does not exist), VIA THE RADIALS OF
• radials, courses, azimuths and headings of departure or arrival routes
• degree-distance fixes for special military operations
• Courses, azimuths, bearings, quadrants, or radials within a radius of a NAVAID
• Fixes/waypoints defined in terms of published name, degree-distance from NAVAIDs, latitude/longitude coordinates

20. To transition within or between route structures, clear an aircraft by one or more of the following methods, based on VOR, VORTAC, TACAN, or MLS NAVAIDS:
•
Vector aircraft to or from radials. Courses, azimuths of the airway or route assigned
• Assign a SID or STAR
• Clear a departing or arriving aircraft to climb or descend via: radials, courses, or azimuths of the airway or route assigned
• Clear a departing or arriving aircraft directly to or between NAVAIDs forming the airway or route assigned
• Clear aircraft to climb or descend via: the airways or route on which flight will be conducted or specified radials, courses, or azimuths of NAVAIDs

21. How do you change a route of flight in a previously issued clearance?
•
State which portion of the route is being amended and then state the amendment CHANGE ___ TOREAD ___
• State the amendment to the route and then state REST OF ROUTE UNCHANGED
• Issue a clearance direct to a point previously issued in the route CLEARED DIRECT (rest of route unchanged not necessary)
• Issue the entire route by stating the amendment

22. What must be done when route or altitude in a previously issued clearance is amended?
•
Restate all applicable altitude instructions

23. What happens if you restate a previously issued altitude to maintain?
•
All restrictions are canceled

1. What terms would you use to issue departure clearances when necessary?
•
Depart, Fly or Departure

1. What word should you avoid using unless in the tower/terminal environment?
•
Takeoff

2. What should be included in an IFR departure clearance?
•
Departure airport as needed, clearance limit (destination airport, short-range clearance limit as provided for any established procedures, when a NAVAID the type must be included), Name the way point or intersection by type,

3. What can be specified if necessary, in a clearance to an aircraft at an airport with a control tower?
•
Direction of takeoff/turn and or initial heading/azimuth

4. What can be specified if necessary,in a clearance to an aircraft at an airport without air traffic control services?
•
Direction of takeoff/turn or initial heading/azimuth to be flown(must solicit pilots concurrence before issuing the clearance, after issuing direction of takeoff and or heading to pilot compatibility with a procedure issued may be verified by the pilot for compliance with local traffic pattern and terrain or obstruction avoidance

5. What can be specified if necessary,in a clearance to an aircraft at an airport not in controller airspace?
•
Nothing except a heading to be flown when entering controlled airspace

6. When would you include a departure procedure as part of the clearance?
•
Where only written departure procedures are published for an airport and pilot compliance is necessary to ensure separation

7. When is the departure airport included in a clearance?
•
When relayed through a non-control facility

8. When can a SID and Transition be assigned to an aircraft?
•
When necessary and with pilot concurrence (pilot must notify ATC if they cannot concur)

9. Define preferential departure route.
•
A specified departure route from an airport or terminal area to an en route point where there is no further need for flow control

10. Define preferential departure and arrival route.
•
A route between two terminals which are within or immediately adjacent to one ARTCC area

11. When issuing a route of flight specify one of the following:
•
Airway, route, course, heading, azimuth, arch, vector

12. What must be done when a short range clearance limit is utilized?
•
Must advise the pilot of the routing to expect beyond the short range clearance limit that differs from the filed route EXPECTF FURTHER CLEARANCE VIA…

13. Altitudes should be assigned in what preferential order?
•
Requested by the pilot, nearest to the pilot requested (inform the pilot when the altitude will be available unless specified in a SID) (if requested is not available inform the pilot that the final altitude is expected to be and when/where to expect the final altitude) IS NOT AVALIBLE (issue final altitude prior to aircraft reaching fix/time specified in clearance)

