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131 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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The generic name of a medication:
A. is proprietary and cannot be reproduced. B. is proposed by the manufacturer. C. contains a string of letters and numbers. D. does not require FDA approval. |
B. is proposed by the manufacturer.
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Common components of a medication profile include all of the following, EXCEPT:
A. potential incompatibility. B. mechanism of action. C. pregnancy risk factors. D. the weight of the drug. |
D. the weight of the drug.
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Which of the following statements regarding vasopressin is correct?
A. Vasopressin is a naturally occurring hormone that is secreted in response to intravascular volume depletion. B. Vasopressin reduces cardiac afterload, which may cause clinically significant hypotension. C. Vasopressin is a useful medication for patients with right heart failure and peripheral edema. D. In cardiac arrest, current guidelines recommend 20 to 40 units of vasopressin every 5 minutes. |
A. Vasopressin is a naturally occurring hormone that is secreted in response to intravascular volume depletion.
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Which of the following is an influencing factor regarding the administration of a fibrinolytic drug to a patient experiencing an acute myocardial infarction?
Choose one answer. A. Concurrent use of aspirin B. History of unstable angina C. Quality of the chest pain D. Time of symptom onset |
D. Time of symptom onset
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The physiologic effects of nitroglycerin when given to patients with cardiac-related chest pain include:
Choose one answer. A. increased afterload and peripheral vasodilation. B. increased myocardial oxygen consumption. C. decreased preload and coronary vasodilation. D. coronary vasoconstriction and increased preload. |
C. decreased preload and coronary vasodilation
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Marks: 5
The paramedic should suspect altered medication metabolism in a patient with: Choose one answer. A. hypertension. B. chronic alcoholism. C. chronic renal failure. D. acute pancreatitis. |
C. chronic renal failure.
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The Comprehensive Drug Abuse Prevention and Control Act of 1970:
Choose one answer. A. was aimed at protecting the public from mislabeled, poisonous, or otherwise harmful food, medications, and alcoholic beverages. B. was a legislative act dealing with narcotic and nonnarcotic medications that have a potential for abuse, and developed a drug classification system according to the abuse potential of the medications. C. regulated the import, manufacture, prescription, and sale of several nonnarcotic medications and cocaine, opium, and their derivatives. D. increased the penalties for violation of the Harrison Narcotic Act, made the possession of heroin illegal, and outlawed the acquisition and transportation of marijuana. |
B. was a legislative act dealing with narcotic and nonnarcotic medications that have a potential for abuse, and developed a drug classification system according to the abuse potential of the medications.
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An undesirable clinical change caused by a medication that causes some degree of harm or discomfort to the patient is called a(n):
Choose one answer. A. placebo effect. B. adverse effect. C. idiosyncrasy. D. side effect. |
B. adverse effect.
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What is the mechanism of action of anticoagulant medications?
Choose one answer. A. They dissolve existing clots, thereby restoring distal blood flow. B. They promote hemostasis in patients with pulmonary emboli. C. They prevent new clot formation and the growth of existing clots. D. They inhibit platelet aggregation during acute coronary syndrome. |
C. They prevent new clot formation and the growth of existing clots.
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Which of the following statements regarding sympathomimetic chemicals is correct?
Choose one answer. A. They are not synthetically manufactured. B. They are not found naturally in the body. C. They block the release of acetylcholine. D. They only stimulate alpha-1 receptors. |
B. They are not found naturally in the body.
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An abnormal susceptibility to a medication that is peculiar to an individual patient is called an:
Choose one answer. A. exaggerated therapeutic effect. B. untoward effect. C. idiosyncratic reaction. |
C. idiosyncratic reaction.
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Stimulation of alpha-1 receptors results in:
Choose one answer. A. arterial dilation. B. vasoconstriction. C. insulin secretion. D. glucagon secretion. |
B. vasoconstriction.
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Dopamine is commonly used in the prehospital setting as the primary medication for:
Choose one answer. A. nonhypovolemic hypotension. B. severe intracranial hemorrhage. C. right-sided heart failure. D. vagal-induced bradycardia. |
A. nonhypovolemic hypotension.
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In order to cause a negative inotropic effect on the heart, you would have to administer a(n):
Choose one answer. A. alpha-2 adrenergic agonist. B. beta-2 adrenergic agonist. C. alpha-1 adrenergic antagonist. D. beta-1 adrenergic antagonist. |
