• Shuffle
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Alphabetize
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Front First
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Both Sides
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Read
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
Reading...
Front

Card Range To Study

through

image

Play button

image

Play button

image

Progress

1/226

Click to flip

Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;

Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;

H to show hint;

A reads text to speech;

226 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
a) Is the study of medication and their actions.
b) This include:
c) Is defined as a substance used in medicine for the diagnosis, treatment, cure, mitigation or prevention of disease or conditions.
a) Pharmacology
b) Origins, properties and uses
c) Drugs
a) How many sources does drugs are derivate from:
b) The newest source of drugs from the lab comes to us from genetic engineering
c) This technology is referred as
a) 5
b) Biotechnology
c) Recombinant DNA technology
a) At one time most drugs were originated from, a number of medication from this source still in use at this days
b) Example
a) Plant source
b) Morphine and digitalis
c) Primarily hormones are derived from this source.
d) Example
c) Animal source
d) Heparin sodium and thrombin
Drugs obtained from:
- Cows are:
- Pigs are:
- Bovine
- Porcine
e) From the Earth are available in several forms:
f) Example
g) The majority of drugs used today are manufactured at this type of source, and can be accomplished by 2 ways
e) Mineral source
f) Calcium, gold, iron, magnesium, silver and zinc
g) Lab synthesis
h) Are manufactured totally from lab chemicals
I) example
j) Begin w/ natural substance which is then chemically altered
k) Example
h) Synthetic drugs
I) Meperidine sulfate (Demerol)
j) Semisynthetic drugs
k) Aminoglycoside( group of antibiotics)
The hepatitis B vaccine is produced as a results of____
Recombination DNA technology
a) Involves the study of interaction of drug molecules w/ a target cell of living organism
b) The results of this interaction have both ____
a) Pharmacodynamics
b) Biochemical and physiological effects
TO KNOW
- Types of drugs interactions include the inhibition or destruction of foreign organism or malignant cell, protecting the cells from foreign agent, supplementation or replacement of specific -----
hormones, vitamins or enzymes and increase or decrease the speed of physiological function.
What affect the different aspect of pharmacodynamics
Type of drug - dosage
Route of administration
Pt conditions
Can interact w/ pt tissues and w/ one another in several ways, can occur when two substances are prescribed currently causing modification of the action of one or both drugs, this may be intentional (beneficial) or undesirable (detrimental)
Drug interaction
a) Interaction occur when a drug potentiates or enhance the effect of another substance
b) Examples
a) Agonist
b) Synergist and additives
Act in combination to produce stronger or more powerful effect than would be demonstrated if each agent was administrated individually
Synergistic agents
TO KNOW:
- In a synergistic relationship the action of one agent increase the action of the other agent when delivered together, as a result each can be delivered in lower, safe dose while obtain the same desired effect.-----
- The use of midazolam (sedative) and fentanyl (narcotic analgesic) permits the use of lower concentrations of volatile gases during the administration of general inhalation anesthesia
a) Alter some aspect of the action of the original agent
b) Example
a) Additives agent
b) Epinephrine (Adrenaline) is added to lidocaine hydrochloride (Xylocaine) to prolong the anesthetic action of this short - term local anesthesia
a) Is a medication that binds to a specific receptor site in the body, producing an alteration in biological function and resulting in a desired effect.
b) Example
a) Antagonists
b) When flumazinil (Mazicon) is given to reverse the sedative side effects of midazolam (Versed)
Is listing of the medical condition that the medication is known to treat, the dosage of each indication as well as the delivery form may vary according to the medical condition and pt factors such as weight and age
Indications
Are a list of circumstances or medical conditions under which medication should not be used, common areas for the medication include pregnancy, liver or renal failure
Contraindication
The medication period of time required for the effects of the medication to begin to be demonstrated in the pt
Onset
Is the period of time when maximum effects of the medication are demonstrated in the pt
Peak effect
Is the overall period of the time when the effect from medication can be demonstrated in the pt
Duration
The timing of medication doses will depend on:
Time of onset
Peak effect and
Duration of action
The concentration or dose of a medication used to produce the desired result without producing harmful effect
Therapeutic effect
An expected, undesirable, but tolerable effect of medication, these can include dry mouth, constipation, diarrhea, dizziness or drowsiness
Side effect
a) An undesirable and potentially harmful effect of medication that can lead to organ damage or failure
b) Susceptible organs include:
c) Common reaction is
a) Adverse effect
b) Brain, liver, kidney and cardiovascular system
c) Hypersensitivity or allergic reaction which can lead to mild skin rash to a anaphylaxis
The undesirable and unacceptable effect of a medication, the effect can promote the growth of cancerous tumor (carcinogen) or the development of birth defect ( teratogens)
Toxic effect
The reduction of the effect of a medication given at the same dose over a period of time, the dosage of the medication must to be increased in order to demonstrate the desired effect
