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550 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
What can altered cellular and tissue biology result from?
(1) adaptation
(2) injury
(3) neoplasia
(4) aging
(5) death
What does adaptation occur in response to?
both normal, or physiologic, conditions and adverse, or pathologic, conditions
What is injury classified as?
(1) chemical
(2) hypoxic (lack of sufficient oxygen)
(3) free radical
(4) intentional
(5) unintentional
(6) immunologic
(7) infection
(8) inflammatory
How is cellular death confirmed?
by structural changes seen when cells are stained and examined under a microscope
What does cellular aging cause?
structural and functional changes that eventually may lead to cellular death or a decreased capacity to recover from injury.
Why do cells adapt to their environment?
to escape and protect themselves from injury
What are the most significant adaptive changes in cells?
(1) atrophy (decrease in cell size)
(2) hypertrophy (increase in cell size)
(3) hyperplasia (increase in cell number)
(4) metaplasia (reversible replacement of one mature cell type by another less mature cell type)
Is dysplasia (deranged cellular growth) considered a true cellular adaptation?
no, it is considered an atypical hyperplasia
What is atrophy?
a decrease or shrinkage in cellular size
What happens if atrophy occurs in a sufficient number of an organ's cells?
the entire organ shrinks and becomes atrophic
Atrophy can affect any organ but where is it most commonly seen?
(1) skeletal muscle
(2) the heart
(3) secondary sex organs
(4) the brain
When does physiologic atrophy occur?
during early development

for example, the thymus gland undergoes physiologic atrophy during childhood
Why does pathologic atrophy occur?
it occurs as a result of decreases in workload, pressure, use, blood supply, nutrition, hormonal stimulation, and nervous stimulation
What is disuse atrophy?
a type of skeletal muscle atrophy exhibited by individuals who are immobilized in bed for a prolonged time
What does aging cause in reference to atrophy?
causes brain cells to become atrophic and endocrine-dependent organs, such as the gonads, to shrink as hormonal stimulation decreases
How does an atrophic muscle cell differ from a regular muscle cell?
it has less endoplasmic reticulum and fewer mitochondria and myofilaments (part of the muscle fiber that controls contraction) than does the normal cell
What happens in muscular atrophy caused by nerve loss?
oxygen consumption and amino acid uptake are immediately reduced
List the possible mechanisms of atrophy.
(1) decreased protein synthesis
(2) increased protein catabolism
(3) or both
What does protein catabolism involve?
proteosomes and ubiquitin-proteosome pathway
What are proteosomes?
a large protein catabolic complex in the cytoplasm
What is the ubiquitin-proteosome pathway?
a pathway where proteins are degraded first to ubiquitin (another small protein) and then degraded in the cytoplasm
What plays a central role in controlling protein turnover?
protein ubiquitination and proteolysis
What does the deregulation of the ubiquitin-proteosome pathway lead to?
to abnormal cell growth and is associated with cancer and other diseases
What is the ubiquitin-proteosome pathway responsible for?
the rapid breakdown of proteins in hypercatabolic states, including cancer cachexia
What is atrophy resulting from chronic malnutrition often accompanied by?
more autophagic vacuoles, which are membrane-bound vesicles within the cell that contain cellular debris and hydrolytic enzymes.
What rises rapidly during atrophy?
the level of hydrolytic enzymes
Why are the hydrolytic enzymes isolated in autophagic vacuoles?
to prevent uncontrolled cellular destruction
Autophagic vacuoles form as needed. Why?
to protect uninjured organelles from the injured organelles and are eventually taken up and destroyed by lysosomes
Certain contents of the autophagic vacuole may resist destruction by lysosomal enzymes and persist in membrane-bound residual bodies. Give an example of this.
granules that contain lipofuscin, the yellow-brown age pigment.

Lipofuscin accumulates primarily in liver cells, myocardial cells, and atrophic cells
Where does lipofuscin accumulate in the body?
(1) liver cells
(2) myocardial cells
(3) atrophic cells
What cells of the body are particularly prone to enlargement by hypertrophy?
(1) cells of the heart
(2) cells of the kidney
What is the increase in cell size associated with? What is it not associated with?
an increased accumulation of protein in the cellular components (plasma membrane, endoplasmic reticulum, myofilaments, mitochondria) and NOT with an increase in cellular fluid
What is hypertrophy caused by?
specific hormone stimulation or by increased functional demand
List the triggers for hypertrophy.
two types of signals:
(1) mechanical signals, such as stretch
(2) trophic signals, such as growth factors, hormones, and vasoactive agents
Give examples of normal (physiologic) hypertrophy.
(1) increase in skeletal muscle size due to increased workload
(2) increase in growth of uterus and mammary glands in response to pregnancy
Give a pathologic example of hypertrophy.
pathophysiologic hypertrophy in the heart secondary to hypertension or problem valves
What is hyperplasia?
an increase in the number of cells resulting from an increased rate of cellular division.
When does hyperplasia occur in response to injury?
when the injury has been severe and prolonged enough to have caused cell death
What do loss of epithelial cells and cells of the liver and kidney trigger?
triggers DNA synthesis and mitotic division
Increased cell growth is a multistep process involving production of ____________.
growth factors
What do growth factors do?
stimulate the remaining cells to synthesize new cell components and, ultimately, to divide
What often occurs along with hyperplasia?
hypertrophy
When do hyperplasia and hypertrophy occur together?
both take place if the cells can synthesize DNA
Does hypertrophy and hyperplasia occur in nondividing cells (such as myocardial fibers)?
in nondividing cells, only hypertrophy occurs
What are the 3 major types of hyperplasia?
(1) compensatory hyperplasia
(2) hormonal hyperplasia
(3) pathologic hyperplasia
Which of the 3 major types of hyperplasia are considered normal hyperplasia?
(1) compensatory hyperplasia
(2) hormonal hyperplasia
What is compensatory hyperplasia?
an adaptive mechanism that enables certain organs to regenerate
Give an example of compensatory hyperplasia.
removal of part of the liver leads to hyperplasia of the remaining cells (hepatocytes) to compensate for the loss.

Even with removal of 70% of the liver, regeneration is complete in about 2 weeks
What is hepatocyte growth factor (HGF)?
an important mediator in vitro of liver regeneration
Which cells of the body cannot regenerate?
(1) nerve cells
(2) skeletal muscle
(3) myocardial cells
(4) lens cells of the eye
How are additional skeletal muscle cells made if they cannot regenerate?
by the fusion of myoblasts
In what parts of the body can significant hyperplasia occur?
(1) epidermal and intestinal epithelia
(2) hepatocytes
(3) bone marrow cells
(4) fibroblasts

some hyperplasia is noted in:
(1) bone
(2) cartilage
(3) smooth muscle cells
Give an example of compensatory hyperplasia involving epidermal cells.
callus, or thickening, of the skin as a result of hyperplasia of epidermal cells in response to a mechanical stimulus
Where does hormonal hyperplasia occur?
chiefly in estrogen-dependent organs, such as the uterus and breast.
Give an example of hormonal hyperplasia.
after ovulation, estrogen stimulates the endometrium to grow and thicken in preparation for receiving the fertilized ovum.

if pregnancy occurs, hormonal hyperplasia, as well as hypertrophy, enables the uterus to enlarge
What is pathologic hyperplasia?
the abnormal proliferation of normal cells, usually in response to excessive hormonal stimulation or growth factors on target cells
What is the most common pathologic hyperplasia?
the pathologic hyperplasia of the endometrium (caused by an imbalance between estrogen and progesterone secretion, with oversecretion of estrogen
What does pathologic endometrial hyperplasia cause?
excessive menstrual bleeding
What is pathologic endometrial hyperplasia under the influence of?
regular growth-inhibition controls

if these controls fail, hyperplastic endometrial cells can undergo malignant transformation
What is dysplasia?
abnormal changes in the size, shape, and organization of mature cells
What is dysplasia often called?
atypical hyperplasia
Where are dysplastic changes often encountered?
in epithelial tissue of the cervix and respiratory tract, where they are strongly associated with common neoplastic growths and often are found adjacent to cancerous cells.
Why is dysplasia a worrisome change in cells?
because it is most often found near cancer cells and data indicate that it appears to be involved with breast cancer development
How is dysplasia classified?
mild, moderate, or severe; however, because this classification scheme is somewhat subjective, it has prompted some to recommend the use of either "low grade" or "high grade" instead.
Can dysplastic changes be reversible?
It can often be reversible if the inciting stimulus is removed
What is metaplasia?
the reversible replacement of one mature cell type by another, sometimes less differentiated, cell type.
How is metaplasia thought to develop?
from a reprogramming of stem cells that exist on most epithelia or of undifferentiated (embryonic) mesenchymal cells present in connective tissue
Why do these precursor cells mature along a new pathway?
because of signals generated by cytokines and growth factors in the cell's environment
Give an example of metaplasia.
replacement of normal columnar ciliated epithelial cells on the bronchial (airway) lining by stratified squamous epithelial cells.

the newly formed cells do not secrete mucus or have cilia, causing loss of a vital protective mechanism

bronchial metaplasia can be reversed if the inducing stimulus,usually cigarette smoking, is removed.

with prolonged exposure to the inducing stimulus, however, dysplasia and cancerous transformation can occur
What do most disease begin with?
cell injury
When does cell injury occur?
when the cell is unable to maintain homeostasis--a normal or adaptive steady state--in the face of injurious stimuli
List some injurious stimuli of cells.
(1) chemical agents
(2) lack of sufficient oxygen (hypoxia)
(3) free radicals
(4) infectious agents
(5) physical and mechanical factors
(6) immunologic reactions
(7) genetic factors
(8) nutritional imbalances
What does the extent of cellular injury depend on?
the type, state (including level of cell differentiation and increased susceptibility to fully differentiated cells), and adaptive processes of the cell, as well as the type, severity, and duration of the injurious stimulus
Do two people exposed to an identical stimulus incur the same extent of cell injury?
No, thay may incur varying degrees of of cellular injury
Why may two individuals exposed to an identical stimulus have varying degrees of cellular injury?
because modifying factors, such as nutritional status, can profoundly influence the extent of injury
Can the precise "point of no return" that leads to cellular death be pinpointed to occur at a specific point?
no
Type of progressive cell injury: Adaptation

