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75 Cards in this Set
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1. Which of the following statements regarding convenience stairs is MOST accurate?
A. Convenience stairs are part of the means of egress B. Convenience stairs are typically closed. C. Convenience stairs are usually limited to connecting only two levels. D. Convenience stairs do not need to meet the same general safety requirements as exit stairs |
C. Convenience stairs are usually limited to connecting only two levels.
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2. Which types of stairs have an intermediate landing between floors and reverse direction at that point?
A. Return stairs B. Scissor stairs C. Twin stairs D. Turnabout stairs |
A. Return stairs
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3. Which type of stairs place two sets of stairs in a common shaft?
A. Return stairs B. Scissor stairs C. Turnout stairs D. Twin stairs |
B. Scissor stairs
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4. Building codes have traditionally required a minimum of one smokeproof stair enclosure for stairs serving buildings of __ stories or higher.
A. two B. three C. four D. five |
D. five
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5. Which standard is the basis for most elevator regulations?
A. ASTM E-84 B. NFPA 1500 C. ISO 9000 D. ASME/ANSI A17.1 |
D. ASME/ANSI A17.1
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6. Which type of elevator employs hoist cables that run up and over the drive sheave at the top of the hoistway and then down the back wall of the hoistway to connect to moveable counterweights?
A. Traction B. Reel C. Friction D. Gravity |
A. Traction
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7. Which of the following are located at the bottom of the elevator pit and act as shock absorbers if the terminal switch fails?
A. Car safeties B. Buffers C. Terminal bumpers D. Insulators |
B. Buffers
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8. Elevator hoistway enclosures usually are required to have a fire rating of __ hours
A. 1/2 to 2 B. 1 to 2 C. 1 1/2 to 2 1/2 D. 1 1/2 to 3 |
B. 1 to 2
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9. Elevator zones usually serve __ floors.
A. 5 to 10 B. 10 to 15 C. 15 to 20 D. 20 to 25 |
C. 15 to 20
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10. What method of preventing mushrooming do building codes require in elevator hoistways?
A. Venting at the top B. Exhaust fans C. Automatic sprinkler protection D. Fire-resistive materials |
A. Venting at the top
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11. When more than one hoistway is provided, up to __ elevators may be located on one hoistway
A. two B. four C. six D. eight |
B. four
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12. Moving stairs (escalators) are now standardized to operate at speeds of __ feet (meters) per minute.
A. 90 (27) B. 100 (30) C. 110 (34) D. 120 (37) |
B. 100 (30)
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13. Which of the following statements regarding moving stairs is MOST accurate?
A. Typically, vertical openings created by escalators need to be protected when serving more than three floors B. Vertical opening can be protected by a rolling shutter at the bottom of the escalator C. The most common method of protecting the vertical opening created by an escalator is using closely spaced sprinklers in conjunction with draft stops. D. A partial enclosure uses a single fire-rated enclosure for both the up and down escalator. |
C. The most common method of protecting the vertical opening created by an escalator is using closely spaced sprinklers in conjunction with draft stops
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14. A pipe chase contains:
A. telecommunications cables B. hot and cold water C. electrical raceways D. heating ductwork |
B. hot and cold water
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15. A building may use __ instead of pipe chases
A. stacked ductwork B. stacked mechanical rooms C. fire-rated shafts D. vertical chutes |
B. stacked mechanical rooms
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16. Systems that make use of water for heat transfer are known as __ systems
A. conditioned B. hydronic C. forced water D. aquatic |
B. hydronic
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17. Which of the following statements regarding locating the HVAC equipment room on a roof is MOST accurate?
A. Locating HVAC equipment on a roof makes it more difficult to take in makeup air B. Locating HVAC equipment on a roof makes it easy to eject exhaust air C. Locating HVAC equipment on a roof requires more power to supply the entire building D. Locating HVAC equipment on a roof makes it easier to control the needs of multiple zones |
B. Locating HVAC equipment on a roof makes it easy to eject exhaust air
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18. Which of the following statements regarding air heating and cooling equipment is MOST accurate?