D. beta-1 adrenergic antagonist.
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Phenothiazine medications exert their antiemetic properties by:
Choose one answer. A. promoting the secretion of hormones in the brain that depress the function of the medulla oblongata. B. activating dopaminergic receptors in the brain and releasing hormones that depress the reticular activating system. C. antagonizing dopaminergic receptor sites in the brain, which suppresses the function of the hypothalamus. D. blocking histamine-2 receptors, which inhibits gastric acid production and slows peristalsis. |
B. activating dopaminergic receptors in the brain and releasing hormones that depress the reticular activating system.
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The desired clinical effect after administering a beta-2 agonist medication is:
Choose one answer. A. contraction of vascular smooth muscle. B. increased cardiac contractility C. dilation of the systemic vasculature. D. relaxation of bronchiole smooth muscle. |
D. relaxation of bronchiole smooth muscle.
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What class of medication is typically used to control the heart rate in patients with atrial fibrillation or atrial flutter?
Choose one answer. A. Potassium channel blocker B. Sodium channel blocker C. Calcium channel blocker D. Beta-adrenergic blocker |
C. Calcium channel blocker
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Lipid-soluble medications require higher weight-based doses in elderly patients because:
Choose one answer. A. elderly patients have a higher overall percentage of body water. B. elderly patients have a much faster basil metabolic rate. C. elderly patients have a higher body fat percentage and fat distribution. D. there are fewer barriers to absorption in elderly patients. |
C. elderly patients have a higher body fat percentage and fat distribution.
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Which of the following medications can be administered via the intranasal route?
Choose one answer. A. Morphine B. Diazepam C. Atropine D. Naloxone |
D. Naloxone
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A medication that has a narrow therapeutic index:
Choose one answer. A. should not be given because its effects are too harmful. B. should not be given to patients over 50 years of age. C. can be given, but not without close patient monitoring. D. is safe to give because the chance of toxicity is remote. |
C. can be given, but not without close patient monitoring.
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In critical care settings, mannitol is used to:
Choose one answer. A. reduce cerebral edema. B. manage hypothermia. C. lower the blood pressure. D. treat anaphylaxis. |
A. reduce cerebral edema.
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In contrast to epinephrine, norepinephrine:
Choose one answer. A. has minimal effect on blood pressure. B. primarily stimulates alpha receptors. C. specifically targets beta-1 receptors. D. stimulates beta-1 and beta-2 receptors. |
B. primarily stimulates alpha receptors.
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Physiologic drug antagonism occurs when:
Choose one answer. A. the action of one medication increases or decreases the ability of another medication to be absorbed by the body. B. the effect of one medication is enhanced by the presence of another medication, which does not have the ability to produce the same effect. C. two medications, each producing identical effects, are present simultaneously, resulting in an enhanced physiologic response. D. two medications, each producing opposite effects, are present simultaneously, resulting in minimal or no clinical changes. |
D. two medications, each producing opposite effects, are present simultaneously, resulting in minimal or no clinical changes.
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Catecholamines and sympathomimetic medications should be administered with caution because they:
Choose one answer. A. have an average duration of action of between 24 and 48 hours. B. have a tendency to cause a significant decrease in cardiac output. C. can increase cardiac workload and myocardial oxygen demand. D. are associated with paradoxical bradycardia in younger patients. |
C. can increase cardiac workload and myocardial oxygen demand.
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Fentanyl (Sublimaze) is the preferred opioid analgesic for patients in critical or unstable condition because:
Choose one answer. A. it only requires one small dose to achieve analgesia. B. its effects last much longer than any other opioid. C. it is not as prone to causing hypotension as morphine. D. it hyperstimulates mu (μ) opioid receptor sites. |
C. it is not as prone to causing hypotension as morphine.
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The paramedic must use caution when referencing a medication in an American Medical Association (AMA) publication because:
Choose one answer. A. the AMA publication only lists medications that are in human clinical trials. B. all medications in an AMA publication are listed by their chemical name only. C. not every medication listed in the compendium has received FDA approval. D. medications listed in an AMA publication are typically not for prehospital use. |
C. not every medication listed in the compendium has received FDA approval.
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What class of medication is typically used to control the heart rate in patients with atrial fibrillation or atrial flutter?