14. When can you issue an abbreviated departure clearance?
•
If it reduces verbiage and filed route is unchanged prior to departure (by the pilot, company, operations officer, input operator, in the stored flight plan system) and all ATC facilities concerned have sufficient route of flight information to exercise control responsibilities and destination airport information must be relayed between facilities(when flight with depart IFR prior to departure) and assigned altitude is always stated in an abbreviated clearance

15. If it is necessary to modify a filed flight plan in order to achieve computer acceptance what must be included?
•
FRC or FRC until the initial fix and must always be the first item of intracenter remarks

16. How do you issue a clearance when a route revision is needed?
•
CLEAREDTO ___ AIRPORT AS FILED EXCEPT CHANGE ROUTE TO READ____ Maintain___

17. When issuing a clearance in non radar what must be specified?
•
One tow or more fixes as necessary to identify the initial route of flight

18. When can you not use an abbreviated clearance?
•
For pilots requesting a detailed clearance, for military operations conducted within (altitude reservations, stereo routes, above FL600, other operations requiring special handling), when FRC appears in the remarks section

19. What can you assign for separation or to restrict or regulate departure flows?
•
Clearance void time (provide alternative instructions, request the pilot to advice ATC of intentions no later than 30 mins after the clearance void time if not airborne, the facility delivering a void time to a pilot must issue a time check)
• HFR (use this to inform a pilot or controller that a departure clearance is not valid until additional instructions are received, include departure delay information, release aircraft as soon as conditions permit) (released-contoller, released for departure-pilot or fss)

20. Define Release Time.
•
A departure time restriction issued to a pilot to separate a departing aircraft from other traffic. Issue a release time to specify the earliest time an aircraft may depart. Time check.

21. What do you do if you cannot issue a clearance at the time of the request?
•
EDC time

22. Define EDCT time.
•
The runway release time assigned to an aircraft in a traffic management program and shown on the flight progress strip as an EDCT

23. When can you release an aircraft applicable to a ground stop that is in effect?
•
Get approval from the originator of the GS

24. If aircraft elect to take delay on the ground, issue clearances….
•
In the order of the original requests if practicable

25. Who should you inform of anticipated delays?
•
Approach control and or tower facilities

26. What is the phraseology to release an aircraft to another controller?
•
Released

27. What is the phraseology to release an aircraft to a FSS?
•
Released for departure

28. What is the phraseology to release directly to a pilot at an airport with no control tower?
•
Released for departure

29. What facility is responsible for issuing a time check to a pilot whose clearance includes a void time?
•
The facility delivering the void time

30. What information should be forwarded to the receiving facility?
•
Aircraft ID, point of departure, either assumed departure time or subsequent fix posting time, altitude data and applicable restrictions, actual departure time is time differs by more than 3 minutes from assumed departure time, ETA except military and scheduled air carriers

31. How do you process an airfile?
•
Ensure the aircraft is in your area of jurisdiction unless coordinated, obtain information necessary to provide IFR service, issue clearance to destination airport or short range clearance limit, instruct pilot to contact FSS to file IFR flight plan

1. Issue the current altimeter setting to …
•
All en route aircraft operating below FL 180 at least one time while in your airspace, aircraft cleared to descend through the lowest usable flight level, arriving aircraft approximately 50 miles from the destination airport if the destination is not served by an approach control

2. Lowest usable flight level table.
•
29.92- + (180)….29.91-28.92 (190)….28.91-27.92 (200)

3. You must let the aircraft know if the altimeter is more then ____ old.
•
1 hour

4. Appropriate altitudes for direction of flight.
•
At and below FL410- east odd, west even
• Above FL410- East odd 4,000 ft intervals starting with FL410, - West odd 4,000 ft intervals starting with FL430

5. When can you assign an IAFDOF altitude?
•
Traffic conditions prevent it, LOA or FD, meteorological conditions, military aircraft on random routes, exceeds the aircrafts operational limitations

6. What types of clearances allow for descent pilots discretion?
•
Crossing restrictions, approach clearances and cruise clearances

7. Descent Pilots Discretion.
•
Can climb or descend or level off whenever but cannot return to an altitude once it is left