A. Cooling equipment hazards are limited solely to hazards associated with the refrigerant B. Codes limit heating equipment to the use of electricity or steam C. Some refrigerants have been prohibited due to environmental concerns. D. Replacements for prohibited refrigerants are less hazardous for firefighters |
C. Some refrigerants have been prohibited due to environmental concerns.
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19. Smoke control means the use of:
A. fire equipment to ventilate the building B. mechanical equipment to produce pressure differences across smoke barriers C. fire equipment to eliminate pressure differences across smoke barriers D. mechanical equipment to eliminate pressure differences across smoke barriers |
B. mechanical equipment to produce pressure differences across smoke barriers
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20. Which of the following statements regarding manual smoke control is MOST accurate?
A. Manual smoke control operation is relatively fast B. Automatic control should always take precedence over manual control C. Manual control eliminates system disruption due to false alarms D. The manual smoke control system can only be controlled at the building's main control room. |
C. Manual control eliminates system disruption due to false alarms
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21. Stopping air supply to the fire floor while continuing air supply to non-fire floors creates a:
A. negative pressure B. misdirection of smoke C. pressure sandwich D. smothering of the fire |
C. pressure sandwich
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22. Which of the following statements regarding pressurized stairwells is MOST accurate?
A. Pressurized stairwells use a blower or fan to provide slightly less pressure in the stairwell than the corridor. B. NFPA 92A requires a minimum pressure difference of 0.75 inches, water gauge across a smoke barrier in a sprinklered building C. effectiveness of pressurized stairwells can be compromised by loss of pressure when doors to the stairwell are opened. D. Stairwell pressurization systems require minimal engineering analysis |
C. Effectiveness of pressurized stairwells can be compromised by loss of pressure when doors to the stairwell are opened.
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23. Which of the following statements regarding a compensated system for pressurized stairwells is MOST accurate?
A. A compensated system adjusts the airflow in the stairwell based on the number of occupants in the stairwell B. Modulating the air supply can be accomplished using dampers C. Overpressure relief is accomplished through the use of pressure sensors. D. Air supply modulation can be accomplished by varying the speed of the fan. |
D. Air supply modulation can be accomplished by varying the speed of the fan
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24. Which of the following is a highly hazardous substance used in older transformer cooling oils?
A. DDTs B. HFCs C. ERGs D. PCBs |
D. PCBs
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25. Day-tanks located in the same room or mounted directly on a generator are typically limited by fire code to __ gallons (liters) of diesel fuel.
A. 60 (240) B. 40 (200) C. 20 (80) D. 10 (40) |
A. 60 (240)
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1. Which of the following statements regarding incidental trim is MOST accurate?
A. Building codes control incidental trim more rigidly because it is a continuous surface. B. Window frames are considered incidental trim. C Material is generally considered incidental trim as long as it doesn't exceed ten percent of the wall and ceiling area. D. Doors are considered incidental trim. |
C. Material is generally considered incidental trim as long as it doesn't exceed ten percent of the wall and ceiling area.
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2. Building codes usually exclude surface treatments such as paint and wallpaper that are no thicker than __ inch (mm).
A. 1/10 (2.5) B. 1/16 (1.6) C. 1/22 (1.1) D. 1/28 (0.9) |
D. 1/28 (0.9)
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3. The degree to which fire can spread over the surface of a material is technically referred to as the __ characteristics.
A. heat release B. surface burning C. surface combustibility D. flame spread |
B. surface burning
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4. Which of the following statements is MOST accurate?
A. A thin product will propagate flame more quickly when attached to studs with an air space behind the material B. A thin product will propagate flame more quickly when attached to solid material C. A thin product will propagate flame slower when attached to studs with an air space behind the material D. Building codes do not differentiate what interior finish material can be mounted over combustible material |
A. A thin product will propagate flame more quickly when attached to studs with an air space behind the material
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5. Materials with the interior finish classification Class A (0-25) rating are required in:
A. corridors that provide exit access B. corridors with no exit access C. vertical exits D. rooms with automatic sprinklers |
C. vertical exits
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6. The maximum flame spread rating allowed of interior finish material is
A. 100 B. 200 C. 300 D. 400 |
B. 200
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7. Heat release rate is BEST defined as the total amount of heat produced or released to the atmosphere from the __ fire phase of a fire per unit mass of fuel consumed per unit of time.