Choose one answer. A. Sodium channel blocker B. Beta-adrenergic blocker C. Potassium channel blocker D. Calcium channel blocker |
D. Calcium channel blocker
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A medication is used “off-label.” This means that it:
Choose one answer. A. is used for a purpose not approved by the FDA, at doses different from the recommended doses, or by a route of administration not approved by the FDA. B. has been determined to be safe by a physician, and is used to treat a patient's illness before the medication has been approved by the FDA for any purpose. C. is administered in clinical trials while the manufacturer conducts further research and before the FDA has approved the medication for use. D. is administered in an extreme emergency situation, but only if initial clinical trials have determined that the medication will not cause harm to the patient. |
A. is used for a purpose not approved by the FDA, at doses different from the recommended doses, or by a route of administration not approved by the FDA.
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A/an __________________ agent is used to increase the pH of the serum or urine?
Choose one answer. A. antihistamine B. anticoagulant C. antacid D. alkalinizing |
D. alkalinizing
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A medication undergoes first-pass metabolism in the:
Choose one answer. A. bone marrow. B. liver. C. stomach. D. spleen. |
B. liver.
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Which of the following statements regarding the sublingual administration of nitroglycerin is correct?
Choose one answer. A. Large doses of IV nitroglycerin are required to achieve the same effect as a single sublingual nitroglycerin dose B. Nitroglycerin given by the sublingual route has a rapid onset of action, but a low bioavailability C. Sublingual nitroglycerin administration involves placing a tablet in between the patient's cheek and gum D. Sublingual nitroglycerin has a delayed onset of action, but nearly a 100% bioavailability |
B. Nitroglycerin given by the sublingual route has a rapid onset of action, but a low bioavailability
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All of the following are endogenous catecholamines, EXCEPT:
Choose one answer. A. norepinephrine. B. atropine. C. dopamine. D. epinephrine. |
B. atropine.
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A patient takes 500 mg of a medication that has a half-life of 2 hours. How much medication will be in the patient's body after 6 hours?
Choose one answer. A. 250 mg B. 125 mg C. 31.25 mg D. 62.5 mg |
D. 62.5 mg
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Metoprolol has the brand name _____________, which may be a subtle reference to lowering the blood pressure.
Choose one answer. A. Cordarone B. Vasotec C. Lopressor D. Norpramin |
C. Lopressor
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Which of the following medications is used to provide cardiac cell membrane stabilization following tricyclic antidepressant overdose?
Choose one answer. A. Calcium chloride B. Diphenhydramine C. Magnesium sulfate D. Sodium bicarbonate |
D. Sodium bicarbonate
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Which of the following factors would have the LEAST influence on the duration and effectiveness of a medication?
Choose one answer. A. Patient's dietary habits B. Dose administered C. Route of administration D. Patient's clinical status |
A. Patient's dietary habits
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Ipratropium bromide (Atrovent) causes bronchodilation by:
Choose one answer. A. antagonizing beta-2 receptors. B. agonizing nicotinic receptors. C. agonizing beta-2 receptors. D. antagonizing muscarinic receptors. |
D. antagonizing muscarinic receptors.
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The process that the cells of large medication molecules use to ingest intracellular fluids and their contents is called:
Choose one answer. A. phagocytosis. B. pinocytosis. C. filtration. D. osmosis. |
B. pinocytosis.
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Lidocaine is an antidysrhythmic that works by:
Choose one answer. A. blocking sodium channels in the Purkinje fibers and ventricle. B. displacing calcium at certain receptor sites in the myocardium. C. increasing the duration of phases 1, 2, and 3 of the cardiac cycle. D. antagonizing beta-adrenergic receptors in the myocardium. |
A. blocking sodium channels in the Purkinje fibers and ventricle.
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The ability of a medication to initiate or alter cell activity in a therapeutic or desired manner is referred to as:
Choose one answer. A. affinity. B. potency. C. the threshold level. D. efficacy. |
D. efficacy.
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Which of the following statements regarding plasma-protein binding is correct?