Tolerance
A physical or psychological dependency on the effect of the medication
Addiction
a) Is the term used to describe the entire process of the drug within the body
b) This process involve
a) Pharmacokinetics
b) Absorption - distribution - biotransformation and excretion
a) A drug must be _____ to produce an effect, occur at the side of administration
b) The site of administration is where the substance is taken into the bloodstream by the capillaries, the process is referred as:
a) Absorbed _ Absorption
b) Passive transport
a) Explain the passive transport
b) Does it require energy?
a) A drug substance is transferred from an area of high concentration to a low concentration on both side of membrane.
b) No
c) Is required for a limited number of drugs, glucose and amino acids
d) Explain
e) Does it require energy?
c) Active transport
d) In the form of cation such as sodium it required to carry the substance from a area of low concentration to a higher concentration
e) Yes
Absorption is influenced by several factors that include
Type of drug preparation
Dosage
Route of administration
Pt.'s condition
Involve the transport of the medication within the body once it enters the circulatory system, this is effected by the rate of absorption, systemic circulation and regional blood flow to the target organ or tissue
Distribution
TO KNOW:
- The medication is distributed to the target cell for action to the liver for biotransformation and to the liver or kidneys for elimination
- Distribution of med is also effected or limited by plasma protein binding, tissue binding and certain barriers established by the body
This most often occur in the liver, but other tissues including intestinal mucosa, lungs, kidneys and blood plasma may be involved
Biotransformation or metabolism
TO KNOW:
- Several medications are converted to an active substance by the liver, but the main function of the liver in metabolism is to break down the drugs molecules
- The breakdown of products of metabolism are called METABOLITES.
a) The effect medication in the body is continue until___
b) Medication are physiologically removed from target organ or tissue via:
a) Bio transformed or/and excreted
b) Circulatory system
a) The primarily organ for filtration of medication is/are:
b) Some medication and metabolites may be eliminated by:
a) Kidneys
b) Fecally - sweat or saliva - exhale and also in breast milk
a) Is used to administrate medication
b) The most common route use in the OR is:
a) Route of administration
b) Parenteral w/ IV being the most common
a) To the gastrointestinal tract
b) Placed into the rectum
c) Other than through the GI tract
d) Between the layers of the skin
a) Oral - PO means per os or by mouth
b) Rectal
c) Parenteral
d) Intradermal
e) Under the skin into the adipose tissue layer
f) Within a muscle
g) Into a vein
h) Within a joint
I) Into the subarachnoid
e) Subcutaneous (SC or SQ)
f) Intramuscular (IM)
g) Intravenous (IV)
h) Intra - articular
I) Intrathecal
j) Into the heart
k) Applied to the skin or mucous membrane to provide a localized or systemic effect
l) Is placed between the cheek and teeth until dissolve
j) Intracardia
k) Topical
l) Buccal
m) Medication is placed under the tongue until is dissolved or absorbed
n) Is placed in the hollow or cavity such as conjunctiva fold or bladder
o) Directly administrated via the respiratory tract
m) Sublingual
n) Instillation
o) Inhalation
Contains information on single drugs and the formulas for drugs mixtures, including testing and purity information, list drug using generic names, list of medications no longer included in the USP
National formulary
Contains information on medication used in current practice, list drugs using generic names, including the medication source, properties, categories/classification, dosage range and therapeutic dosage
USP - United States pharmacopeia or Pharmacopeia of the United States
Present medical information arranged in therapeutic or pharmacological classes according to generic name
American Hospital Formulary Service Index
Not an official pharmacological listing, but commonly used by physicians for referencing medication for prescription, medication are listed by manufacture using brand names
PDR - Physician's Desk References
Drugs are prepared for administration in several different forms, type of preparation or form in which the drug is available will determine the rout of administration as well as_____ ( 2 answers)
- Drug forms
- Pharmacodynamics and pharmacokinetics
a) O2 and nitrous oxide are included in this category
b) Two primary types of liquid preparation
c) Drugs is dissolved in a liquid
d) Solution prepared w/ water
e) Sweetened aqueous solution
a) Gas
b) Solution and suspension
c) Solution
d) Aqueous
e) Syrup
f) Solution prepared w/ alcohol
g) Sweetened alcohol solution
h) Solid particles are suspended in a liquid, particle may settle and must be redistributed by shaking prior to use
f) Tincture
g) Elixir
h) Suspension
I) Combination of two liquids that cannot be mixed, small droplets of one liquid are dispersed through another
j) Cream, foams. gels, ointments and suppositories
I) Emulsion
j) Semisolid
k) It may be in powder state contained within a capsule or compressed in tablet, some must have a liquid added prior to use
Solid
The 3 legal drugs classification that are most commonly used are:
Controlled substance,
Prescription substance
OTC over - the - counter substance
Are those drugs w/ high potential to cause psychological and/or physiological dependence and abuse
Controlled substance
TO KNOW:
- Controlled substance are categorized according to the level of addictiveness and therapeutic potential
- The labeling of these substances include the symbol "C" w/ the schedule number (1 - V) included next to the letter
Include substance for which there is a high potential and no current approved medical use