A. convection-lift B. conduction C. radiation D. ignition |
A. convection-lift
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8. In determining the flame spread rating of interior finishes, their most critical application would be on the
A. floor B. interior walls C. ceiling D. perimeter of the room exits |
C. ceiling
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9. Which of the following statements regarding flame spread rating tests is the MOST accurate?
A. Even though interior finish material is intended to be used in varying thicknesses, it only needs to be tested in a single thickness. B. Test conditions provide an absolute measure of the spread of fire travel. C. Plastic material that drips on the floor of the test furnace will not affect the accuracy of the evaluation of the material D. For test results to be accurate, specimens must be attached to the furnace with the same materials and methods used in the actual installations |
D. For test results to be accurate, specimens must be attached to the furnace with the same materials and methods used in the actual installations
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10. Which of the following statements regarding the smoke developed rating is MOST accurate?
A. Asbestos cement board is used as the standard testing material to determine the smoke developed rating B. The standard testing material has been assigned a smoke developed rating of 200 C. The smoke developed rating is a measure of the relative visual obscurity created by smoke from the tested material D. The smoke developed rating includes the indication of the material's volatility |
C. The smoke developed rating is a measure of the relative visual obscurity created by smoke from the tested material
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11. All of the following are fire-retardant coatings EXCEPT:
A. intumescent paint. B. water C. mastics D. cementitious coatings |
B. water
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12. Test procedures to measure surface burning characteristics that incorporate the size and shape of real rooms are known as __ tests.
A. room B. corner C. scale D. vertical |
B. corner
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13. A large scale test developed for evaluating performance of materials that may not remain in place during the tunnel test is
A. NFPA 265 B. NFPA 286 C. ASTM-E84 D. ASTM-E89 |
B. NFPA 286
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14. Which of the following statements regarding compartmentation is MOST accurate?
A. Compartmentation is a form of active fire protection B. Compartmentation is not required if there is an area of refuge in a building C. Building codes contain explicit requirements for fire-rated walls in various occupancies D. Building code requirements for compartmentation are increasing |
C. Building codes contain explicit requirements for fire-rated walls in various occupancies
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15. Assemblies that may be required by code to have a minimum fire resistance rating from an independent testing agency because of the occupancy are called __ assemblies
A. rated B. graded C. scaled D. ranked |
A. rated
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16. Which of the following statements regarding fire walls is MOST accurate?
A. Fire walls should not be used to separate various functions within a plant B. Fire walls are popular with designers because they reduce structural costs C. When a section of a building on one side of a fire wall becomes heavily involved, the fire wall is a natural line along which to establish a defense. D. Fire doors or similar openings in fire walls should not be used as protected vantage points from which to attack the main body of a fire. |
C. When a section of a building on one side of a fire wall becomes heavily involved, the fire wall is a natural line along which to establish a defense.
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17. Freestanding fire walls are most often found in buildings of __ construction
A. steel frame and heavy timber B. concrete or masonry C. steel frame or concrete frame D. wood frame or masonry |
D. wood frame or masonry
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18. Freestanding walls must be designed to resist a lateral load of at least __ pounds per square foot (kPa)
A. 2.5 (0.12) B. 5 (0.24) C. 7.5 (0.36) D. 10 (0.48) |
B. 5 (0.24)
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19. A four-hour rated fire wall usually must be constructed of
A. steel or heavy timber B. concrete or masonry C. steel or concrete D. wood or masonry |
B. concrete or masonry
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20. The height of a fire wall's parapet must be __ inches (mm) above the combustible roof.
A. 6 to 12 (150 to 300) B. 12 to 24 (300 to 600) C. 18 to 36 (450 to 900) D. 24 to 48 (600 to 1200) |
C. 18 to 36 (450 to 900)
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21. Which of the following statements regarding fire partitions is MOST accurate?