Choose one answer. A. Plasma-protein binding releases medication as circulating levels of a particular medication begin to fall, leading to a longer duration of action. B. Plasma-protein binding is an irreversible process that decreases the amount of medication necessary for a desired clinical effect. C. If a patient has a safe level of a protein-bound medication, a second medication with a greater affinity greatly decreases the amount of the original medication. D. As plasma protein levels decrease, the introduction of another protein-bound medication causes the concentration of the original medication to remain unchanged. |
A. Plasma-protein binding releases medication as circulating levels of a particular medication begin to fall, leading to a longer duration of action.
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A medication that possesses a negative chronotropic effect will:
Choose one answer. A. cause a decrease in the heart rate. B. cause an increase in blood pressure. C. decrease myocardial contractile force. D. increase cardiac electrical conduction velocity. |
A. cause a decrease in the heart rate.
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Cross-tolerance to a medication occurs when:
Choose one answer. A. repeated doses of a medication within a short time rapidly cause tolerance, which renders the medication ineffective. B. the body's metabolism increases, resulting in a decreased concentration of the medication present near receptor sites. C. repeated exposure to a medication within a particular class causes tolerance to other medications in the same class. D. repeated exposure to a medication causes an abnormal tolerance to the adverse or therapeutic effects of the medication. |
C. repeated exposure to a medication within a particular class causes tolerance to other medications in the same class.
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Unlike a nondepolarizing paralytic, a competitive depolarizing paralytic:
Choose one answer. A. does not induce full paralysis. B. lowers serum potassium. C. causes muscle fasciculations. D. causes profound sedation. |
C. causes muscle fasciculations.
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In up to one third of all patients, morphine sulfate causes:
Choose one answer. A. nausea and vomiting. B. a reflex tachycardia. C. severe hypotension. D. complete heart block. |
A. nausea and vomiting.
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Medications commonly administered via a nebulizer include all of the following, EXCEPT:
Choose one answer. A. albuterol. B. Xopenex. C. lidocaine. D. Racemic epinephrine. |
C. lidocaine.
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An undesirable clinical change caused by a medication that causes some degree of harm or discomfort to the patient is called a(n):
Choose one answer. A. side effect. B. placebo effect. C. adverse effect. D. idiosyncrasy. |
C. adverse effect.
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The therapeutic index of a medication is defined as the:
Choose one answer. A. period of time in which the medication is excreted from the body. B. duration of therapeutic action for a given medication on the body. C. difference between the median effective dose and the median toxic dose. D. plasma level at which the medication begins to exert its effect. |
C. difference between the median effective dose and the median toxic dose.
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Dopamine is commonly used in the prehospital setting as the primary medication for:
Choose one answer. A. vagal-induced bradycardia. B. severe intracranial hemorrhage. C. right-sided heart failure. D. nonhypovolemic hypotension. |
D. nonhypovolemic hypotension.
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In critical care settings, mannitol is used to:
Choose one answer. A. treat anaphylaxis. B. manage hypothermia. C. reduce cerebral edema. D. lower the blood pressure. |
C. reduce cerebral edema.
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Newer medications are designed to target only specific receptor sites on certain cells in an attempt to:
Choose one answer. A. minimize the adverse effects. B. treat more than one condition. C. eliminate all side effects. D. reduce their therapeutic effect. |
A. minimize the adverse effects.
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Patients who receive opioid substances on a long-term basis:
Choose one answer. A. are less likely to develop cross-tolerance than a non-opioid user. B. typically respond to lower doses of an opioid medication. C. often need higher doses of an opioid medication for pain relief. D. are less likely to experience severe nervous system depression. |
C. often need higher doses of an opioid medication for pain relief.
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What class of medication is typically used to control the heart rate in patients with atrial fibrillation or atrial flutter?
Choose one answer. A. Potassium channel blocker B. Beta-adrenergic blocker C. Sodium channel blocker D. Calcium channel blocker |
D. Calcium channel blocker
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Decreased efficacy or potency of a medication when taken repeatedly by a patient is called:
Choose one answer. A. tolerance. B. addiction. C. habituation. D. immunity. |
A. tolerance.
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Which of the following medications is derived from a plant source?
Choose one answer. A. Insulin B. Digoxin C. Lithium D. Heparin |
B. Digoxin
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The peak of a medication's effect depends on _____________, whereas the duration of effect depends on ______________.