- example
Schedule or Class I
- Heroin, marijuana, LSD, other hallucinogen and certain opiates and opium derivatives
Include drugs that have a high abuse potential and high ability to produce physical and/or psychological dependence and for which there is a current approved or acceptable medical use
Schedule or Class II
Includes drugs for which there is less potential for abuse than drugs in Class II and for which there is a current approved medical use.
- Some contain limited quantities of:
Schedule or Class III
- Codeine, anabolic steroids
Include drugs for which there is a relatively low abuse potential and for which there is a current approved medical use
Schedule or Class IV
Drugs in this category consist mainly of preparation containing limited amounts of narcotic drugs for use of antitussives and antidiarrheal
Schedule or Class V
* This may be purchased by an individual at least 18 years old and must be purchased from a pharmacy.
Are those medication that is, if used inappropriately could cause significant harm to the pt, this include the name, dose, quantity and timing of medication.
Prescription medication
Are pharmacological agent that are prepared in a dosage that are generally safe to administer without the direction of a physician
OTC = over-the-counter
Three different names are assigned to each drug, they are:
1 - Trade, brand or proprietary
2 - Generic
3 - Chemical
The medication name is capitalized and may be followed by the "R" symbol, indicating that the name an chemical formula used by a specific company have been registered w/ the federal government
Trade, brand or proprietary name
- The trader name is prominently displayed on the medication label
The nonproprietary name of the drug, it is often a shortened version of chemical name, this name is often selected by the original developer and is written using all low - case letter
Generic name
- The generic name is prominently displayed on the medication label
Is complex and difficult to use, is not include on medication label but is included in the package insert that accompanies the medication from the manufactured
Chemical name
Give an examples of
a) Trade name:
b) Generic name
c) Chemical name:
a) Marcaine or Sensorcaine
b) Bupivicaine hydrochloride
c) 2-piperidinecarboxamide, 1-butyl-N-(2-6-dimethylphenyl), monohydrochloride, monohydrate
TO KNOW:
- The use of generic name in health care setting is to avoid confusion between medication w/ similar names, example:
- Pitocin is oxytocin
- Pitressin is vasopressin
Drug action defines as the effect of substance at the target site. Three main theories have been developed to explain the ways that drugs produce their effect, these theories are:
1 - Drug receptor interaction
2 - Drug enzyme interaction
3 - Non - specific drug interaction
a) State that the active substance in the drug has an affinity for a specific chemical constituent of a cell.
b) Argues that a drug may combine w/ specific enzyme to inhibit the action of the enzyme or alter the cellular response
a) Drug receptor interaction
b) Drug - enzyme interaction
c) Is related to drugs that do not act by either of the two previously described methods, these drugs accumulate in the cell membrane or penetrate the membrane
Non - specific drug interaction
Is the amount of medication delivered to the patient in order to achieve the desired therapeutic effect.
medication dose.
a) The dose will depend on several factors, including the:
b) Is commonly expressed in a ratio of medication concentration per kilograms of pt body weight
c) Give an example
a) Age, weight, overall medical condition and delivered rout of medication
b) Dosage
c) Dentrolene sodium - 2.5 mg/Kg
a) IS the ratio of solute to solvent, the two components of a solution
b) Is the overall amount of medication delivered to the pt, this have two names:
a) Concentration
b) Dose or dosage
a) The cumulative dose is the total amount of medication given is calculated by:
b) to convert lb. to kg you have to:
c) In the emergency situation weight can be estimated by
a) Taking the amount of solution delivered and multiply it by the amount of solute from the ratio above
b) Divide the # of lb. by 2.2.
c) Divide the lb. in half then subtract the first digit of the answer from the answer: 185/2 = 93 - 9 = 84
Medication error can be minimized by following some basic safety guidelines, these are:
1 - Know the pertinent state and federal laws
2 - Know the policies of the health care facility
3 - Follow the procedures set forth by the health care facility
There are 6 basic rights for correct drug handling which are absolute, they are:
1 - Right pt 2 - Right drug
3 - Right dose 4 - Right rout of administration
5 - Right time and frequency
6 - Right documentation including labeling
a) Types of common container of medications are:
b) No matter which type of packaging in used, all drugs must be labeled by the manufactured and the label must contain the follow information:
a) Ampule - vial - preloaded syringe - tube
b) Drug name ( trade or generic) - manufacture - strength - amount - expiration date - rout of administration - lot number - handling/storage precautions and warning - controlled substance class
The medication name, strength, amount and expiration date should n=be verified a minimum _____ times prior to administration, these are:
3 times
1 - First is when drugs is listed
2 - Second is done prior to preparation for use or placement on the sterile field
3 - Third is done once the med is prepared for used on field
a) Glass container that requires the top to be broken off to access the contents - usually contains liquid
b) Plastic or glass container that is a rubber stopper at top that is held in place w/ metal retainer ring - may contain liquid, powder or compressed powder
a) Ampule
b) Vial
c) Metal or plastic - may contain gel, cream or ointment
d) Usually contains liquid
c) Tube