A. Fire partitions qualify as fire walls B. Fire partitions may extend continuously throughout a building C. Fire partitions are required to have as much fire resistance as a fire wall D. Fire partitions are usually erected from a floor to the underside of the floor above |
D. Fire partitions are usually erected from a floor to the underside of the floor above
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22. Which of the following statements regarding enclosure walls is MOST accurate?
A. The main difference between enclosure walls and partition walls is their fire rating B. Depending on the height of the building, enclosure walls are required to have a fire resistance of one to four hours C. Fire rated glazing may not be used in conjunction with stair enclosures D. Enclosure walls may be constructed of gypsum board with wood studs |
D. Enclosure walls may be constructed of gypsum board with wood studs
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23. Stairwells in buildings taller than three stories are required to have __ enclosures.
A. one-hour B. two-hour C. three-hour D. four-hour |
B. two-hour
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24. Non-fire-resistive curtain walls frequently extend form the floor of one level to the ceiling allowing:
A. flames to overlap the edge of a fire-resistive floor slab and expose the floor above B. flames to communicate horizontally across the ceiling and create a mushroom effect. C. the fire-resistive floor slab above to create an absolute barrier to the fire spread D. flames to communicate vertically up the inside of the building |
A. flames to overlap the edge of a fire-resistive floor slab and expose the floor above
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25. The two aspects of a curtain wall of greatest concern to firefighters are its lack of fire resistance and the
A. extent to which it permits vertical communication of fire B. difficulty with which it may be penetrated C. likelihood of structural failure due to its collapse D. danger of its collapsing inward on occupants |
A. extent to which it permits vertical communication of fire
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26. The primary criterion during a fire door test is that the door:
A. automatically open and close B. remain in place C. not ignite D. not smolder |
B. remain in place
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27. Which of the following statements regarding builder's hardware used on fire doors is MOST accurate?
A. Builder's hardware is used on sliding fire doors B. Builder's hardware includes hinges, locks, and closers C. Builder's hardware must be inspected by the fire inspector before installation D. Builder's hardware must be shipped with the fire doors |
B. Builder's hardware includes hinges, locks, and closers
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28. In addition to higher hourly fire ratings than wire glass, some recently developed fire rated glazing is:
A. melt proof B. patterned for visual appeal C. impact resistant D. flexible |
C. impact resistant
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29. Which of the following statements regarding devices used to operate a fire door is MOST accurate?
A. The simplest device used to operate a fire door is a smoke detector B. A fusible link operates as quickly as a device that reacts to smoke C. A smoke detector used to operate a fire door permits easy testing of the door D. A fusible link is a more expensive operating device than a smoke detector |
C. A smoke detector used to operate a fire door permits easy testing of the door
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30. Which type of fire door is a good choice where the door is frequently closed and pedestrian traffic must be provided for?
A. swinging B. horizontal sliding C. horizontal folding D. rolling steel |
A. swinging
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1. The allowable foundation pressure for sandy soil is __ pounds per square foot (kPa)
A. 1,000 B. 1250 C. 1500 D. 1750 |
C. 1500
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2. Which of the following statements regarding test borings is MOST accurate?
A. Test pits are used at depths greater than those of test borings B. Test borings provide information on bearing capacity of soil through the use of a drill C. Several test borings are usually conducted to determine soil characteristics at a building site. D. The boring tube cannot return information about the water table |
C. Several test borings are usually conducted to determine soil characteristics at a building site.
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3. What is the GREATEST difference between test pits and test borings?
A. Types of soil measured B. Information on water table C. Depth of soil measured D. Type of building being assessed |
C. Depth of soil measured
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4. The type of foundation required for a project depends on the type of building and the __ at the site.
A. soil conditions B. wind loads C. environmental conditions D. seismic forces |
A. soil conditions
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5. The function of a foundation is to
A. bear the weight of the structure B. convert live load to dead load C. transfer the structural load to the ground D. provide lateral reinforcement for walls |
C. transfer the structural load to the ground
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6. Which of the following statements regarding shallow foundations is MOST accurate?