Choose one answer. A. metabolism, distribution B. distribution, absorption C. absorption, metabolism D. elimination, absorption |
C. absorption, metabolism
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In order to relieve the bronchospasm associated with an acute asthma attack, the paramedic would give a(n):
Choose one answer. A. alpha-1 agonist. B. beta-1 agonist. C. alpha-2 agonist. D. beta-2 agonist. |
D. beta-2 agonist.
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All of the following are endogenous catecholamines, EXCEPT:
Choose one answer. A. epinephrine. B. atropine. C. norepinephrine. D. dopamine. |
B. atropine.
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A medication is called an antagonist if:
Choose one answer. A. it attaches to a receptor site and produces an effect or series of effects. B. it has a higher affinity for the receptor site than the chemical mediator. C. the chemical mediator of a receptor has a higher affinity than the medication. D. it stimulates a receptor site to cause the response that that receptor normally causes. |
B. it has a higher affinity for the receptor site than the chemical mediator.
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Stimulation of beta-2 receptors will cause:
Choose one answer. A. vasoconstriction and hypertension. B. bronchoconstriction. C. a decreased release of norepinephrine. D. the airway diameter to dilate. |
D. the airway diameter to dilate.
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Which of the following statements regarding vasopressin is correct?
Choose one answer. A. In cardiac arrest, current guidelines recommend 20 to 40 units of vasopressin every 5 minutes. B. Vasopressin reduces cardiac afterload, which may cause clinically significant hypotension. C. Vasopressin is a useful medication for patients with right heart failure and peripheral edema. D. Vasopressin is a naturally occurring hormone that is secreted in response to intravascular volume depletion. |
D. Vasopressin is a naturally occurring hormone that is secreted in response to intravascular volume depletion.
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Medications that are manufactured synthetically:
Choose one answer. A. include insulin, digitalis, and thyroid medications. B. include calcium, iron, magnesium, and other minerals. C. do not use animal, mineral, or vegetable sources. D. are derived from certain plants and animal organs. |
C. do not use animal, mineral, or vegetable sources.
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In critical care settings, mannitol is used to:
Choose one answer. A. manage hypothermia. B. treat anaphylaxis. C. reduce cerebral edema. D. lower the blood pressure. |
C. reduce cerebral edema.
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Under normal conditions, the renin-angiotensin system functions by:
Choose one answer. A. promoting vasoconstriction and fluid retention in response to hypotension or hypoperfusion. B. blocking alpha-2 receptors, thereby increasing the release of norepinephrine and raising blood pressure. C. dilating the systemic vasculature and reducing cardiac afterload when arterial blood pressure increases. D. stimulating alpha-1 receptors, thereby increasing the blood pressure in response to acute blood loss. |
A. promoting vasoconstriction and fluid retention in response to hypotension or hypoperfusion.
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Which of the following is NOT an oral antiplatelet medication?
Choose one answer. A. Plavix B. Ticlid C. ReoPro D. Aspirin |
C. ReoPro
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What is the mechanism of action of anticoagulant medications?
Choose one answer. A. They dissolve existing clots, thereby restoring distal blood flow. B. They promote hemostasis in patients with pulmonary emboli. C. They inhibit platelet aggregation during acute coronary syndrome. D. They prevent new clot formation and the growth of existing clots. |
D. They prevent new clot formation and the growth of existing clots
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The action of the body in response to a medication is called:
Choose one answer. A. pharmacokinetics. B. pharmacodynamics. C. pharmacology. D. biotransformation. |
A. pharmacokinetics.
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If unmatched blood is administered in the prehospital setting, it will almost always be:
Choose one answer. A. O, Rh-positive. B. AB, Rh-positive. C. O, Rh-negative. D. AB, Rh-negative. |
C. O, Rh-negative.
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Which of the following statements regarding packed red blood cells (PRBCs) is correct?
Choose one answer. A. For every 3 mL of whole blood that is lost, the patient should be given 1 to 2 mL of PRBCs. B. In a patient with ongoing RBC loss, one unit of PRBCs will increase the hematocrit by about 5%. C. In general, the rate of administration of PRBCs should be proportional to the rate of blood cell loss. D. PRBCs should not be given to patients with hemolysis, as this will cause a transfusion reaction. |
C. In general, the rate of administration of PRBCs should be proportional to the rate of blood cell loss.
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Cross-tolerance to a medication occurs when:
Choose one answer. A. repeated exposure to a medication within a particular class causes tolerance to other medications in the same class. B. the body's metabolism increases, resulting in a decreased concentration of the medication present near receptor sites. C. repeated exposure to a medication causes an abnormal tolerance to the adverse or therapeutic effects of the medication. D. repeated doses of a medication within a short time rapidly cause tolerance, which renders the medication ineffective. |
A. repeated exposure to a medication within a particular class causes tolerance to other medications in the same class.
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Which of the following statements regarding succinylcholine is correct?