d) Preloaded syringe
Optimal balanced anesthesia is achieved when all components are addressed:
a) Result from the altered state of consciousness related to pt's perception of the surgical environment and procedure
Hypnosis
- These drugs are classified as those that induce to sleep
b) Freedom from pain is the major focus
c) Provide a lack of recall of perioperative event.
d) Neuromuscular blockage in combination w/ inhalation agents are capable to produce profound relaxation to the point of paralysis
b) Anesthesia
c) Amnesia
d) Muscle relaxation
a) Anesthetics agents can be administrated in two ways:
b) Focus in altering the pt's level of consciousness, minimizing the pain and awareness of the surgical environment
a) General and nerve conduction blockage
b) General anesthesia
c) Involves the prevention of sensory nerve impulse transmission in a specific region of the body, allowing the pt remain conscious but not feeling pain, it's also called:
c) Nerve conduction blockage or regional anesthesia
The American Society of Anesthesiologist (ASA) has set classification system to assessing pt risk, these classes are:
- Class 1
No organic, physiological, biochemical or psychiatric disturbance
- Class 2
Mild to moderate systemic dz disturbance such as controlled hypertension, history of asthma, anemia, smoker, controlled diabetes, mild obesity, age less than 1 and greater than 70
- Class 3
Severe systemic disturbance or dz such as angina, post - myocardial infraction (MI), poor controlled hypertension, symptomatic respiratory dz, massive obesity.
- Class 4
Pt w/ severe systemic dz, disorder that are life - threatening, such as unstable angina, congestive heart failure, debilitation respiratory dz, hepatorenal failure.
- Class 5
Moribund pt w/ little chance of survival who is operated on in desperation
- Class 6
Brain dead, life support provided, organ procurement intent
- Emergency modifier (E)
Applied when doing emergency surgery
Involves in the alteration of pt's perception of their environment through alteration in their level of consciousness, these are accomplished using three techniques, which are those
General anesthesia
1 - Inhalation agents
2 - Injection agents
3 - Instillation agent
Involves the delivery of gases across the alveolar membrane to the vascular system, where the agent is able to cross the blood - brain barrier affecting CNS function
Agent inhalation
Administration of medication direct to the bloodstream intravenous
Agent injection
The administration of medication into an area as a rectum, where the agent is absorbed via mucous membranes and transported to the CNS by the circulatory system
Agent instillation
There are four stage of depth of general anesthesia
- Stage 1
Is referred to amnesia stage, begins w/ initial administration of anesthetic agents to loss of conscious
- Stage 2
Consist of period from the loss of conscious to the return of regular breathing and loss of eyelid reflex.
- Stage 3
Consist of period between the onset of regular breathing and loss of eyelid reflex to the cessation of breathing
- Stage 4
Dilated and nonreactive pupils mark this stage as do the cessation of respiration and marked hypotension leading to circulatory failure
There are fourr phases of general anesthesia
- Phase 1
Induction phase
Involves altering pt's level of consciousness from the conscious (alert) state to unconsciousness ( asleep) state
Induction may be carried out in two ways:
a) One
b) Two
a) The use of an IV induction agent
b) Inhalation of gaseous vapors
TO KNOW:
- Mamagement and maintenance of the pt's airway is critical and may involve the use of oral or nasal airway mask, laryngeal mask airway (LMA) or endotracheal intubation
0
- Phase 2
Maintenance phase
Surgical intervention take place during this phase, maintenance of homeostatic function of all vital organs w/ the provision of appropriate operating conditions is critical for both successful anesthetic delivery and surgical outcome
Anesthesia administration is most dynamic during this period, as the anesthesia provider need to monitor closely pt for:
any change in O2 saturation
Blood loss
Muscle relaxation status
Cardiac status
- Phase 3
Emergence phase
Occur as surgical intervention is being completed, the goal is to have the pt as awake as possible at the end of surgical intervention.
The primary focus in this period is the monitoring of:
Adequate independent respiratory rate and function
Restoration of gag reflex
a) At this state of consciouness increase the pt is at risk for:
b) Is common see the pt doing
a) Laryngospasm
b) Rigidity and tremor
- Phase 4
Recovery phase
Is the period of time in which the pt returns to the optimun level of consciousness and well - being, usially begins in the OR and carries through the PACU
Advantages of general surgery
Pt is unaware of activities and noise
Once the airway is secured, the depth & rate of respiration can be controlled
Medication can be easy titrated
Muscle relaxation for intubation
TO KNOW:
Risk and complication of general anesthesia is the aspiration of secretions or gastric contents in trauma pt w/ full stomach.
- Induction agents and neuromuscular blockage both permit relaxation of the cardioesophageal sphincter causing the pt to vomit and the secretion enter in the esophagus.
Without adequate protection of the trachea by functioning epiglottis "gag reflex" application of what should be performed:
Cricoid pressure
The gastric secretion or contents may be aspirated into the airway, resulting in and this is referred as:
Chemical pneumonitis that could become bacterial.
Aspiration pneumonia
a) Is performed to reduce the risk of aspiration
b) This is designed to:
a) Sellick's maneuver or cricoid pressure
b) Prevent stomach content from ejection during vomiting and reduce the risk of aspiration into the respiratory tract
Describe how to apply the pressure