Give the response.
atrophy, hypertrophy, hyperplasia, metaplasia
Type of progressive cell injury: active cell injury

Give the response.
immediate response of "entire" cell
Type of progressive cell injury: reversible

Give the response.
loss of ATP, cellular swelling, detachment of ribosomes, autophagy of lysosomes
Type of progressive cell injury: irreversible

Give the response.
"point of no return" structurally when severe vacuolization of the mitochondria occurs and Ca2+ moves into the cell
Type of progressive cell injury: necrosis

Give the response.
common type of cell death with severe cell swelling and breakdown of organelles
Type of progressive cell injury: apoptosis, or programmed cell death

Give the response.
cellular self-destruction for elimination of unwanted cell populations
Type of progressive cell injury: chronic cell injury (subcellular alterations)

Give the response.
persistent stimuli response may involve only specific organelles or cytoskeleton (e.g., phagocytosis of bacteria)
Type of progressive cell injury: accumulations or infiltrations

Give the response.
water, pigment, lipids, glycogen, proteins
Type of progressive cell injury: pathologic calcification

Give the response.
dystrophic and metastatic calcification
List the four common biochemical themes that are important for understanding cell injury and cell death regardless of the injuring agent.
(1) ATP depletion
(2) oxygen and oxygen-derived free radicals
(3) calcium alterations
(4) defects in membrane permeability
List the common forms of cell injury.
(1) hypoxic injury
(2) free radicals and reactive oxygen species injury
(3) chemical injury
What is hypoxic cellular injury?
lack of sufficient oxygen
What are the common causes of hypoxic injury?
(1) decreased amount of oxygen in the air
(2) loss of hemoglobin or hemoglobin function
(3) decreased production of red blood cells
(4) diseases of the respiratory and cardiovascular systems
(5) poisoning of the oxidative enzymes (cytochromes) within cells
What is the most common cause of hypoxia?
ischemia (reduced blood supply)
What is ischemic injury often caused by?
the gradual narrowing of arteries (arteriosclerosis), and complete blockage by blood clots (thrombosis)
Progressive hypoxia caused by gradual arterial obstruction is better tolerated than the sudden acute ___________ caused by a sudden obstruction, as with an ______________.
(1) anoxia (total lack of oxygen)

(2) embolus (blood clot or other plug in the circulation)
What can an acute obstruction in a coronary artery cause?
myocardial cell death (infarction) within minutes if the blood supply is not restored
What does the gradual onset of ischemia in the heart usually result in?
myocardial adaptation
What do myocardial infarction and stroke generally result from?
atherosclerosis (a type of arteriosclerosis) and consequent ischemic injury
Cellular responses to hypoxic injury caused by ischemia has been demonstrated in studies of the heart muscle. Discuss.
Within 1 minute after blood supply to the myocardium is interrupted, the heart becomes pale and has difficulty contracting normally.
Within 3 to 5 minutes, the ischemic portion of the myocardium ceases to contract because of a rapid decrease in mitochondrial phosphorylation, causing insufficient ATP production. Lack of ATP leads to increased anaerobic metabolism, which generates ATP from glycogen when there is insufficient oxygen. When glycogen stores are depleted, even anaerobic metabolism ceases.
What does a reduction in ATP levels cause?
the plasma membrane's sodium-potassium pump and sodium-calcium exchange to fail, which leads to an intracellular accumulation of sodium and calcium and diffusion of potassium out of the cell.

Sodium and water then can enter the cell freely, and cellular swelling, as well as early dilation of the ER, results.

Dilation causes the ribosomes to detach from the rough ER, reducing protein synthesis.

With continued hypoxia, the entire cell becomes markedly swollen, with increased concentrations of sodium, water, and chloride and decreased concentrations of potassium.
What happens if oxygen is not restored to tissues?
vacuolation (formation of vacuoles) occurs within the cytoplasm and swelling of lysosomes and marked mitochondrial swelling result from damage to the outer membrane.
What does continued hypoxic injury along with accumulation of calcium activate?
mulitple enzyme systems resulting in membrane damage, cytoskeleton disruption, activation of inflammation, DNA degradation, and eventual cell death
What is irreversible damage characterized by?
(1) lack of ATP generation because of mitochondrial damage (by accumulation of intracellular calcium in the mitochondria)
(2) major disturbances and damage in membrane function
Restoration of oxygen, however, can cause additional injury called ______________.
reperfusion injury
What does reperfusion injury result from?
the generation of highly reactive oxygen intermediates, sometimes called oxidative stress, including hydroxyl radical (OH-), superoxide (O2-), and hydrogen peroxide (H2O2).
What can these radicals cause?
further membrane damage and mitochondrial calcium overload
What cell is especially affected with reperfusion injury?
neutrophils, including neutrophil adhesion to the endothelium
What reverses both neutrophil adhesion and, for example, neutrophil-meidated heart injury?
antioxidant treatment

other potential and current treatments may include blockage of inflammatory mediators and inhibition of certain cell death (for example, apoptotic) pathways
What is oxidative stress?
injury induced by free radicals, especially by reactive oxygen species (ROS)
When does oxidative stress occur?
when excess ROS overwhelms endogenous antioxidant systems
What is a free radical?
an electrically uncharged atom or group of atoms that has an unpaired electron.
What makes the free radical unstable? How does it stabilize?
the unpaired electron

to stabilize, it gives up an electron to another molecule or steals one.
What happens to the molecule that the free radical steals an electron from?
it becomes a free radical and is capable of injurious chemical bond formation with proteins, lipids, and carbohydrates--key molecules in membranes and nucleic acids.
Why are free radicals highly reactive?
because they have low chemical specificity, meaning they can react with most molecules close by
How may free radicals be initiated within cells?
(1) the absorption of extreme energy sources (e.g., UV light, radiation)
(2) endogenous reactions when oxygen is reduced to water created by systems involved in electron and oxygen transport (redox reactions; all biologic membranes contain redox systems important for cell defense, for example, inflammation, iron uptake, growth, and proliferation and signal transduction)
(3) enzymatic metabolism of exogenous chemicals or drugs (e.g., CCl3, a product of carbon tetrachloride [CC14])
During normal metabolism, what organelle is the greatest source and target of ROS?
mitochondria
How do ROS affect mitochondria? What are they related to?
cause mitochondria dysfunction and are related to many human diseases and aging?
What are ROS usually reduced by?
intracellular antioxidant enzymes, including superoxide dismutase (SOD), glutathione peroxidase, and catalase, as well as antioxidant molecules such as gluthathione and vitamin E (alpha-tocopherol)
What do ROS do in pathologic conditions?
large numbers of ROS overwhelm the balance by antioxidants
Why is inefficiency of antioxidants more serious in mitochondria?
mitochondria in most cells lack catalase
What does excessive production of hydrogen peroxide and eventually hydroxyl radical in mitochondria do?
damage lipid, proteins, and mitochondrial DNA (mDNA), which then causes cells to die of necrosis or apoptosis
What has mitochondrial oxidative stress been implicated in?
heart disease
alzheimer disease
Parkinson disease
prion diseases
amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)
as well as aging itself
What are the 4 major ways that free radicals cause cellular injury?
(1) lipid peroxidation, which is the destruction of polyunsaturated lipids (the same process by which fats become rancid) leading to membrane damage and increased permeability
(2) attacking critical proteins that affect ion pumps and transport mechanisms
(3) fragmenting DNA, causing decreased protein synthesis
(4) damaging mitochondria, causing the liberation of calcium into the cytosol
What does chemical injury begin with?
a biochemical interaction between a toxic substance and the cell's plasma membrane, which is ultimately damaged, leadin gto increased permeability
List the two general mechanisms causing chemically induced membrane destruction.
(1) direct toxicity caused by combination of a chemical with a molecular component of the cell membrane or organelles
(2) formation of reactive free radicals and lipid peroxidation
Give an example of chemical injury.
carbon tetrachloride injury.

CCl4, an agent formerly used in dry cleaning, is converted by an enzyme system in the smooth ER of liver cells into CCl3 (chloromethyl), a highly toxic free radical. The newly formed CCl3, rapidly destroys the ER of the liver cell by lipid peroxidation, breaking down the reticulum's lipid component. The lipid molecules accumulate within the cytoplasm, starting within cisternae of the ER. Fatty liver develops because CCl4 poisoning blocks the synthesis of lipid-acceptor proteins (apoproteins) that normally bind with triglyercides to form lipoproteins, which are then transported out of the cell. Blockage of triglyercide secretion begins 10 to 15 minutes after CCl4 exposure. Fat droplets that accumulate in the cisternae of the ER combine to form larger droplets and fill vacuolesthat, in turn, fill the entire cytoplasm. Approx. 10 to 12 hours later, the liver appears grossly enlarged and pale because of the accumulation of fat. Fatty change is reversible if the abnormality responsible for the change is removed. At this point, the cellular changes are the same as in hypoxic injury.
What are poisons?
highly toxic substances
What chemicals can cause cellular injury?
air pollutants
insecticides
herbicides
carbon monoxide
carbon tetrachloride
social drugs, such as alcohol
recreational drugs
over-the-counter drugs
prescribed drugs
What is lead?
a heavy metal that persists in the environment
What is the primary chemical hazard to children?
lead toxicity
Compared to adults, children absorb lead more readily through the ______________.
intestines
What dietary deficiencies enhance the toxic effects of lead?
iron
calcium
zinc
vitamin D
Why is lead exposure particularly worrisome during pregnancy?
because the fetal nervous system is especially vulnerable and can result in learning disorders, hyperactivity, and attention problems
Why is lead based paint attractive to children?
because it has a sweet taste
What are the organ systems primarily affected by lead ingestion?
(1) nervous system
(2) hematopoietic system (tissues that produce RBCs)
(3) the kidneys
Lead affects many different biologic activities, many of which may be related to the function of ______________,
calcium
What do alterations in calcium play a role in?
the interference with neurotransmitters, which may cause hyperactive behavior and proliferation of capillaries of the white matter and arteries
What does lead inhibit?
several enzymes involved in hemoglobin synthesis and causes anemia as a result of lysis of red blood cells (hemolysis).
How is lead poisoning manifested clinically?
Alterations in calcium may play a role in the interference with neurotransmitters, which may cause hyperactive behavior and proliferation of capillaries of the white matter and arteries.