Choose one answer. A. It has a rapid onset of action and short duration of action. B. It may induce or exacerbate existing hypokalemia. C. It causes tachycardia, especially in small children. D. It has a rapid onset of action and long duration of action. |
A. It has a rapid onset of action and short duration of action.
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In order to relieve the bronchospasm associated with an acute asthma attack, the paramedic would give a(n):
Choose one answer. A. beta-1 agonist. B. alpha-2 agonist. C. beta-2 agonist. D. alpha-1 agonist. |
C. beta-2 agonist.
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Most medication biotransformation occurs in the:
Choose one answer. A. lungs. B. kidneys. C. GI tract. D. liver. |
D. liver.
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Which of the following statements regarding the sublingual administration of nitroglycerin is correct?
Choose one answer. A. Large doses of IV nitroglycerin are required to achieve the same effect as a single sublingual nitroglycerin dose B. Nitroglycerin given by the sublingual route has a rapid onset of action, but a low bioavailability C. Sublingual nitroglycerin has a delayed onset of action, but nearly a 100% bioavailability D. Sublingual nitroglycerin administration involves placing a tablet in between the patient's cheek and gum |
B. Nitroglycerin given by the sublingual route has a rapid onset of action, but a low bioavailability
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Toxic effects from beta blockers include all of the following, EXCEPT:
Choose one answer. A. conduction delays. B. hypotension. C. bradycardia. D. tachycardia. |
D. tachycardia.
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The paramedic can avoid technical errors in medication administration by:
Choose one answer. A. using a current, reliable medication reference source before administering the medication. B. having a partner confirm the volume in a syringe or a weight-based medication calculation. C. contacting medical control and confirming that the proposed dose is appropriate for the patient. D. evaluating a patient for medication allergies or hypersensitivity before administering the medication. |
B. having a partner confirm the volume in a syringe or a weight-based medication calculation.
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What classification of medication is ketorolac (Toradol)?
Choose one answer. A. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory B. Corticosteroid anti-inflammatory C. Opioid analgesic D. Histamine-1 receptor antagonist |
A. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory
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Metoprolol has the brand name _____________, which may be a subtle reference to lowering the blood pressure.
Choose one answer. A. Lopressor B. Norpramin C. Vasotec D. Cordarone |
A. Lopressor
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Dopamine is commonly used in the prehospital setting as the primary medication for:
Choose one answer. A. nonhypovolemic hypotension. B. vagal-induced bradycardia. C. severe intracranial hemorrhage. D. right-sided heart failure. |
A. nonhypovolemic hypotension.
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What term is used to describe a situation in which a patient experiences clinical effects from a medication that are opposite from the intended effects?
Choose one answer. A. Subtherapeutic effect B. Paradoxical reaction C. Idiosyncrasy D. Side effect |
C. Idiosyncrasy
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For which of the following conditions is sodium nitroprusside used?
Choose one answer. A. Severe refractory hypotension B. Vagal-induced bradycardia C. Unstable vascular aneurysm D. Intracerebral hemorrhage |
C. Unstable vascular aneurysm
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Ipratropium bromide (Atrovent) causes bronchodilation by:
Choose one answer. A. antagonizing beta-2 receptors. B. agonizing beta-2 receptors. C. agonizing nicotinic receptors. D. antagonizing muscarinic receptors. |
D. antagonizing muscarinic receptors.
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The therapeutic index of a medication is defined as the:
Choose one answer. A. period of time in which the medication is excreted from the body. B. duration of therapeutic action for a given medication on the body. C. difference between the median effective dose and the median toxic dose. D. plasma level at which the medication begins to exert its effect. |
C. difference between the median effective dose and the median toxic dose.
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Stimulation of alpha-2 receptors:
Choose one answer. A. increases the release of norepinephrine. B. suppresses the release of norepinephrine. C. constricts the vascular smooth muscle. D. causes profound systemic hypertension. |
B. suppresses the release of norepinephrine.
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What class of medication is typically used to control the heart rate in patients with atrial fibrillation or atrial flutter?