Firm pressure is applied w/ a thumb and index finger forming a V to the cricoid cartilage, located inferior to the prominence of the thyroid cartilage.
a) Are reactions demonstrated by a lightly anesthetized pt
b) This may be triggered by:
c) This may occur during:
a) Laryngospasm or bronchospasm
b) Saliva on the back of throat or inflammation due to endotracheal tube placement
c) Induction of or emergence from anesthesia
a) Is potentially fatal hypermetabolic state of muscle activity
b) Resulted by
a) Malignant hyperthermia or hyperpyrexia
b) Defect in calcium transportation within the muscle fibers of the skeletal muscle
c) Due to the inability of the calcium release the muscles cannot:
d) MH is what type of dz.
c) relax, resulting in rigidity, heat generation, biuld up lactic acid and carbon dioxide, tachycardia.
d) Genetically transmitted dz more commonly seen in male than female.
MH can be triggered by:
Succinylcholine
Curare
Halogenated inhalation agents
Strenouss exercises
Stress or trauma
a) The first sign of MH is
Followed by:
c) The last sign is
a) Unexplained tachycardia - tachypnea and increase level of CO2
b) Unstable blood pressure, perspiration, muscle rigidity and cyanotic
c) Rise in body temp sometimes as high as 107F
Describe the treatment in order for MH
1 - Dentrolene mixed w/ sterile injectable H2O, a loading dose of 2.5 mg/Kg followed dose of 1 mg/Kf every 5 minutes until a maximun dose of 10 mg/Kg
2 - Administration of sodium bicarbonate to assist metabolic and respiratory acidose.
-
3 - Dextrose or insulin to maintain cellular metabolism
4 - Furosemide or mannintol to promote renal clearance
5 - Heparin to prevent intravascular clot formation
Is a deficiency syndrome, genetically transmitted trait that decrease the amount of ACh-ase (acetylcholinesterase) available in the neuromuscular junction to break down ACh during muscle stimulation
Pseudocholinesterase deficiency syndrome
(PCDS)
Treatment for PCDS
There is NO treatment beside the respiratory support of the pt until the body eliminates the neuromuscular blockage
a) May be mild ( skin irritation) to life threatening (anaphylaxis)
b) Treatment
a) Allergic reaction
b) Depend on the severity of reaction
a) Is an abnormal psysiological state that indicated by a presence of reduction cardiac output, tachycardia, hypotension and diminished urinary output
b) The goal treatment is
a) Shock
b) Promote optimal circulatory load and function
a) Involve abnormal heart rate or rhythm
b) This may be:
c) Life treatening include
d) Treatment is
a) Cardiac dysrhythmias
b) Atrial or ventricular
c) Ventricular tachycardia or ventricular fibrillation
d) IV administration of lidocaine hydrochloride
a) Involves the cessation of heart pumping action and blood circulation
b) The initial treatment is
c) Followed by
a) Cardiac arrest
b) CPR
c) ACLS - advance cardiac life support
Anesthetic agents are divided in three categories:
1 - Inhalation agents
2 - Intravenous agent
3 - Local/Regional agents
a) These agents pass into the bloodstream via pulmonary functions
b) Is not classified as anesthesic agents but is a component
a) Inhalation agents
b) Oxygen (O2)
a) Is a clear, colorless gas w/ subtle fruity odor and is the only true gas still in use
b) How this gas is diffused
a) Nitrous oxide
b) Closed spaces such as middle ear, bowel and pleural space
TO KNOW:
- Nitrous oxide is not sufficiently potent to be used alone for general surgical anesthesia, but may be used in conjuction w/ another gases to reduce the use of high concentration of other more potent and
dangerous inhalation agents
- N2O is eliminated by exhalation and may contribute to postop nause and vomiting.
Consist of group of liquids whose potent evaporative vapor, when inhalad produce general anesthesia through interaction w/ CNS
Volatiles agents
a) These agents also produce:
b) These agents are delivered from
a) Myocardial and respiratory depression, muscle tone decrease enhancing the ease of exposure to the surgical site
b) vaporizers attached in the anesthesia machine
a) Is a series of tubings from anesthesia machine called
b) Agents commonly use today include
c) Less commonly used:
d) What agents are considered triggering agents for MH
a) Anesthesia circuit
b) Sevoflurane - Desflurane and Isoflurane
c) Enflurane and Halothane
d) Halogenated agents
a) Is an odorless, non-pungent inhalation agent that does not cause irritation to the respiratory three, it has a rapid onset
b) This agent causes
c) This agent does not cause damage in what organs:
a) Sevoflurane ( Ultane)
b) Bradycardia, hypotension and cardiac dysrhythmias, reduce cardiac input, nausea, vomiting
c) Liver but may cause mild to moderate renal complications
a) Requires the use of heated vaporizer for administration, it has a pungent aroma, contra - indicated its use during inhalation induction, it provides rapid onset
b) Its safe for pt w/
a) Desflurane ( Suprane)
b) Is not biotransformed in the liver. Pt w/ hepatic insufficiency
a) Is a mildly pungent, musty smelling halogenate inhalation agent, provides moderate to rapid induction and recovery
b) It can causes
a) Isoflurane ( Forane)
b) Respiratory depressant and may cause hypotension
a) These are less commonly used agents, but have a pleasant, non=irritating aroma and are rapid acting.
b) Which one can cause alteration in renal function
a) Enflurane ( Ethrane) and Halothane ( Fluothane)
b) Enflurane (Ethrane)
a) It was intriduced in 1930s, is delivered direct into the bloodstream and act quickly
b) The access is through
c) Are removed from body by
a) Intravenous agents
b) Placement of catheter in peripheral vein of the upper extremities
c) Redistribution and biotransformation in the liver and kidneys
IV agents are grouped into:
Induction agents Dissocoative agents
Opioids Sedative/Tranquilizers
Neuromuscular blocking agents
Antimuscarinic (anticholanergetic) agents
Adjunctive agents
TO KNOW:
- IV induction agemts are used to permit rapid and pleasant transition from a state of consciouness to unconsciousness, while they DO NOT provide pain relief or motor- impulse blockage, it does produces sedation
and amnesia
- Hypotension and respiratory depression are common side effects.
a) Is a sedative - hypnotic introduced in practice in the early 1900s.
b) Nickname
c) When administrating what causes in the pt and why
d) What can do to prevent
a) Propofol ( Diprivan)
b) Milk of amnesia
c) Irritating the vein and discomfort, because its alkaline nature
d) Lidocane hydrochloride prior to adminstration of it
Is a non - barbiturate hypnotic agent used for induction and does NOT produce amalgesia
Etomidate (Amidate)
Is a short - acting potent barbiturate that does NOT provide anesthesia or muscle relaxation but does have hypnotic amnesic and sedative effect
Thiopental sodium ( Pentothal Sodium)
a) In combination w/ ____ and ____ has a ____ effect
b) Disadvantages are:
a) N2O, opioids, synergistic
b) Minor stimulation during lighter stage causing laryngospasm and may locally irritate the vein due the nature alkaline
Is similar in action as propofol and thiopental sodium, it has an ultrashort onset and duration of action
Methohexital sodium ( Brevital)
a) Produces amnesia and profound analgesia.
b) Is the most commonly used and is administrated IM or IV, but itself DOES NOT produce relaxation
c) What this agent can cause
a) Dissociative agents
b) Ketamine hydrochloride (Ketalar)
c) ICP, IOP and hypertension
a) Are group of narcotics classified ad analgesics in which produces sedation
b) How they act
a) Opioids/Opiate
b) Binding into CNS and spinal cord receptors decreasing in pain impulse transmission, euphoria and happiness also may be experienced
c) If high dosage is administrated what happens?
d) Are biotransformed primarily on
e) These are classified as by the FDA
f) Drugs in this classification are the:
c) Loss of consciuousness and respiratory depression
d) Liver and eliminated in urine
e) Class II controlled substance (narcotics)
f) Opiate morphine sulfate - synthetic opioid
Synthetic opioids include:
Meperidine (Demerol)
Fentanyl ( Sublimaze)
Sufentanil (Sufenta)
Alfentanil (Alfenta)
Remifentanil (Ultiva)
a) Is used to control severe pain and its administrated IM, IV or intrathecally
b) Side effects are:
a) Morphine sulfate
b) Bradycardia, hypotension, vasodilation, nausea, vomiting, confusion and respiratory depression
a) Is used to treat moderate to severe pain, may be administrated IM but is given IV
b) Side effects
a) Meperidine (Demerol)
b) Respiratory depression, increased ICP, tachycardia and vasodilation
a) Is the first synthetic narcotic analgesic to be used for anesthesia administration, given IV has a rapid onset and short duration in action
b) Adverse effect
a) Fentanyl citrate (Sublimaze)
b) Bradycardia, laryngospasm and cardio - respiratory arrest
a) Is narcotic analgesic, given an IV has a rapid onset but is 5x more potent than fentanyl citrate, produces analgesia w/ marked sedation and euphoria
b) Side effects are:
a) Sufentanil citrate ( Sufenta)
b) Respiratory depression
a) Is similar in action and usage to fentanyl and sufentanil but acts on pain receptors of the limbic system, thalamus, midbrain and hypothalamus and its has a short acting analgesic
b) Side effects are:
a) Alfentanil hydrochloride (Alfenta)
b) Respiratory depression
a) Is an ultra- short acting synthetic opioid metabolized in blood and muscle tissue
b) Side effects
a) Remefentanil hydrochloride (Ultiva)
b) Respiratory depression, bradycardia, hypotension and muscle rigidity
a) The opiods effect can be ____ or ____ by the administration of ______
b) This agent may cause
a) antagonized, reversed, naloxone hydrochloride (Narcan)
b) Tachycardia and hypertension
a) These agents are used in anesthesia in two ways:
b) The two most commonly used are:
a) Benzodiazepines (sedative tranquilizers)
1 - Reduce anxiety
2 - Adjunct to general anesthesia to reduce the amount and concentration of other more potent agent.
b) Diazepan (Valium) and Midazolam (Versed)
c) These group have the ability to produce:
c) Produce amnestic, anticonvulsive, hypnotic, muscle relaxation and sedative effects.
a) Valium and versa are what type of class
b) Valium acts by:
a) Class IV controlled substance
b) increasing the action of gamma-amino butyric acid (GABA) receptors site, particular in the limbic system
TO KNOW:
- Diazepan (Valium) reduces anxiety and provide some muscle ralaxation, it also provides retrograde amnesia of short duration.
- Given an IV has an onset of 5 minutes w/ 15 minutes duration and is metabolized in the liver for renal excretion
- Midazolam (Versed) has a rapid onset and short - acting benzodiazepine, its similar to diazepam, but its memory impairment is short duration.
- Since midazolam is twice as potent as diazepam the IV dosage is commonly diluted w/ injectable dextrose/water or saline for adminstration.
a) Is a butyrophenone which produces marked sedation w/ a long duration of action in additional is an antiemetic both intra and postoperativelly
b) Is also come premixed w/ ____ under the trade name of _____
a) Droperidol (Inapsine)
b) Fentanyl citrate - Innovar
a) The benzodiazepines may be antagonized by the administration of:
b) The functions are:
a) Flumazenil (Mazicon)
b) Reverse the sedative effect but may not reverse the amnesia effect
a) NMBs
b) Interfere w/ the passage of impulse from motor nerves to skeletal muscle
c) What it's causes
a) Neuromuscular blockers
b) Skeletal muscle relaxants or NMBs
c) muscle weakness and paralysis
NMBs agents are divided into 2 major categories
Depolarizing agents
Nondepolarizing agents
Work by mimicking a release of ACh across the neuromuscular junction
Depolarizig agents
The agents bind to the postsynaptic receptors causing the contraction to occur, the contraction and relaxation in the muscle is strong enough to be visible, this action is referred as