Lead inhibits several enzymes involved in hemoglobin synthesis and cuases anemia as a result of lysis of red blood cells (hemolysis).

Other manifestations of brain involvement include convulsions and delirium and, with peripheral nerve involvement, wrist, finger, and sometimes foot paralysis.

Renal lesions can cause tubular dysfunction resulting in glycosuria (glucose in the urine), aminoaciduria (amino acids in the urine), and hyperphosphaturia (excess phosphate in the urine).

Gastrointestinal symptoms are less severe and include nausea, loss of appetite, weight loss, and abdominal cramping
How are gaseous substances classified?
according to their ability to asphyxiate (interrupt respiration) or irritate
What do toxic asphyxiants do?
directly interfere with cellular respiration
What are some examples of toxic asphyxiants?
carbon monoxide, hydrogen cyanide, and hydrogen sulfide
What is carbon monoxide (CO)?
an odorless, colorless, and undetectable gas unless it is mixed with a visible or odorous pollutant
What is carbon monoxide produced by?
the incomplete combustion of fuels, such as gasoline
Although carbon monoxide is a chemical agent, what is the ultimate injury it produces?
a hypoxic injury--namely, oxygen deprivation.
How does carbon monoxide deprive the body of oxygen?
Normally, oxygen molecules are carried to tissues bound to hemoglobin in RBCs.
Because CO's affinity for hemoglobin is 300 times greater than that of oxygen, it quickly binds with the hemoglobin, preventing oxygen molecules from doing so.
Minute amounts of carbon monoxide can produce a significant percentage of _________________.
carboxyhemoglobin (carbon monoxide bound with hemoglobin)
What symptoms are related to carbon monoxide poisoning?
headache
giddiness
tinnitus (ringing in the ears)
nausea
weakness
vomiting
Who are most at risk for carbon monoxide poisoning?
those who (1) breathe air polluted by gasoline engines or defective furnaces; (2) work in occupations such as coal mining, fire fighting, welding, or engine repair; and (3) smoke cigarettes, cigars, or pipes
Why is a fetus especially at risk from the effects of carbon monoxide?
because fetal carboxyhemoglobin levels are likely to be 10% to 15% more than maternal levels
What is the primary choice among mood altering drugs available in the United States?
alcohol (ethanol)
What are the most serious consequences of alcohol abuse?
liver and nutritional disorders
What major nutritional deficiencies are associated with alcohol abuse?
magnesium
vitamin B6
thiamine
phosphorus
How is ethanol oxidized?
through the microsomal P-450 oxidase pathway
What do the major effects of acute alcoholism involve?
the CNS
How is alcohol absorbed into the body?
After alcohol is ingested, it is absorbed, unaltered, in the stomach and intestines.
What can slow the rate of ethanol absorption?
fatty foods and milk
Where is most of the alcohol in the blood metabolized?
in the liver
What are the pathways in which blood alcohol is metabolized in the liver?
(1) the major pathway involves hepatic alcohol dehydrogenase (ADH), an enzyme of the cytosol that catalyzes the conversion of ethanol to acetaldehyde
(2) the microsomal ethanol oxidizing system (MEOS) depends on cytochrome P-450, an enzyme needed for cellular oxidation. Activation of the MEOS requires a high ethanol concentration and thus is thought to be important in the accelerated ethanol metabolism (i.e., tolerance) noted in persons with chronic alcoholism
Individuals differ in their capability to metabolize alcohol. What kind of differences have been identified?
genetic differences in metabolism of liver alcohol, including aldehyde dehydrogenases
Why do persons with chronic alcoholism develop tolerance?
because of production of enzymes, leading to increased rate of metabolism (e.g., P-450)
Discuss the J- or U-shaped inverse association between alcohol and cardiovascular disease.
Consistent epidemiologic studies show that people who daily consume light-to-moderate (NOT excessive) amounts of alcohol reduce their risk of coronary heart disease (CHD) as compared to nondrinkers.
What are the suggested mechanisms in which alcohol offers cardioprotection?
(1) increased levels of high-density lipoprotein cholesterol (HDL-C)
(2) prevention of clot formation
(3) reduction in platelet aggregation
(4) lowering of plasma apolipoprotein (a) levels
What is the suggested amount of consumption of alcohol suggested for men to reduce coronary heart disease? Women?
Men: no more than 2 drinks per day

Women: no more than 1 drink per day
What does acute alcoholism affect?
affects mainly the CNS but may induce reversible hepatic and gastric changes
What are the hepatic changes initiated by? What do the hepatic changes include?
initiated by acetaldehyde

inflammation, depositon of fat, enlargement of the liver, interruption of microtubular transport of proteins and their secretion, increase in intracellular water, depression of fatty acid oxidation in mitochondria, increased membrane rigidity, increased reactive oxygen species, and acute liver cell necrosis
How does alcohol affect the CNS?
it is mainly a depressant, initially affecting subcortical structures (probably the brain stem reticular formation).

Consequently, motor and intellectual activity becomes disoriented.

At higher blood levels, medullary centers become depressed, affecting respiration.
What does chronic alcoholism cause?
structural alterations in practically all organs and tissues in the body because most tissues contain enzymes capable of ethanol oxidation or nonoxidative metabolism
The most significant activity of chronic alcoholism occurs in the __________ and to a lesser extent in the _______________.
(1) liver
(2) stomach
What alterations of chronic alcoholism occur in the liver?
fatty liver
alcoholic hepatitis
cirrhosis
__________ is a direct toxic effect and chronic use can lead to acute and chronic _____________.
(1) acute gastritis

(2) pancreatitis
Cellular damage is increased by __________ and __________________.
(1) reactive oxygen species (ROS)

(2) oxidative stress
What mediates liver damage by chronic alcoholism?
activation of proinflammatory cytokines from neutrophils and lymphocytes
What is oxidative stress associated with during chronic alcoholism?
cell membrane phospholipid depletion, which alters fluidity and function of cell membranes as well as intercellular support.
What disorders is chronic alcoholism related to?
increased tendency to hypertension and regressive changes in skeletal muscle
What immune defects has ethanol been implicated in the onset of?
effects on the production of cytokines involved in inflammatory responses (tumor necrosis factor alpha, interleukin-1, interleukin-6)
What can the deleterious of prenatal alcohol exposure cause?
mental retardation and neurobehavioral disorders, as well as fetal alcohol syndrome
What are the symptoms of fetal alcohol syndrome?
growth retardation
facial anomalies
cognitive impairment
ocular malformations
What is the significantly shorter lifespan of persons with chronic alcoholism related to?
damage to the liver, stomach, brain, and heart
What is the most common source of human exposure to mercury?
fish consumption
dental amalgams
vaccines
What are the most popular and dangerous social or "recreational" drugs in the world?
methamphetamine (METH)
marijuana
cocaine
heroin
What is a prevalent risk among adolescents?
"Illicit use of drugs"
Although the prevalence of cocaine use in the general population decreased in __________, morbidity and mortality related to cocaine increased sharply in the _________.
(1) 1986

(2) 1990s
How many deaths were there from unintentional and intentional injuries in the US in 2002?
161,269 deaths, an injury death rate of 55.67/100,000.
How many deaths were there from unintentional and intentional injuries in the US in 2002?
161,269 deaths, an injury death rate of 55.67/100,000.
Is death more common for women than men?
no, death is more common for men than women; the overall rate for men is 81.77/100,000 versus 31.60/100,000 for women
Which race have the highest death rate?
blacks: 65.65/100,000, next is whites: 55.01/100,000, and then other racial groups combined: 35.58/100,000
What is the number one cause of death for people between the ages of 1 and 34?
unintentional injury
What is the 3rd leading cause of death for people between the ages of 1 and 34?
intentional injury (suicide, homicide)
How many deaths occur in hospitals each year according to the 1999 report by the Institute of Medicine?
between 44,000 and 98,000 unncecessary deaths per year as a result of errors by medical professionals
What are blunt force injuries caused by?
the application of mechanical energy to the body resulting in the tearing, shearing, or crushing of tissues
What are the most common type of injuries seen in most health care settings?
blunt force injuries
Blunt force injury may be caused by __________, __________, or a combination of both.
(1) blows (where a moving object strikes the body)
(2) impacts (where the moving body strikes a fixed object)
What are the most common causes of blunt force injuries?
vehicle accidents and falls, accounting for 45,579 and 17,116 deaths, respectively, in 2002
What is a contusion?
bleeding into the skin or underlying tissues as a consequence of a blow that squeezes or crushes the soft tissues and ruptures blood vessels without breaking the skin

(bruise)
How long does it take for a contusion (bruise) to show up?
it may take several hours after injury before any change in skin color is seen
Describe the color changes a bruise (contusion) goes through.
Initially it will be red-purple, eventually becoming blue-black, and then gradually changing to yellow-brown or green before fully disappearing
What do the color changes of bruises reflect?
the progression of tissue damage and healing that develops in the area of underlying injury.
What does the length of time it takes for a bruise to resolve depend on?
factors such as the extent and location of the injury and the degree of vascularization in the area.

small contusions may resolve in a matter of days, whereas larger ones can take weeks to completely heal
Why may blood in deeper structures of the body be seen as bruises elsewhere?
because blood in deeper structures may dissect along fascial planes

example, bruising of the thigh in a hip or pelvis fracture or "black eyes" in obital plate fractures
What is a hematoma?
a collection of blood in soft tissues or an enclosed space
What is a subdural hematoma?
a collection of blood between the inner surface of the dura mater and the surface of the brain, resulting in the shearing of small veins that bridge the subdural space.
What can cause subdural hematomas?
blows, falls, or sudden accleration/deceleration of the head, as occurs in shaken baby syndrome
What is an epidural hematoma?
a collection of blood between the inner surface of the skull and the dura.
What is an epidural hematoma caused by?
a torn artery and is almost always associated with a skull fracture
What do contusions of the brain result from?
(1) a blow or (2) a fall or impact
Describe how blows cause contusions on the brain.
in blows, when a moving object strikes the stationary head, a cerebral contusion grouped in the portions of the brain underlying the area of scalp and skull injury is known as a coup pattern of injury
What is a coup pattern of injury?
a cerebral contusion grouped in the portions of the brain underlying the area of scalp and skull injury

occurs when a moving object strikes the stationary head, as in blows to the head
Describe how falls cause contusions on the brain.
in falls, or impacts, when the moving head strikes a fixed object, a cerebral contusion seen in the area of the brain opposite the external injury is known as a contrecoup pattern of injury.
What is a contrecoup pattern of injury?
a cerebral contusion seen in the area of the brain opposite the external injury

results when the moving head strikes a stationary object during a fall or impact
How does a contrecoup injury result?
when the head accelerates and the brain lags behind and presses into the areas of the skull directly opposite the direction of motion. When the head suddenly stops, the areas of the brain pressing into the skull are injured.