8. How do you cancel pilots discretion?
•
Assign a new altitude and state it is an amended altitude

9. What must be done when a route or altitude in a previously issued clearance is amended?
•
Restate all applicable instructions

10. How do you assign more than one altitude?
•
MAINTAIN BLOCK (altitude) THROUGH (altitude)

11. What do you do when a pilot is unable to accept a clearance?
•
Issue revised instructions to ensure positive control and standard separation

12. Controllers are expected to issue ATC clearances which conform with..?
•
Normal aircraft operational capabilities and do not require last minute amendments to ensure standard separation

13. What do you tell a pilot when you anticipate an altitude change?
•
Expect climb/descent clearance, or request altitude change from another controller

14. On initial contact or when position reports are received, request a pilot to confirm assigned altitude unless:
•
The pilot states it on initial contact or you assign a new altitude to climbing or descending aircraft

15. How do you ask for an altitude assignment verification in level flight?...climbing or descending below lowest usable FL?... at or above lowest usable FL?
•
VERIFY AT…VERIFY ASSIGNED ALTITUDE…VERIFY ASSIGNED FLGIHT LEVEL

1. What is a standard holding pattern?
•
Right turns, 1 min leg length at or below 14,000, 1.5 min leg above 14,000

2. What determines how much airspace is protected for an aircraft in holding
•
Speed (Civil 200-265, military 230), Altitude, Distance of holding fix from NAVAID

3. How do you issue a non-charted holding pattern clearance?
•
Clearance limit, holing instructions(Holding fix/waypoint which may be omitted if clearance limit, direction of hold, radial course azimuth and airway or route on which to hold, leg length, direction of turns), EFC time

4. How do you issue a charted holding pattern clearance?
•
Omit all instructions except direction and as published

5. When the holding pattern is charted must you give an EFC time?
•
Only if delay is expected

6. When delay is expected, issue holing instructs at least how many minutes before the aircraft reaches the clearance limit?
•
5 minutes

7. When aircraft are delayed or delay is expected tell…
•
FLM or TMU

8. What do you do when arrival delays reach or are expected to reach 30 mins?
•
Issue total delay information ASAP after the aircraft enters your area by the first controller to talk to the aircraft and may be omitted when available on the ATIS

9. What do you tell the pilot of the delay is lengthy?
•
Delay indefinite and the reason if known, and issue an EFC time ASAP, make every effort to provide the pilot with the best possible estimate of delay and reason

10. How long before the aircraft reaches its clearance limit should you issue a clearance beyond that limit?
•
ASAP or at least 5 minutes prior

11. What must be included in a clearance beyond a clearance limit?
•
Clearance limit or approach clearance, route of flight with complete details or via last routing cleared, altitude if different than present altitude

12. What is a pilot expected to do if no clearance is issued past the fix?
•
Hold as depicted on charts, request instructions prior to reaching fix, hold in a standard pattern on course approaching fix and request further clearance ASAP

1. When should arrival information be forwarded to a non-approach control tower?
•
Soon enough to permit adjustment to traffic flow, prior to issuing clearance which would require flight within the surface area

2. What makes up an arrival clearance?
•
Name of fix or airport, route of flight, altitude instructions, holding instructions, EFC and additional delay information as required

3. Transfer communications to an approach control facility when?
•
Early enough to allow the receiving facility to clear the aircraft beyond the clearance limit before the aircraft reaches it

4. What is depicted on each approach chart?
•
IAF, nav data, comm info, airport sketch, missed approach procedure

5. When must you ensure the pilot have the current weather?
•
Prior to beginning the approach

6. What must be included in the arrival information provided to an aircraft?
NOTAMS, approach clearance or type of approach to expect, runway if different from approach, wind, ceiling and vis if reported below 010 or highest circling min vis less than 3, altimeter

7. When issuing an approach clearance that is not under radar procedures or timed or a visual, when would you issue an approach to a second aircraft?
•
After the proceeding aircraft has landed or canceled IFR