A. Shallow foundations transfer the weight of the building from the base of the building to the surrounding soil B. Shallow foundations are used when the load-bearing ability of the soil beneath the building is inadequate to support the building C. Shallow foundations usually make use of footings to transmit the load to the soil D. Shallow foundations are more costly than deep foundations |
C. Shallow foundations usually make use of footings to transmit the load to the soil
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7. Wall footings are __ that support the wall
A. square pads of concrete B. continuous strips of concrete C. thick slabs of concrete D. layers of beams at right angles encased in concrete |
B. continuous strips of concrete
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8. Which of the following statements regarding a floating foundation is MOST accurate?
A. a floating foundation is a thin slab beneath the entire building B. a floating foundation is located at a depth where the weight of the soil removed is equal to the weight of the building C. a floating foundation is used where soil strength is moderate to high D. The difference between a floating foundation and a mat foundation is the thickness of the slab |
B. a floating foundation is located at a depth where the weight of the soil removed is equal to the weight of the building
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9. One story depth of soil can be equal to __ stories of a building
A. 1 to 3 B. 3 to 6 C. 5 to 8 D. 7 to 10 |
C. 5 to 8
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10. Which of the following statements regarding pile and piers is MOST accurate?
A. piles are constructed by drilling or digging a shaft B. Piers can be timber, steel, or precast concrete C. When a pier is designed with a footing, it is known as a caisson D. Piles develop their load-bearing ability through either friction with the surrounding soil or contact with rock or a load-bearing soil layer |
D. Piles develop their load-bearing ability through either friction with the surrounding soil or contact with rock or a load-bearing soil layer
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11. The material most commonly used for foundation walls is
A. concrete block B. stone C. concrete D. brick |
C. concrete
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12. Which of the following materials is found only in older foundation walls?
A. concrete block B. stone C. concrete D. brick |
B. stone
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13. Which of the following statements regarding cracks in a foundation wall is MOST accurate?
A. Vertical or horizontal misalignment indicates movement or shift in the structure B. Change in size or extension of cracks is a normal result of settling and are not of concern C. Any crack in a foundation wall will affect the ability of the wall to support or distribute its load D. Vertical or horizontal misalignment does not change the imposition of loads on structural members |
A. Vertical or horizontal misalignment indicates movement or shift in the structure
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14. Which of the following statements regarding materials used to construct foundation wall is MOST accurate?
A. Concrete block is found only in older buildings B. Stone foundation walls are often constructed without bonding mortar or cement C. Wood foundations are more difficult to insulate D. Concrete foundations rarely develop fissures or cracks |
B. Stone foundation walls are often constructed without bonding mortar or cement
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15. Which of the following statements regarding expanded polystyrene (EPS) is MOST accurate?
A. EPS is sometimes placed on the inside of foundation walls for insulation B. foundations must be dug deeper if EPS is used C. EPS increases heat transfer to surrounding soil D. use of EPS results in a frost line closer to the surface |
D. use of EPS results in a frost line closer to the surface
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16. Outward movement of a foundation is called:
A. linear tracking B. settlement C. heaving D. lateral displacement |
D. lateral displacement
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17. Which of the following statements regarding building settlement is MOST accurate?
A. Uniform settlement results in significant misalignment between structural members. B. Differential settlement occurs when parts of the foundation settle in different amounts C. Minimal settlement will occur if a foundation rests on clay D. Differential settlement occurs when parts of the foundation settle at different times. |
B. Differential settlement occurs when parts of the foundation settle in different amounts
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18. Which of the following can result in differential settlement?
A. non-uniform soil conditions under the foundation B. footings of equal size C. footings placed at the same elevations D. equal loads on footings |
A. non-uniform soil conditions under the foundation
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19. Which of the following is MOST LIKELY to result in the need for underpinnings?
A. construction of additional stories B. foundation on bedrock C. uniform building settlement D. remodeling of existing structure |
A. construction of additional stories
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20. Which of the following statements regarding shoring and underpinnings is MOST accurate?
A. shoring refers to permanent supports for a building B. placement of shoring and underpinning involves excavation by hand C. Fire departments are typically called to shoring and underpinning work in response to fire started by power tools in closed spaces D. Underpinning refers to the placement of temporary support for a foundation |
B. placement of shoring and underpinning involves excavation by hand
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