Example: a person who falls directly backward, striking the occiput (back of the head), will have cerebral contusions of the frontal and termporal tips
What does an abrasion (scrape) result from?
the removal of the superficial layers of the skin that was caused by friction between the skin and the injuring object.
In cases where force is applied in a transgenital, nonperpendicular direction to the skin surface, ____________ may be heaped up at the trailing or downstream edge of the abrasion.
tags of tissue
Describe the appearance of an abrasion.
It will have a pale, moist, yellow-brown appearance at first. The color darkens to brown or even black as the injury dries. The injury may ooze fluid for 1 or 2 days until it is completely covered by a crust, or scab, which eventually flakes off of the underlying regenerated skin
Abrasions and contusions may have a patterned appearance that mirrors the shape and features of an injuring object. Why is this important?
patterning of injuries can be of crucial importance in cases of automobile accidents, assaults, or homicides; they document the connection between the victim's injuries and a suspect vehicle or weapon.

Bite marks (usually a combination of abrasion and contusion) are another example of a patterned injury that can demonstrate a link between as assailant and a victim
What is a laceration?
a tear or rip resulting when the tensile strength of the skin or tissue is exceeded.
How is a laceration different from an incision?
a laceration is much more jagged and irregular, and the edges are abraded.

an incision is where the tissue is cleanly divided by a sharp edge
What do the depths of a laceration look like?
irregular, and there are often tissue "bridges" of small vessels or nerves that have been stretched but not broken, crossing from one side of the wound to the other
In a laceration, what will happen to the tissue if the injuring force is applied perpendicularly to the skin?
there will be crushing of the surrounding tissue with associated abrasion and contusion.
In a laceration, what will happen to the tissue if the injuring force is applied tangenitally?
there will also be undermining of the wound, with tissues at the trailing edge of the wound lifted away from the underlying structures creating a pocket in the direction opposite from where the blow came.
What is an avulsion?
an extreme example of when an injuring force is applied tangenitally to the skin, in which a wide area of tissue may be pulled away creating a larger flap.

usually, the shallower the angle of incidence of the blow, the more extensive the undermining
What are lacerations of internal organs more common in?
blunt force injuries
What kind of lacerations can occur in cases of blows to the abdomen?
lacerations of the liver, spleen, kidneys, and bowels
What can be lacerated in sudden deceleration accidents? Why?
the thoracic aorta

because the arch of the aorta is freely mobile, whereas the descending portion is attached to the spinal column. Rapid deceleration causes horizontal shearing with either partial or complete transection just below the take-off of the left subclavian artery.
What can severe blows or impacts to the chest cause?
rupturing of the heart with lacerations of the atria or ventricles
What are fractures?
the breakage or shattering of bones during blunt force blows or impacts
How many deaths did cutting or piercing injuries (sharp-force injuries) account for in 2002?
2,762, with men having a higher (1.44/100,000) than women (.49/100,000). There also are differences among races, with rates in whites at 0.73/100,000, blacks at 2.33/100,000, and other racial groups at 0.96/100,000
What is an incised wound?
a cut that is LONGER than it is DEEP.
Describe the appearance of an incised wound?
the wound may be straight or jagged, depending on the object used and how the injury occurred, with sharp, distinct edges without abrasion

may be thin and narrow or more elliptic and gaping in appearance because of varying lines of tension in the skin, location, and orientation
What are incised wounds caused by?
a sharp edge, which cleanly divides the tissues causing no tissue bridging or undermining
What type of bleeding do incised wounds cause?
tend to produce significant external bleeding with minimal internal hemorrhage
Where are incised wounds most often seen?
in sharp-force injury suicides

in most cases, in addition to a deep, lethal cut, there will be multiple superficial incisions grouped in the same area; these are known as hesitation marks
What are hesitation marks?
multiple superficial incisions grouped in the same area as the deep, lethal cut in suicides
What is a stab wound?
a penetrating sharp-force injury that is DEEPER than it is LONG.
Since a sharp instrument is used to inflict a stab wound, what do the depths of the wound look like?
clean and distinct with no underlying or associated crushing injury

t
What do the edges look like in an injury caused by a stab wound?
usually are clean but may be abraded if the object is inserted deeply with enough force so that a wider, blunter portion of the instrument (e.g., hilt of a knife) impacts the skin
How can features of the blade used to inflict injury in a stab wound be determined?
by careful examination of the stab wound
How will a stab wound look if a single-edge blade is used?
one margin of the wound will be sharp and the other blunt
How will a stab wound look if a double-edge blade is used?
both margins will have a sharp appearance
How will a stab wound look if a serrated edge blade is used?
often indistinguishable from those made by a smooth-edge blade
How will a stab wound look if there was any hesitation or scraping of the skin edges by the blade?
an interrupted pattern of abrasion may be seen but is uncommon
What type of objects may produce penetrating puncture wounds?
instruments or objects with sharp points but without sharp edges
Give an example of a puncture wound.
a wound of the foot caused by stepping on a nail
How do injuries caused by puncture wounds look?
have abrasion of the edges of the wound, are prone to infection, and also can be quite deep despite a sometimes innocuous external appearance
What types of instruments produce chopping wounds?
heavy, edged instruments (axes, hatchets, propeller blades)
What are some characteristics of chopping wounds?
a combination of sharp- and blunt-force characteristics

in addition to cutting, associated crushing of the wound edges and underlying tissues is usually present
How many deaths were caused by gunfire injuries in 2002?
30,242 deaths

of these, 17,108 were suicides, 11,829 were homicides, 762 were accidents, and 243 wer classified as undetermined
Gunshot wounds may be either ___________ or ______________.
(1) penetrating (bullet retained in the body)
(2) perforating (bullet exits)
What are the most important factors determining the appearance of a gunshot injury?
(1) whether it is an entrance or exit wound
(2) the range of fire
What is the overall appearance of an entrance wound most affected by?
the range of fire
When do contact range entrance wounds occur?
when the gun is held so that the muzzle rests on or presses into the skin surface, causing a distinctive type of wound
What do contact range entrance wounds look like?
in addition to the hole made by the bullet, there is searing of the edges of the wound from the flame, hot gases exiting the barrel, and soot or smoke deposited on the edges of and in the depths of the wound
How do hard contact wounds look?
there may be minimal soot and searing on the outside of the outside of the wound but deep penetration of smoke, burning gunpowder fragments, and hot gases into the depths of the injury

hard contact wounds of the head, where there is only a thin layer of skin and muscle overlying bone, the large amount of gas and explosive energy sent into the wound may cause severe tearing and disruption of the tissues, giving the wound a large, gaping, and jagged appearance--a phenomenon known as blow back.

in areas of the body with thicker layers of soft tissue, the blow back may not cause tearing but will forcefully drive the skin back onto the end of the barrel, producing a patterned abrasion that mirros the feature of the weapon, known as a muzzle imprint
What are the characteristics of intermediate (distance) range entrance wounds?
wounds surrounded by gunpowder stippling or tattooing
What does tattooing result from?
fragments of burning or unburned pieces of gunpowder exiting the barrel and striking the skin surface with enough force to be driven into the epidermis or superficial dermis
When does stippling result?
when fragments of powder strike with enough force to abrade the skin but not actually penetrate the surface
When can stippling/tattooing be seen?
when the muzzle-to-target range of most handguns is less than 48 inches. Beyond this distance, pieces of gunpowder disperse and slow down so much that tatooing or stippling cannot occur
When does an indeterminate range entrance wound occur?
when flame, soot, or gunpowder does not reach the skin surface and the only thing striking the body is the bullet.

example: if an individual is shot through multiple layers of clothing, the entrance wound may have no soot, searing, or stippling even though the actual range of fire is only a matter of inches; the wound looks the same as if the shot came from a range of 6 meters (20 feet) or more
What are indeterminate range entrance wounds characterized by?
a hole surrounded by a rim of abrasion
True or False. The caliber of weapon that inflicted the wound can be determined based solely on the size of the entrance wound.
FALSE
What does the collar of abrasion of a gunshot wound result from?
the fact that the bullet first causes stretching and scraping of the skin before it actually perforates.

if the bullet strikes perpendicularly to the skin, the margin of abrasion collar is concentrically distributed about the defect; if it strikes at an angle, the collar is eccentric, with the wider margin pointing in the direction from which the bullet cam from

if the bullet struck an intermediate object before hitting the skin, it can be turning and tumbling, producing an irregular abrasion collar
True or False. Exit wounds have the same general appearance no matter what the range of fire.
TRUE
What can the shape of the exit wound look like?
can vary from round to slitlike to completely irregular
True or False. The size of the exit wound correlates with the caliber of the projectile making the wound.
FALSE
What are the most important factors affecting exit wounds?
(1) the speed of the projectile
(2) the degree of deformation
What type of wound can be produced by a smaller, highly deformed bullet exiting at high speed? What about a larger, intact, slower-moving bullet?
a large, irregular wound, whereas a larger, more intact, slower-moving bullet may make only a small hole
True or False. Size can be used to determine if the hole is an exit wound or entrance wound.
FALSE
List the general appearance characteristics of an exit wound.
in most cases, the margins of an exit wound do NOT have an abrasion collar.