8. When radar coverage does not exist how must an aircraft be cleared for an approach?
•
On a standard instrument procedures only and must commence at an IAF

9. How do you authorize a pilot to execute any standard instrument approach procedure for that airport?
•
CLEARED APPROACH

10. What must be done in order to specify a specific approach?
•
Specify the name of the approach…CLEAR (type) APPROACH

11. When would you not need to specify the runway?
•
When only one approach of a particular type is published

12. Where can you issue a circling approach?
•
Towered airport

13. When must you include the destination airport in an approach clearance?
•
At airports without a control tower

14. What must you do before instructing an IFR aircraft arriving at an airport not served by a control tower or FSS to change to advisory frequency?
•
Provide the pilot with instructions on how to cancel his/her flight plan

15. Transfer communications at a non-approach control tower when?
•
Prior to operation within class D surface area

16. Transfer communications at airports not served by control towers or FSS when?
•
Approve a change to advisory when you no longer require direct communications

17. How do you acknowledge a cancellation of IFR
•
IFR CANCELATION RECEIVED

18. When an aircraft is inbound on an unpublished route when can you issue the approach clearance?
•
Only after the aircraft is established on a segment of a published route or IAP or you have assigned an altitude to maintain until established on a segment on a published route or an IAP (altitude must ensure terrain and obstruction clearance

19. What does a cruise clearance authorize?
•
A pilot to make an approach at the destination airport when in conjunction with an airport clearance limit or at an airport which does not have a published instrument approach procedure and provides means for an aircraft to proceed to destination airport, descend, and land in accordance with CFRs governing VFR procedures
• Pilot can climb descend or level off at pilots discretion but once verbally reports leaving an altitude may not return to it without ATC clearance
• A cruise clearance provides SAR protection until IFR flight plan is canceled or closed

20. What is a cruise clearance not?
•
An authorization for a pilot to descend under IFR conditions below minimum IFR altitude

21. When issuing a cruise clearance to an aircraft on an unpublished route what must you do?
•
Issue the appropriate crossing restriction to ensure terrain clearance until the aircraft reaches fix/point/route where altitude information is available to the pilot

22. When issuing a cruise clearance to an aircraft at an airport where there is no IAP what do you do?
•
Do not issue a crossing restriction

23. When a pilot is assigned a cruise clearance what altitude does he own?
•
ATC assigned altitude down to minimum IFR altitude

24. If an aircraft wants an advance descent….
•
Coordinate with the receiving facility for lower altitude

25. Issue an advance descent clearance when?
•
As appropriate and at a distance sufficient to allow for normal descent and speed reduction

1. Vertical separation minima.
•
Up to and including FL410- 1,000 ft except 2,000 ft at or above FL290 for non RVSM aircraft and al other aircraft
• Above FL410- 2,000 ft

2. When can you assign an altitude to an aircraft with another aircraft at that altitude?
•
After the aircraft previously at that altitude has been issued a climb or descent clearance and is observed or reports leaving that altitude

3. What phraseology do you use to get an altitude report?
•
REPORT LEAVING/REPORT REACHING/SAY ALTITUDE/SAY FLIGHT LEVEL/SAY ALTITUDE OR FLIGHT LEVEL

4. What must you consider when applying vertical separation minima?
•
Known aircraft performance characteristics and information indicating that climb/descent rates are not consistent with rates recommended in the AIM (information may be pilot-furnished or mode C observed)

5. What are the exceptions to the standard vertical separation minima?
•
Assign an altitude to an aircraft only after the aircraft previously at that altitude has reported at or passing through another altitude SEPARATED from the first by the appropriate minima when:
o Severe turbulence is reported
o Military aircraft are conducting aerial refueling
o The aircraft at that altitude has been issued a climb or descent at pilots discretion (X restriction is PD)
o The aircraft at that altitude has been issued a cruse clearance

6. What are the advantages of a PD?
•
Pilot gets to choose when to start climb or descent, pilot may level off but after vacating cannot go back, may conserve fuel for an aircraft