Fasciculation
a) Is an ultrashort - acting agent and is the main depolarizing agent in anesthetic used today
b) It also can cause
c) And can trigger
a) Succinylcholine (Anectine)
b) Increase in ICP and IOP
c) MH
a) Work by competing for postsynaptic receptors sites at the neuromuscular junction, preventing ACh from being able to stimulate muscle contraction
b) These agents further may be divided in
a) Nondepolarizing agents
b) Short - intermediate and long - acting agents
a) Name a short - acting nondepolarizing w/ intermediate onset
b) Name a short - acting nondepolarizing w/ rapid onset
c) Name an intermediated - acting w/ short onset
a) Mivacurium chloride (Mivacron)
Vecuronium bromide (Norcuron)
b) Rocuronium bromide (Zemuron)
c) Atracurium besylate ( Tracrium)
d) Name an intermediated - acting w/ intermediated duration of action
e) Name a long - acting w/ rapid onset
f) Name a long - acting w/ intermediate onset
d) Cisatracurium besylate (Nimbex)
e) Tubocurarine chloride (Curare)
f) Pancuronium bromide (Pavulon)
The reversal or antagonism of non- depolarizing neuromuscular agents can be produced through the use of one of two drugs
1 - Edrophonium chloride (Tensilon)
2 - Neostigmine (Prostigmin)
a) Agents act as blockers of cholinergic effect, it has 2 names
b) This agents are used to limit:
c) The 2 most common used are:
a) Antimuscarinic or Anticholenergic
b) Undesirable parasympathetic nervous system response such as salivation and bradycardia
c) Atropine sulfate - Glycopyrrolate (Robinul)
a) NSAID
b) Is a NSAID used for moderate pain control
a) Nonsteroidal anti - inflammatory drugs
b) Ketorolac ( Toradol)
a) Are agents used to alter the pH of gastric secretions and reduce gastric volume, they are given periop or intraop.
b) Include in this group oral
c) Include in this group IV
a) Histamine H2 - antigonist and antiacids
b) Citric acid (Bicitra)
c) Cimetidine (Tagamet) - Ranitidine (Zantac)
Is a cholinergic agent in which promotes pyloric emptying
Metoclopramide (Reglan)
Is a water based solution for injection that contains essential serum electrolytes in the forms of sodium chloride, potassium chloride and calcium chloride
Ringer's solution
Has a sodium lactate added in addition to the electrolytes which enables it to serve glucose source for body metabolism
Lactated Ringer's solution (LR)
Is a solution of water for injection w/ 5% concentration of dextrose monohydrate added, this correct hypoglycemia and replace water loss during normal metabolism
5% dextrose solution (D5W)
Is a solution of water for injection w/ an addition of sodium chloride, is used to correct deficits of sodium and chloride and treat metabolism alkalosis
0.9% sodium chloride - Normal saline NS
Types of treatment incorporated into balanced anesthesia are:
Induced hypothermia
Induced hypotension
Neuroleptanalgesia
Neuroleptanesthesia
a) Involves in the artificial, deliberate lowering of the body's core temp below normal limits
b) The resulting of lower temperature causes:
a) Induced hypothermia
b) Reduction of body metabolism, oxygen and glucose consumption and waste production
There are four levels involved w/ induced hypothermia
1 - Light hypothermia = 98.6 - 89.6
2 - Moderate hypothermia = 89.6 - 78.8
3 - Deep hypothermia = 78.8 - 68
4 - Profound hypothermia = 68 and below
a) Is an adjunctive therapy involving a controlled decrease of arterial pressure during anesthesia administration.
b) The results are:
a) Induced hypotension
b) Decrease in bleeding to increase ability to visualize the site
a) Utilizes high doses of neuroleptics and narcotics analgesics agents to induce a state of diminished anxiety, sedation and amnesia
b) Two most common medication used are:
a) Neuroleptanalgesia
b) Fentanyl citrate and Meperidine hydrochloride
Occur when Neuroleptanalgesia is reinforced w/ an inhalation or IV anesthetic agent
Neuroleptanesthesia
Involves the use of pharmaceutical agents to prevent the initiation and/or transmission of sensory nerve impulse
Nerve conduction blockage
A variety of technique are used for nerve conduction blockage
Topical anesthesia - Regional anesthesia
Local anesthesia - Nerve plexus block
Spinal block ( Intrathecal)
Epidural block
Bier block
It act by competing for Ca site in nerve sheaths, inhibiting sodium transportation in sodium - potassium pump preventing impulse transmission, these are commonly referred as
Local or regional anesthesia
Are used in low concentrations w/ exception of cocaine hydrochloride, these agents are divided in two groups
Nerve conduction blockage
Amino amides - Amino esters
This drugs group are metabolized in the liver and excreted by the kidneys and include :
Amino amide group
Lidocaine hydrochloride (Xylocaine, Lignocaine)
Mepivacaine HCl (Carbocaine) - Etidocaine HCl (Duranest
Bupivacaine HCl (Marcaine, Sensorcaine)
a) Can be administrated topically for application on mucous membranes, infiltrated locally on peripheral nerve block or injected epidural
b) Maximum dose for infiltration is:
a) Lidocaine HCl (Xylocaine - Lignocaine)
b) 7 mg/Kg or 500 mg
- It can be prepared in packaging w/ or without epinephrine
a) Acts similar to lidocaine but has longer action
b) Maximum dose is:
a) Mepivacaine HCl ( Carbocaine)
b) 5 - 6 mg/Kg or 500 mg
a) Is an agent that is four times more potent than lidocaine and has longer onset of action and longer duration of effect
b) Maximum dose is:
a) Bupivacaine (Marcaine, Sensorcaine)
b) 400 mg in 24 hrs period
175 mg plain or 225 mg w/ epi 1:200.000
a) Is an agent w/ prolonged onset and longer duration of action, is highly toxic and contraindicated for children young than 12 years old
b) Maximum recommended is
a) Etidocaine HCL ( Duranest)
b) 400 mg or 8 mg/Kg
a) Is an agent slightly less potent than bupivacaine but has less overall toxicity, has a long onset and duration of action, is used in concentration less than 1% and is not combined w/ epi.