An exit wound has clean edges that often can be reapproximated to cover the defect. The exception is when something pressing against the skin surface at the exit site, such as tight clothing or the back of a chair. In that situation, the bullet pushes against the supporting surface, causing rubbing and scraping around the exit defect as it comes out; this is known as a shored exit wound
What is a shored exit wound?
an exit wound where the bullet pushes the skin against a supporting surface (e.g., tight clothing or the back of a chair), causing rubbing and scraping around the exit defect as it comes out
What is one of the toughest structures for a bullet to go through?
the skin
What is the damage caused by a bullet the result of?
the amount of energy transferred to the tissues impacted
What is the formula that determines the energy of a bullet?
KE=1/2 MV^2, where KE is kinetic energy, M is the mass, and V is the speed
What has the greater effect on the potential for a bullet to cause damage?
increasing the speed of the bullet rather than increasing the size of the bullet
What does the energy transfer of a bullet to tissues cause?
tissue destruction in a zone that can be much larger than the actual size of the bullet; the zone of destruction may be several inches in diameter with very high-powered bullets.
True or False. When a victim has a "lethal" injury, he/she is always immediately incapacitated.
FALSE
What are asphyxial injuries caused by?
a failure of cells to receive or utilize oxygen
Deprivation of oxygen may be __________ or ___________.
(1) partial (hypoxia)
(2) total (anoxia)
What are the 4 general categories that asphyxial injuries are grouped into?
(1) suffocation
(2) strangulation
(3) chemical asphyxiants
(4) drowning
What is suffocation?
oxygen failing to reach the blood
What can suffocation result from?
a lack of oxgyen in the environment (entrapment in an enclosed space or filling of the environment with a suffocating gas) OR
blockage of the airways
Give an example of an asphyxial injury.
child trapped in an abandoned refrigerator or a person who commits suicide by putting a plastic bag over their head
A reduction in ambient oxygen level to ____% (normal is 21%) is immediately dangerous.
16%
If the level of ambient oxygen is below ____%, death can ensue within a matter of minutes.
5%
How are suffocation injuries diagnosed?
depends on knowing the history of what happened because there will be no specific physical findings
What does diagnosis and treatment in choking asphyxiation (obstruction of the airways) depend on?
locating and removing the obstructing material
Besides the most common causes of suffocation, what are other causes?
injury or disease that causes swelling of the soft tissues of the airway leading to partial or complete obstruction and subsequent asphyxiation

compression of the chest or abdomen (mechanical or compressional asphyxia) preventing normal respiratory movements.
What are the usual signs and symptoms of suffocation?
florid facial congestion and petechia (pinpoint hemorrhages) of the eyes and face
What is strangulation caused by?
compression and closure of the blood vessels and air passages resulting from external pressure on the neck
What does strangulation cause?
cerebral hypoxia or anoxia secondary to the alteration or cessation of blood flow to the brain
How much force is needed to close the jugular veins? Carotid arteries?
(1) 2 kg or 4.5 lbs
(2) 5 kg or 11 lbs
How much force is needed to crush the trachea?
15kg or 33 lbs
What actually causes death or injury in strangulations?
the alteration of cerebral blood flow, NOT the lack of airflow
How long does it take for unconsciousness to occur with complete blockage of the carotid arteries?
10 to 15 seconds
What are hanging strangulations?
strangulation in which a noose is placed around the neck, and the weight of the body is used to cause constriction of the noose and compression of the neck
True or False. In a hanging strangulation, the body needs to be completely suspended to produce severe injury or death.
False
What are the characteristics of hanging strangulations?
depending on the type of ligature used, there is usually a distinct mark on the neck, an inverted V with the base of the V pointing toward the point of suspension.

Internal neck injuries are rare, and only in judicial hangings, where the body is weighted and dropped, will significant soft tissue or cervical spinal trauma be seen.

Petechiae of the eyes or face may be seen, but they are rare.
What are the characteristics of ligature strangulations?
marks on the neck are horizontal without the inverted V seen in hangings.

Petechiae may be more common because intermittent opening and closure of the blood vessels may occur as a result of the victim's struggles.

internal injuries of the neck are rare
Why is petechiae more common in ligature strangulations?
because intermittent opening and closure of the blood vessels may occur as a result of the victim's struggles.
What type of neck injuries are found in manual strangulation caused either by the assailant or by the victim clawing at his or her own neck in an attempt to remove the assailant's hands?
variable amounts of external trauma on the neck with contusions and abrasions
Do manual strangulations cause internal damage?
yes, it can be quite severe, with bruising of deep structures and even fractures of the hyoid bone and tracheal and cricoid cartilages.

Petechiae are common.
How do chemical asphyxiants work?
by either preventing the delivery of oxygen to the tissues OR block its utilization
What is the most common chemical asphyxiant?
carbon monoxide
How does cyanide act as an asphyxiant?
by combining with the ferric iron atom in cytochrome oxidase, thereby blocking the intracellular utilization of oxygen
What are the signs/symptoms of cyanide poisoning?
cherry-red appearance like carbon monoxide intoxication because cyanide blocks the utilization of circulating oxyhemoglobin
Does cyanide produce a characteristic odor?
yes, an odor of bitter almonds may be detected but the ability to smell cyanide is a genetic trait that is absent in a significant portion of the population, so it may not be smelled
What is hydrogen sulfide (sewer gas)?
a chemical asphyxiant in which victims of hydrogen cyanide poisoning may have brown-tinged blood in addition to the nonspecific signs of asphyxiation
What is drowning?
an alteration of oxygen delivery to tissues resulting from the breathing in of fluid, usually water
How many drowning deaths were there in the US in 2002?
4,146 deaths
What is the major mechanism of injury in drowning?
hypoxemia (low blood oxygen levels)
What is the most important pathologic abnormality in drownings?
airway obstruction
In as many as ____% of drownings little or no water enters the lungs because of _________________. This phenomenon is called ___________________.
(1) 15%
(2) vagal nerve-mediated laryngospasms
(3) dry-lung drowning
No matter what mechanism is involved, ______________ will lead to unconsciousness in minutes.
cerebral hypoxia
What determines if unconsciousness caused by cerebral hypoxia progresses to death?
depends on a number of factors, including age and the health of the individual

one of the most important factors is the temperature of the water. Irreversible injury will result more rapidly in warm water than in cold water. Submersion times up to 1 hour with subsequent survival have been reported in children who wer submerged in very cold water.
True or False. Complete submission is necessary for a person to drown.
False. An incapacitated or helpless individual (epileptic, alocholic, infant) may drown in water that is only a few inches deep.
True or False. No specific or diagnostic findings prove that a person recovered from water is actually a drowning victim.
True. In cases where water has entered the lung, there may be large amounts of foam coming out of the nose and mouth, although this also can be seen in certain types of drug overdoses. A body recovered from water with signs of prolonged immersion could just as easily be a victim of some other type of injury that has been put in the water to obscure the actual cause of death.
What does the pathogenicity (virulence) of microorganisms depend on?
their ability to survive and proliferate in the human body, where they injure cells and tissues
What does the disease-causing ability of a microorganism depend on?
its ability to (1) invade and destroy cells, (2) produce toxins, and (3) produce damaging hypersensitivity reactions
What are injured by direct contact with cellular and chemical components of the immune and inflammatory responses, such as phagocytic cells (lymphocytes, macrophages) and substances such as histamine, antibodies, lymphokines, complement, and proteases?
cellular membranes
What is responsible for many of the membrane alterations that occur during immunologic injury?
complement
What are membrane alterations associated with?
a rapid leakage of potassium out of the cell and rapid influx of water
How do antibodies interfere with membrane function?
by binding to and occupying receptor molecules on the plasma membrane
How do antibodies interfere with cellular communication?
by blocking or destroying cellular junctions
List some mechanisms of cellular injury.
(1) genetic factors
(2) nutritional imbalances
(3) physical agents
What are some physical agents that can cause cellular injury?
(1) temperature extremes
(2) atmospheric pressure
(3) ionizing radiation
(4) illumination
(5) mechanical stresses
(6) noise
When do cellular accumulations occur?
(also called infiltrations)

occur not only when injury is sublethal and sustained in injured cells but also in normal cells
What do common cellular accumulations consist of?
substances that are normally present, such as fluids and electrolytes, triglycerides (lipids), glycogen, calcium, uric acid, proteins, melanin, and bilirubin
When do abnormal accumulations of substances occur in the cytoplasm (often in the lysosomes)?
if (1) the normal, endogenous substance is produced in excess or at an increased rate; (2) an endogenous substance (normal or abnormal) is not effectively catabolized, usually because of lack of a vital lysosomal enzyme; or (3) harmful exogenous materials, such as heavy metals, mineral dusts, or microorganisms, accumulate because of inhalation, ingestion, or infection
In all storage diseases, what do cells attempt to do? What happens as a result of this?
(1) cells attempt to digest, or catabolize, the "stored" substances

(2) as a result, excessive amounts of metabolites (products of catabolism) accumulate in the cells and are expelled into the extracellular matrix, where they are taken up by phagocytic cells called macrophages

as more and more macrophages and other phagocytes migrate to tissues that are producing excessive metabolites, the afftected tissues begin to swell. This is the mechanism that causes enlargement of the liver (hepatomegaly) or the spleen (splenomegaly) as a clinical manifestation of many storage diseases
List two clinical manifestations of storage diseases.
(1) hepatomegaly (enlargement of the liver)

(2) splenomegaly
(enlargement of the liver)
What is the most common degernative change in cells?
cellular swelling
What is cellular swelling caused by?
the shift of extracellular water into the cells.
In hypoxic injury, what is the movement of fluid and ions into the cell associated with?
acute failure of metabolism and loss of ATP production
How does hypoxic injury cause acute failure of metabolism and loss of ATP production?
Normally, the pump that transports sodium ions out of the cell is maintained by the presence of ATP and ATPase, the active-transport enzyme.