7. What are the disadvantages of PD?
Controller must protect more altitudes which may interfere with sequencing and separation of traffic

8. What are the minims for separating aircraft from SUA?
•
FL290 and below- at least 500 ft above or below…but altitudes are assigned in 1000 ft intervals
• Above FL290- at least 1000 ft above or below

1. What is standard longitudinal separation?
•
20 miles (DME equip aircraft, RNAV using ATD) or 10 minutes

2. What are the methods for separating aircraft longitudinally?
•
Depart at a specific time, arrive at a fix at a specified time, hold at a fix until a specified time, or change altitude at a specified time or fix

3. What can you use milage-based DME and ATD procedures and minima?
•
Only when direct pilot controller communications are maintained

4. What is ATD?
•
Along track distance is the distance measured from a point in space by systems using area navigation reference capabilities that are not

5. When can you not use 20 miles to separate DME aircraft?
•
Above 10,000 ft or closer than ten miles from the NAVAID with non DME aircraft

6. How do you ensure all aircraft use DME mileages which allows all aircraft to have the same slant rang error?
•
SAY DME

7. If aircraft have less than ten minutes when leaving your airspace what must be done?
•
Coordinate with next sector

8. What is the 44kt rule?
•
Lead aircraft must be at least 44k faster, 3 minutes or 5 miles
• Can be used when departing aircraft follows an aircraft which has taken off from the same or adjacent airport, departing aircraft follows an enroute aircraft which has reported over a fix serving a departure airport, enroute aircraft follows an enroute aircraft that has reported over the same fix

9. What is the 22kt rule?
•
Lead aircraft at least 22k faster, 5 minutes or 10 miles
• Can be used when departing aircraft follows an aircraft which has taken off from the same or adjacent airport, departing aircraft follows an enroute aircraft which has reported over a fix serving a departure airport, enroute aircraft follows an enroute aircraft that has reported over the same fix

10. When can you discontinue opposite direction vertical separation?
•
When both aircraft have reported passing NAVAIDS, DME fixes, or waypoints indicating they have passed each other
• Both aircraft have reported passing the same intersection/waypoint and are at least 3 minutes apart

11. When should you advise a pilot to use DME distances?
•
When applying DME separation

1. Can protected airspace touch?
•
yes

2. Can protected airspace overlap?
•
No

3. Can holding patterns overlap?
•
No, if they do you must hold at different altitudes

4. Can holding patterns overlap protected airspace?
•
No

5. What determines the size of holding pattern protected airspace?
•
Altitude and or speed

6. The protected airspace of a holding pattern must not _____ of an airway.
•
Overlap the protected airspace

7. How is airspace along airways or routes protected?
•
4 miles either side (8total) of the centerline to 51 miles from NAVAID
• Diverging angle of 4.5 degrees from NAVAID to change over point (no max width)

8. Consider separation to exisit between aircraft established on diverging radials of the same NAVAID when…?
•
There is at least 15 degrees divergence when either aircraft is clear of the airspace to be protected for the other aircraft

9. DME Divergence Distance Minima
•

15 17
20 13
25 11
30 9
35 8
45 7
55 6
90 5

10. If the divergence falls between two values which one should you use?
•
Use the greater distance

11. Does the DME Application Table compensate for DME slant range error?
•
Yea

12. What is the DME application table used for?
•
To determine the distance required for angles of divergence to clear protected airspace

13. When are, aircraft established on radials on the same NAVAID that diverge by at least 15 degrees, considered to be laterally separated?
•
Beyond protected airspace

1. What is the one minute rule?
•
Courses must immediately diverge by 45 degrees or more after departure from same or adjacent airports (issue turns and headings)

2. What is the two minute rule?
•
Courses must diverge by 45 degrees or more within 5 minutes after takes off

3. Define visual separation of departures.
•
Separation must be ensured before and after visual separation is applied, both aircraft must be visually observed by the tower VISUAL SEPARATION APPROVED BETWEEN (departure) and (arrival) (departure) RELEASED YOUR DISCRETION