Ropivacaine HCl (Naropin)
b) Is commonly use for:
c) Maximum dose recommended is:
b) Major nerve conduction blockage - Epidural for labor and delivery - postop pain management special followed by a major abdominal, cardiac and thoracic surgery
c) 0.5 - 1% is 250 mg
a) Drugs in this group are bio transformed by pseudocholonesterase in plasma
b) And include:
a) Amino esters
b) Procaine HCl ( Novocaine) - Tetracaine HCl (Pontocaine and Cetacaine)
a) Cocaine HCl is still in use in the OR today but only for
b) In concentration of 4 - 10% produces:
c) Maximum dose is:
a) Topical agent of the upper aerodigestive tract due to its high toxicity
b) Anesthesia and vasoconstriction causing shrinkage of mucous membrane
c) 200 mg or 4 mg/Kg
Has similar properties of cocaine HCl but is less toxic and is available for SC, IM or Intrathecal injection
Procaine HCl (Novocaine)
a) Is an agent w/ slow onset of action but prolonged duration
b) Is primarily used for
a) Tetracaine HCL (Cetacaine, Pontocaine)
b) Topical anesthesia on otopharyngeal mucous membrane and ocular membrane or for Intrathecal injection during spinal anesthesia administration
Two adjunctive agents commonly associated w/ nerve conduction blockage are:
1 - Hyaluronidase ( Wydase)
2 - Epinephrine (Adrenaline)
a) Is an agent added to local infiltration to assist in their distribution into the subcutaneous tissue for contact w/ peripheral nerve
b) This is useful during___
a) Hyaluronidase ( Wydase)
b) Retrobulbar eye block
a) Is a potent vasoconstriction
b) And provides two main benefits for surgeon and for the pt.
a) Epinephrine (Adrenaline)
b) 1 - Area's of blood supply is limited and intraop. bleeding is reduced
2 - Due to blood supply limited in the area the body is unable to redistribute the anesthetic effectively, prolonging the overall anesthesia
a) Caution w/ administration of epi to pt w/
b) Epinephrine should be limited during administration of
a) Hypertension and cardiac dz
b) Digital and penile block
- The label of this premixed med w/ epi is usually color coded red to indicate the addition of epi.
a) Involves the placement of a nerve conduction blocking agent onto a tissue layer
b) And is used to provide anesthesia on:
a) Topical anesthesia
b) Mucous membrane of upper aerodigestive tract, urethra, vagina, rectum and skin
a) Involves the reduction of nerve conduction/transmission by localized cooling
b) Examples of agents typically used for topical anesthesia
a) Cryoanesthesia
b) Lidocaine and cocaine
Involves the injection of a nerve conduction blocking agent into a tissue surrounding a peripheral nerve or nerves that serve only the tissue at the site of surgical intervention
Local infiltration
Involves a combination of nerve conduction blockage on the topical or local level that is supplemented w/ analgesics, sedatives or amnesic
MAC - monitored anesthesia care
a) Involves the administration of an anesthetic along a major nerve tract
b) Commonly types include:
a) Regional blockade
b) Nerve plexus block - Bier block - Spinal block and Epidural block
Is usually accomplished w/ the injection of an anesthetic solution in an area of major plexus, such as:
Nerve plexus block
Brachial plexus
Provides anesthesia to the distal portion of the upper extremities by injecting a large volume of low concentration anesthetic agent into a vein at the level below the tourniquet
Bier block
TO KNOW:
- The proximal tourniquet is inflated to a level approximately 100 mm Hg above the systolic blood pressure.
- Bier block is used on intervention of the extremities of 1 hours duration or less, at the conclusion of the surgical intervention the tourniquet is slowly release permitting the agent to circulate through the body.
a) Also referred as Intrathecal block, is an injection of an anesthetic agent into the CSF in the subarachnoid space between the meningeal layers
Spinal block
a) In spinal anesthesia, refers to the specific gravity of the anesthetic solution in comparison to CSF.
b) Solution w/ high gravity are referred as:
c) Solution w/ low gravity are referred as:
d) Solution w/ same specific gravity are referred as:
a) Baricity
b) Hyperbaric solution
c) Hypobaric solution
d) Isobaric
a) Hyperbaric
b) Hypobaric
c) Isobaric
a) Solution tends to settle toward gravity
b) Solution tends to move away from gravity
c) Solution w/ same specific gravity
a) Involves the administration of anesthetic agent into the tissue directly or above the Dura mater, through which is absorbed into CSF.
b) Involve in the administration of nerve conduction - block into epidural space in the sacral canal
a) Epidural anesthesia
b) Caudal anesthesia
a) Are devices placed on pt's nose or mouth, between the vocal cord and into the trachea to provide airway intraop or during ventilation support.
b) Is made of malleable metal or stiff plastic and is placed within the lumen of the tube
a) Endotracheal tube (ET)
b) Stylet
c) Is an instrument used for aid and facilitate the placement of nasotracheal tubes and nasogastric tube or to insert pharyngeal package
d) Is a device used to expose the glottis to facilitate ET intubation
c) McGill forceps
d) Laryngoscope
e) LMA
f) Is used to cover the nose and mouth are of the pt and permit the delivery of anesthetic agents and O2 to pt.
g) Are devices used to provide passageway around the relaxed tongue, establishing an unobstructed airway for gas exchange
e) Laryngeal mask airway
f) Face mask
g) Oropharyngeal and nasal airways
Types to monitoring devices are:
Electrocardiogram - BP monitor
Arterial and venous catheterization
Temperature monitors - Pulse oximeter
continue next side
Bispectral Index (BIS)
System for anesthetic and Respiratory Analysis (SARA)
Doppler - ultrasonic device to identity vascular status
Peripheral nerve stimulator
Arterial blood gases (ABG)