In metabolic failure caused by hypoxia, reduced ATP and ATPase permit sodium to accumulate in the cell while potassium diffuses outward.

The inreased intracellular sodium increases osmotic pressure, drawing more water into the cell.
The cisternae of the ER become distended, rupture, and coalesce to form large vacuoles that isolate the water from the cytoplasm, a process called vacuolation.
What does progressive vacuolation result in?
in oncosis or vacuolar degeneration or swelling (degeneration by water).

if cellular swelling affects all the cells in an organ, the organ increases in weight and becomes distended and pale.
What is oncosis?
a form of cell death where the mechanism is failure of the sodium/potassium pumps of the plasma membrane.
What is oncosis caused by?
by ischemia and possibly by toxic agents that interfere with ATP generation
How long does it take for oncosis to evolve into cellular death?
about 24 hours
What is cell death usually accompanied by?
nuclear dissolution
True or False. Cellular swelling is reversible.
True
What is the early manifestation of almost all types of cellular injury?
cellular swelling
What is cellular swelling associated with?
high fever
hypokalemia (abnormally low concentration of potassium in the blood)
certain infections
What do certain metabolic disorders result from?
the accumulation of carbohydrates and lipids
Where are accumulations of carbohydrates and lipids primarily found in?
spleen, liver, and CNS
What does the accumulation of carbohydrates and lipids in the CNS cause?
neurologic dysfunction and severe mental retardation
In what diseases is lipid accumulation involved?
Tay-Sachs disease
Niemann-Pick disease
Gaucher disease
In what diseases are carbohydrates normally in excess?
diseases known as mucopolysaccharidoses
What are mucopolysaccharidoses?
progressive disorders that usually involve multiple organs, including liver, spleen, heart, and blood vessels
Where are accumulated mucopolysaccharides found in?
reticuloendothelial cells, endothelial cells, intimal smooth muscle cells, and fibroblasts throughout the body
What do carbohydrate accumulations cause?
clouding of the cornea
joint stiffness
mental retardation
Although lipids sometimes accumulate in the heart and kidney cells, what is the most common site of intracellular llipid accumulation, or fatty change?
in liver cells
Hepatic metabolism and secretion of lipids are crucial to proper body function. What do imbalances and deficiencies in these processes lead to?
major pathologic changes: lipid accumulation in liver cells causes fatty liver, or fatty change.

As lipids fill the cells, vacuolation pushes the nucleus and other organelles aside. Grossly, the liver looks yellowish and greasy.
What does a fatty liver look like?
yellowish and greasy
When does lipid accumulation in liver cells occur?
after cellular injury sets one or more of the following mechanisms in motion:
(1) increased movement of free fatty acids into the liver (starvation, for example, increases breakdown of triglycerides in adipose tissue, releasing fatty acids that subsequently enter liver cells)
(2) failure of the metabolic process that converts fatty acids to phospholipids, resulting in the preferential conversion of fatty acids to triglycerides
(3) increased sythesis of triglycerides from fatty acids (increases in an enzyme, alpha-glycerophosphatase, can accelerate triglyceride synthesis)
(4) decreased synthesis of apoproteins (lipid-acceptor proteins)
(5) failure of lipids to bind with apoproteins and form lipoproteins
(6) failure of mechanisms that transport lipoproteins out of the cell
What diseases and disorders are intracellular accumulations of glycogen seen?
genetic disorders called glycogen storage diseases and in disorders of glucose and glycogen metabolism.
What does glycogen accumulation result in?
excessive vacuolation of the cytoplasm
What is the most common cause of glucose accumulation?
the disorder of glucose metabolism, diabetes mellitus
What is the function of protein in the cell?
cellular structure
What consitutes most of the cell's dry weight?
proteins
Where are proteins synthesized?
on ribosomes in the cytoplasm
Which essential amino acids are proteins synthesized from?
lysine
threonine
leucine
isoleucine
methionine
tryptophan
valine
phenylalanine
histidine
What are the two ways in which protein accumulation damages a cell?
(1) metabolites produced when the cell attempts to digest some proteins, are enzymes that, when released from lysosomes, can damage cellular organelles
(2) excessive amounts of protein in the cytoplasm push against cellular organelles, disrupting organelle function and intracellular communication
Where does excess protein primarily accumulate?
in the epithelial cells of the renal convoluted tubule and in the antibody-forming plasma cells (B lymphocytes) of the immune system
What types of disorders causes excessive excretion of protein molecules into the urine (proteinuria)?
several types of renal disorders
What does the presence of a significant amount of protein in the urine indicate?
cellular injury and altered cellular function
What does protein accumulation in the cytoplasm of renal tubular cells signify?
signify a pathologic process but does not cause direct cellular dysfunction
When can accumulations of protein in B lymphocytes occur?
during active synthesis of antibodies during the immune response
What are excessive aggregates of protein called in B lymphocytes?
Russell bodies
What disease has Russell bodies be identified in?
multiple myeloma (plasma cell tumor)
Pigment accumulation may be _______ or _________, _________ or __________.
(1) normal
(2) abnormal
(3) endogenous
(4) exogenous
Give an example of where endogenous pigments are derived.
amino acids (e.g., tyrosine, tryptophan)
Give an example of an endogenous pigment.
melanin
blood proteins (poryphyrins, hemoglobin, and hemosiderin)
Give an example of a lipid-rich pigment.
lipofuscin--aging pigment--gives a yellow-brown color to cells undergoing slow, regressive, and often atrophic changes
Give examples of exogenous pigments.
mineral dusts containing silica and iron particles, lead, silver salts, and dyes for tattoos
Where does melanin accumulate?
in epithelial cells (keratinocytes) of the skin and retina
Why is melanin an important pigment?
because it protects the skin against long exposure to sunlight and is considered an essential factor in the prevention of skin cancer
What stimulates the synthesis of melanin? What is the function of melanin?
UV light stimulates the synthesis of melanin, which probably absorbs UV rays during subsequent exposure.

Melanin may also protect the skin by trapping the injurious free radicals produced by the action of UV light on the skin.
What is melanin?
a brown-black pigment derived from the amino acid tyrosine
What is melanin synthesized by? Where is it stored?
epidermal cells called melanocytes and is stored in membrane-bound cytoplasmic vesicles called melanosomes
Where does melanin accumulate? How do these cells acquire the melanin?
in melanophores (melanin-containing pigment cells), macrophages, or other phagocytic cells in the dermis

Presumably, these cells acquire the malanin from nearby melanocytes or from pigment that has been extruded from dying epidermal cells.
What causes freckles?
cells acquire melanin from nearby melanocytes or from pigment that has been extruded from dying epidermal cells
Melanin also occurs in the benign form of pigmented moles. What are these moles called?
nevi
What is malignant melanoma?
a cancerous skin tumor than contains melanin
In what disorder does a decrease in melanin production occur?
the inherited disorder of melanin metabolism called albinism
Besides melanin metabolism, what other metabolism is albinism also related to?
phenylalainin metabolism
In classic types of albinism what is the person unable to do?
unable to convert tyrosin to DOPA (3,4-dihydroxyphenylalanine), an intermediate in melanin biosynthesis.
True or False. In albinism, melanin-producing cells are present in NORMAL numbers.
True. They are just not able to make melanin
What proteins are among the most essential of the normal endogenous pigments?
hemoproteins
List the hemoproteins.
hemoglobin
the oxidative enzymes, the cytochromes
What knowledge is necessary in order to understand the disorders of the hemoproteins?
knowledge of iron uptake, metabolism, excretion, and storage
What is hemoprotein accumulation in cells caused by?
excessive storage of iron, which is transferred to the cells from the bloodstream
What are the 3 primary sources by which iron enters the blood?
(1) tissue stores
(2) the intestinal mucosa
(3) macrophages that remove and destroy dead or defective red blood cells
Besides the 3 primary sources by which iron enters the blood, what does the amount of iron in blood plasma depend on?
the metabolism of the major iron-transport protein, transferrin
What are the 2 forms in which iron is stored in tissue cells?
(1) as ferritin
(2) as hemosiderin, when increased levels of iron are present
What is hemosiderin?
a yellow-brown pigment derived from hemoglobin
In pathologic states, where does excesses of iron cause hemosiderin to accumulate in cells?
often in areas of bruising or hemorrhage and in the lungs and spleen after congestion caused by heart failure
What transformation is reflected in the color changes noted with bruising?
with local hemorrhage, the skin first appears red-blue and then lysis of the escaped red blood cells occurs, causing the hemoglobin to the transformed to hemosiderin
What is hemosiderosis?
a condition in which excess iron is stored as hemosiderin in the cells of many organs and tissues
What type of individuals is hemosiderosis common?
in individuals who have received repeated blood transfusions or prolonged parenteral administration of iron
What is hemosiderosis associated with?
increased absorption of dietary iron, conditions in which iron storage and transport is impaired, and hemolytic anemia
Excessive ingestion of what substance can cause hemosiderosis?
alcohol (wine)
How is excessive absorption of dietary iron normally prevented?
by an iron-absorption process in the intestines
Failure of the iron-absorption process in the intestines can lead to total body iron accumulations in the range of _____ to _______ grams, compared with normal iron stores of _____ to ______ grams.
(1) 60 to 80 grams
(2) 4.5 to 5 grams
What type of damage is excessive accumulations of rion associated with?
liver and pancreatic cell damage
Give an example of disease caused by iron overload?
hemochromatosis, a genetic disorder of iron metabolism
What is bilirubin?
a normal, yellow-to-green pigment of bile derived from the porphyrin structure of hemoglobin
What does excess bilirubin in cells and tissues cause?
jaundice (icterus), or yellowing of the skin
When does jaundice occur?
when the bilirubin levels exceed 1.5 to 2 mg/dl of plasma
What are normal levels of bilirubin?
0.4 to 1 mg/dl
When does hyperbilirubinemia occur?
with (1) destruction of RBCs, such as hemolytic jaundice, (2) disease affecting the metabolism and excretion of bilirubin in the liver; and (3) diseases that cause obstruction of the common bile duct, such as gallstones or pancreatic tumors
What drugs can obstruct the normal flow of bile through the liver?
certain drugs (esp. chlorpromazine and other phenothiazine derivatives), estrogenic hormones, and halothane, an anesthetic
Where do calcium salts accumulate?
in both injured and dead tissues
List the mechanism of cellular calcification.
(1) the influx of extracellular calcium in injured mitochondria
(2) excretion of acid in alveoli, gastric epithelium, and renal tubules leading to the local production of hydroxyl ions which cause calcium accumulation in these sites
What do hydroxyl ions result in?
the precipitation of calcium hydroxide (Ca[OH]^2) and hydroxyapatite (3Ca^3[PO^4]^2Ca[OH]^2), a mixed salt.
When does damage caused by calcium occur?
when calcium salts clump and harden, interferring with normal cellular structure and function
Pathologic calcification can be _________ or _________.
(1) dystrophic
(2) metastatic
Where does dystrophic calcification occur?
in dying and dead tissues, chronic tuberculosis of the lungs and lymph nodes, advanced atheroscelerosis (narrowing as a result of plaque accumulation), and heart valve injury
What does calcification of the heart valves do?
interferes with their opening and closing, causing heart murmurs
What does calcification of the coronary arteries predispose them to?
severe narrowing and thrombosis, which can lead to myocardial infarction
How do the center of tumors become calcified?
over time, the center is deprived of its oxygen supply, dies, and becomes calcified.
What do the calcium salts appear as in the centers of tumors?
as gritty, clumped granules that can become hard as stone. When several layers clump together, they resemble grains of sand and are called psammoma bodies.
What does metastatic calcification consist of?
mineral deposits that occur in undamaged normal tissues as the result of hypercalcemia (excess calcium in the blood)
What conditions cause hypercalcemia?
hyperparathyroidism
toxic levels of vitamin D
hyperthyroidism
idiopathic hypercalcemia of infancy
Addison disease (adrenocortical insufficiency)
systemic sarcoidosis
milk-alkali syndrome
increased bone demineralization that results from bone tumors, leukemia, and disseminated cancers

may also occur in advanced renal failure with phosphate retention, resulting in hyperparathyroidism
What is the major end product of purine catabolism in the absence of urate oxidase, in humans?
uric acid (urate)
What are the levels of stable serum urate concentration in postpubertal males? Females?
Males: 5 mg/dl
Females: 4 mg/dl
What do disturbances in maintaining serum urate levels result in?
hyperuricemia and the deposition of sodium urate crystals in the tissues, leading to painful disorders collectively called gout
What disorders are included in gout?
acute arthritis
chronic gouty arthritis
tophi (firm, nodular, subcutaneous deposits of urate crystals surround by fibrosis), and nephritis (inflammation of the nephron)
What does chronic hyperuricemia result in?
the deposition of urate in tissues, cell injury, and inflammation
Why do urate crystals persist in dead cells?
because they are not degraded by lysosomal enzymes
What are the systemic manifestations of cellular injury?
a general sense of fatigue and malaise, a loss of well-being, and altered appetite

fever is often present because of biochemicals produced during the inflammatory response
What causes fever?
release of endogenous pyrogens (interleukin-1, TNF-alpha, prostaglandins) from bacteria or macrophages; acute inflammatory response
What causes increased heart rate?
increase in oxidative metabolic processes resulting from fever
What causes an increase in leukocytes (leukocytosis)?
increase in total number of white blood cells because of infection; normal is 5000-9000/mm^3 (increase is directly related to the severity of the infection)
What causes pain?
various mechanisms, such as release of bradykinins, obstruction, pressure
What causes the presence of cellular enzymes?
release of enzymes from cells of tissue* in extracellular fluid
What causes the presence of lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) (LDH isoenzymes)?
release from red blood cells, liver, kidney, skeletal muscle
What causes the presence of creatine kinase (CK) (CK isoenzymes)?
release from skeletal muscle, brain, heart
What causes the presence of aspartate aminotransferase (AST/SGOT)?
release from heart, liver, skeletal muscle, kidney, pancreas
What causes the presence of alanine aminotransferase (ALT/SGPT)?
release from liver, heart, kidney
What causes the presence of alkaline phosphatase (ALT)?
release from liver, bone
What causes the presence of amylase?
release from pancreas
What causes the presence of aldolase?
release from skeletal muscle, heart
What does cellular death eventually lead to?
cellular dissolution, or necrosis
What is necrosis?
the sum of cellular changes after local cell death and the process of cellular self-digestion known as autodigestion, or autolysis
What are the structural signs that indicate irreversible injury and progression to necrosis?
dense clumping and progressive disruption of genetic material and disruption of the plasma and organelle membranes
What is karyolysis?
nuclear dissolution and lysis of chromatin from the action of hydrolytic enzymes
What is pyknosis?
when the nucleus shrinks and becomes a small, dense mass of genetic material, which eventually dissolves by karyolysis as a result of the action of hydrolytic lysosomal enzymes on DNA
What does karyorrhexis mean?
fragmentation of the nucleus into smaller particles or "nuclear dust."
What are the 4 major types of necroses?
(1) coagulative
(2) liquefactive
(3) caseous
(4) fatty
What is another type of necrosis that is not considered a distinctive type?
gangrenous necrosis
Where does coagulative necrosis primarily occur?
(1) kidneys
(2) heart
(3) adrenal glands
What does coagulative necrosis commonly result from?
hypoxia caused by severe ischemia or hypoxia caused by chemical injury, especially ingestion of mercuric chloride
What is coagulation caused by?
protein denaturation, which causes the protein albumin to change from a gelatinous, transparent state to a firm, opaque state
What does liquefactive necrosis commonly result from?
ischemic injury to neurons and glial cells in the brain
Why is dead brain tissue readily affected by liquefactive necrosis?
because brain cells are rich in the digestive hydrolytic enzymes and lipids and the brain contains little connective tissue
How is dead brain tissue destroyed?
cells are digested by their own hydrolases, so the tissue becomes soft, liquefies, and is walled off from healthy tissue, forming cysts.
What can cause brain tissue to die and be walled off from healthy tissue by cyst formation?
bacterial infection, esp. staphylococci, streptococci, and Escherichia coli
What does caseous necrosis usually result from?
tuberculous pulmonary infection, esp. by Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
What is caseous necrosis a combination of?
coagulative and liquefactive necroses
Describe the process of caseous necrosis.
dead cells disintegrate, but the debris is not completely digested by the hydrolases. Tissues resemble clumped cheese in that they are soft and granular. A granulomatous inflammatory wall encloses areas of caseous necrosis.
What is fat necrosis?
cellular dissolution caused by powerful enzymes, called lipases, that occur in the breast, pancreas, and other abdominal structures.
What do lipases do?
break down triglycerides, releasing free fatty acids, which then combine with calcium, magnesium, and sodium ions, creating soaps (saponification).
Describe the appearance of fatty necrotic tissue.
opaque and chalk-white
What does gangrenous necrosis refer to?
death of tissue
What does gangrenous necrosis result from?
severe hypoxic injury, commonly occurring because of arteriosclerosis, or blockage, of major arteries, particularly those in the lower leg
What is dry gangrene usually the result of?
coagulative necrosis
What are the characteristics of dry gangrene?
the skin becomes very dry and shrinks, resulting in wrinkles, and its color changes to dark brown or black
When does wet gangrene develop?
when neutrophils invade the site, causing liquefactive necrosis.
Where does wet gangrene usually develop?
in internal organs
What are the characteristics of wet gangrene?
the site becomes cold, swollen, and black

a foul odor is present, and if systemic symptoms become severe, death can ensue
What is gas gangrene?
a special type of gangrene caused by infection of injured tissue by one of many species of Clostridium
What do Clostridium bacteria produce?
hydrolytic enzymes and toxins that destroy connective tissue and cellular membranes and cause bubbles of gas to form in muscle cells
What causes gas gangrene to be fatal?
if enzymes lyse the membranes of red blood cells, destroying their oxygen-carrying capacity.

Death is caused by shock.
In gas gangrene, what is death caused by?
shock
What is apoptosis?
an active process of cellular self-destruction called programmed cell death--that is, cells need to die otherwise endless proliferation would lead to gigantic bodies
How many new cells does the average human create in a day?
about 10 billion new cells, and kill off the same number
What are the activated genes that cause apoptosis called? Why?
suicide cells

because their activation by the nucleus inactivates so-called life-sustaining genes and promotes pathways leading to killer genes
What cells does apoptosis affect?
scattered, single cells; although there are examples of it occurring in widespread areas
Describe the process of apoptosis.
nuclear and cytoplasmic shrinkage of a cell followed by fragmentation into membrane-bound fragments and subsequent phagocytosis by neutrophils from neighboring healthy cells
What does apoptosis determine?
the size, patterning, and function of many tissues
How can apoptosis be activated exogenously?
by exogenous factors such as a long-lasting viral infection
How can apoptosis be activated endogenously?
by the absence of certain growth factors
What is physiologic apoptosis important in?
in the development of body tissues

for example, it is responsible for local deletion of cells during tissue turnover and normal embryonic development. It has been shown to occur in endocrine-dependent tissues undergoing normal atrophic change
What is pathologic apoptosis the result of?
intracellular events or adverse exogenous stimuli.

for example, deficiencies of specific enzymes can lead to disease where cells have undergone apoptosis.

liver cells infected with viral hepatitis C, for example, can undergo apoptosis
What has apoptosis in hemopoietic cells been linked to?
the production of free radicals and can spontaneously occur in some malignant tumors and cells treated with ionizing radiation and chemotherapy.
What can absence of apoptosis cause?
pathologic change

a mutaton in a gene (bcl-2, for example) that promotes apoptosis may only give the signal to proliferate and not die. Thus, lymphocytes may accumulate, enlarging lymph nodes and eventually proliferating into the blood.
What is the best cellular marker for apoptosis?
karyohexis (fragmentation of the nucleus to dust), especially in an isolated cell
What is aging usually defined as?
a normal physiologic process that is both universal and inevitable
What do the basic mechanisms of aging depend on?
the irreversible and universal processes at the cellular and molecular level
What is the maximal life span in humans?
between 80 and 100 years and does not vary significantly among populations
Why has the death rate for people aged 65 years and older declined?
largely as a result of decreased cardiovascular disease
What is life expectancy?
a summary measure of mortality--the average number of years of life expected if current death rates were constant.
In 2004 what was the life expectancy at birth for the total population?
77.9 years
What was the gender gap between male and female life expectancy in 2004?
5.2 years, down from 5.4 years in 2002
What is the life expectancy of a male? Female?
Male: 75 years
Females: 80 years
Which state in the US had the lowest mortality rate in 2004?
Hawaii: 650.1 deaths/100,000
Which state in the US had the highest mortality rate in 2004?
Mississippi: 1015.2 deaths/100,000
Which country ranks numer 1 for life expectancy (males, 82.8 years; females 87.7 years)?
Japan
What are some of the prominent theories of aging?
(1) cellular changes produced by genetic and environmental-lifestyle factors; (2) changes in cellular regulatory, or control, mechanisms, esp. in cells of the neuro-endocrine, immune, and central nervous systems; and (3) degenerative extracellular and vascular alterations
How might genetic and environmental factors contribute to the aging process?
cells may become damaged during replication as a result of factors within the cell, such as DNA and protein mechanisms, or factors outside of the cell, such as ionizing radiation

cells may already be programmed at birth or injured during life so as to cause errors in mitotic division and in replication of genetic material, eventually leading to either cellular atrophy or death

genetic mechanism: programmed aging--some investigators think that each normal cell may have a finite life span during which it can replicate

somatic mutation hypothesis--proposes that aging is the result of DNA damage, inefficiency of repair, and loss of integrity of DNA synthesis

catastrophic or error-prone theory--stated that the presence of errors in those enzymes involved in transcription and translation, and thus their own synthesis, leads to an increase in errors and eventually to the death of the cell
Where is cellular atrophy most common?
in the thymus, testis, ovary, uterus, and breast
How might alterations in cellular control mechanisms cause aging?
neuroendocrine theory--purports that a genetic program for aging is encoded in the brain and is controlled and relayed to peripheral tissues through hormonal agents. Possible mechanisms include: (1) increased hormonal degradation, (2) decreased rate of hormonal synthesis and secretion; and (3) decreased target-organ sensitivity related to a number of cellular receptors for hormonal ligands, ligand-receptor binding, or ligand internalization

proponents of immune theories of aging believe that the immune system is implicated in aging because (1) immune function declines with age; (2) the decline in immune function is related to certain diseases, such as cancer, and to many other secondary effects; and (3) the number of auto-antibodies (antibodies that attack body tissues) increases with age
How might the extracellular environment be associated with the aging process?
the binding of collagen; the increase in free radicals' effects on cells; the structural alterations of fascia, tendons, ligaments, bones, and joints; and peripheral vascular disease, particularly arteriosclerosis

affects the extracellular matrix with increased cross-linking, decreased synthesis, and increased degradation of collagen

skeletal muscle alterations, cataracts, diverticula, hernias, and rupture of intervertebral disks

free radicals of oxygen damage tissues during the aging process

with aging, lipid, calcium, and plasma proteins are deposited in the walls of vessels. These depositions cause serious basement membrane thickening and alterations in smooth muscle functioning, resulting in arteriosclerosis
What is arteriosclerosis?
a progressive disease that causes such problems as stroke, myocaridal infarction, renal disease, and peripheral vascular disease
What happens to cells as they age?
atrophy, decreased function, and loss of cells, possibly caused by apoptosis
What does loss of cellular function initiate?
the compensatory mechanisms of hypertrophy and hyperplasia of remaining cells, which can lead to metaplasia, dysplasia, and neoplasia.

All of these changes can alter receptor placement and function, nutrient pathways, secretion of cellular products, and neuroendocrine control mechanisms
In the aged cell, what are most susceptible to injurious stimuli?
DNA, RNA, cellular proteins, and membranes
What type of injuries can occur to DNA?
breaks, deletions, and additions
What does lack of DNA repair increase?
the cell's susceptibility to mutations that may be lethal or may promote the development of neoplasia
What is the most characteristic tissue change with age?
a progressive stiffness or rigidity that affects many systems, including the arterial, pulmonary, and musculoskeletal systems
What is the consequence of blood vessel and organ stiffness?
a progressive increase in peripheral resistance to blood flow
Aging occurs in part because of the declines in the function of ___________.
tissue stem cells
What does normal tissue function require?
that the rate of cell loss be matched by the rate of cell renewal.

Aging is increased by changes that either accelerates cellular loss or slows tissue repair.
What do changes in the endocrine and immune systems include?
thymus atrophy
What type of atrophy occurs in puberty?
thymus atrophy, causing a decreased immune response to T-dependent antigens (foreign proteins), increased autoantibodies and immune complexes (antibodies bound to antigens) and an overall decrease in the immunologic tolerance for the host's own cells further diminish the effectiveness of the immune system later in life
In women, the reproductive system loses _______, and in men, __________ decreases. Responsiveness to ___________ decreases in the ________ and __________.
(1) ova
(2) spermatogenesis
(3) hormones
(4) breast
(5) endometrium
How does aging affect the stomach?
decreases the rate of emptying and secretion of hormones and hydrochloric acid
What does muscular atrophy do?
diminishes mobility by decreasing motor tone and contractility
What is sarcopenia?
loss of muscle mass
How is the skin of the aged individual affected?
atrophy and wrinkling of the epidermis and alterations in underlying dermis, fat, and muscle
What total body changes occur in aging?
(1) decrease in height
(2) reduction in circumference of the neck, thighs, and arms
(3) widening of the pelvis
(4) lengthing of the nose and ears
What are several of the total body changes the result of?
tissue atrophy and decreased bone mass caused by osteoporosis and osteoarthritis
How does body compositon change with age?
with middle age, there is an increase in body weight (men gain until 50 year of age and women gain until 70 years) and fat mass, followed by a decrease in stature, weight, fat-free mass, and body cell mass at older ages.
As fat ________, total body water ____________.
(1) increases
(2) decreases
What symptoms of aging are associated with non-insulin dependent diabetes and heart disease?
(1) increased body fat
(2) centralized fat distribution (abdominal)
What does an increased sodium/potassium ratio suggest?
that the decreased cellular mass is accompanied by an increased extracellular fluid compartment
What is frailty?
a wasting syndrome of aging, leaving a person vulnerable to falls, functional decline, disease, and death
What are thought to be important determinants of frailty?
age-related changes in teh musculoskeletal system
What are the criteria to define frailty?
mobility
balance
muscle strength
motor activity
cognition
nutritional status
endurance
falls
fractures
bone density
What does age-related endocrine-immune dysregulation include?
declining hormones (for ex., estrogens, testosterone, IGF-1), and increasing proinflammatory cytokines (for ex., IL-6 and C-reactive protein [CRP])
What are the joint effects of low levels of IGF-1 and increased levels of IL-6 related to?
high risk for progressive disability and death in older women
Elevated levels of what cytokines have been related to sarcopenia?
catabolic cytokines including TNF-alpha, as well as IL-6
What may declines in ovarian function lead to?
increased proinflammatory cytokines (such as IL-1, IL-6, and TNF-alpha)
The endocrine-immune dysregulation may be an important mechanism of what?
frailty
What is somatic death?
death of the entire person
How is postmortem change different than the changes that follow cellular death in a live body?
postmortem change is diffuse and does not involve components of the inflammatory response.
What are the most notable manifestations that death of the person has occurred?
complete cessation of respiration and circulation

the surface of the skin usually becomes pale and yellowish; however, the lifelike color of the cheeks and lips may persist after death that is caused by CO poisoning, drowning, or chloroform poisoning
What happens to body temperature after death?
it falls gradually immediately after death and then more rapidly (approx. 1.0* to 1.5* F/hr) until, after 24 hours, body temperature equals that of the environment
What happens to body temperature after death caused by certain infective diseases?
body temperature may continue to rise for a short time
What is postmortem reduction of body temperature called?
algor mortis
What happens to blood pressure in the retinal vessels after death?
it decreases, causing muscle tension to decrease and the pupils to dilate. The face, nose, and chin become sharp or peaked-looking as blood and fluids drain away.
What is gravity's effect on blood after death?
it causes the blood to settle in the most dependent, or lowest, tissues, which develop a deep purple discoloration called livor mortis
What is livor mortis?
a deep purple discoloration in the tissues from settling blood
What happens within 6 hours after death?
acidic compounds accumulate within the muscles because of the breakdown of carbohydrate and depletion of ATP. This interferes with ATP-dependent detachment of myosin from actin (contractile proteins), and muscle stiffening, or rigor mortis, sets in.
What is rigor mortis?
muscle stiffening
What muscles are usually affected by rigor mortis first?
small muscles, particularly the muscles of the jaw
How long after death does rigor mortis affect the entire body?
within 12 to 14 hours
When are the signs of putrefaction obvious?
about 24 to 48 hours after death
When does rigor mortis diminish causing the body to become flaccid?
at 36 to 62 hours
What is the most visible putrefaction change?
a greenish discoloration of the skin, particularly the abdomen
What is the greenish coloration of putrefaction though to be related to?
the diffusion of hemolyzed blood into the tissues and the production of sulfhemoglobin
What occurs at the same time as putrefaction?
slippage or loosening of the skin from underlying tissues
What occurs after the skin loosens from underlying tissues?
swelling or bloating of the body and liquefactive changes occur, sometimes causing opening of the body cavities
At the microscopic level, what are the putrefactive changes associated with?
the release of enzymes and lytic dissolution called postmortem autolysis