Choose one answer. A. Sodium channel blocker B. Calcium channel blocker C. Beta-adrenergic blocker D. Potassium channel blocker |
B. Calcium channel blocker
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The peak of a medication's effect depends on _____________, whereas the duration of effect depends on ______________.
Choose one answer. A. absorption, metabolism B. distribution, absorption C. elimination, absorption D. metabolism, distribution |
A. absorption, metabolism
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Which of the following statements regarding pharmacology is correct?
Choose one answer. A. The selection and administration of most medications are based largely on anecdotal research. B. Evidence-based guidelines, while helpful, are not the primary factor that drives medication administration. C. Despite the advanced science of pharmacology, adverse reactions are commonplace. D. The action of the human body in response to a particular medication is called pharmacology. |
C. Despite the advanced science of pharmacology, adverse reactions are commonplace.
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For which of the following conditions may a patient be prescribed furosemide?
Choose one answer. A. Kidney dysfunction B. Reactive airway disease C. Low serum potassium D. Chronic dehydration |
A. Kidney dysfunction
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As a medication undergoes biotransformation, it becomes a(n):
Choose one answer. A. compound. B. metabolite. C. molecule. D. electrolyte. |
B. metabolite.
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Glucagon is used in the treatment of beta-blocker overdose because it:
Choose one answer. A. causes vasoconstriction and increases blood pressure. B. activates beta-1 receptors and increases the heart rate. C. produces positive inotropic and chronotropic effects. D. blocks alpha-2 receptors and increases blood pressure. |
C. produces positive inotropic and chronotropic effects.
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Which of the following medications can be administered via the intranasal route?
Choose one answer. A. Naloxone B. Morphine C. Atropine D. Diazepam |
A. Naloxone
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Stimulation of beta-2 receptors will cause:
Choose one answer. A. the airway diameter to dilate. B. a decreased release of norepinephrine. C. vasoconstriction and hypertension. D. bronchoconstriction. |
A. the airway diameter to dilate.
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Which of the following medications possesses positive inotropic effects, allows the cellular uptake of glucose, and is used in the treatment of hyperkalemia?
Choose one answer. A. Glucophage B. Osmitrol C. Clopidogrel D. Insulin |
D. Insulin
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Which of the following statements regarding plasma-protein binding is correct?
Choose one answer. A. As plasma protein levels decrease, the introduction of another protein-bound medication causes the concentration of the original medication to remain unchanged. B. If a patient has a safe level of a protein-bound medication, a second medication with a greater affinity greatly decreases the amount of the original medication. C. Plasma-protein binding is an irreversible process that decreases the amount of medication necessary for a desired clinical effect. D. Plasma-protein binding releases medication as circulating levels of a particular medication begin to fall, leading to a longer duration of action. |
D. Plasma-protein binding releases medication as circulating levels of a particular medication begin to fall, leading to a longer duration of action.
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Which of the following statements regarding adenosine is correct?
Choose one answer. A. Ventricular tachycardia is often terminated following the administration of adenosine. B. Adenosine has a half-life of between 20 and 30 seconds and should be given slowly. C. Adenosine is used to assess for P waves when slowing a supraventricular tachycardia. D. Adenosine increases conduction velocity and shortens the effective refractory period. |
C. Adenosine is used to assess for P waves when slowing a supraventricular tachycardia.
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The preferred IV fluid for Y-site tubing administration during a blood product transfusion is:
Choose one answer. A. normal saline. B. lactated Ringer's. C. 0.45% sodium chloride. D. 5% dextrose in water. |
A. normal saline.
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IO infusion rates are comparable to IV infusion rates:
Choose one answer. A. only if the IO needle is inserted in the proximal tibia. B. only when the extremity with the IO needle inserted is elevated. C. when a pressure bag or mechanical infusion device is used. D. if the patient's systolic blood pressure is at least 100 mm Hg. |
C. when a pressure bag or mechanical infusion device is used.
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Fentanyl (Sublimaze) is the preferred opioid analgesic for patients in critical or unstable condition because:
Choose one answer. A. it only requires one small dose to achieve analgesia. B. its effects last much longer than any other opioid. C. it hyperstimulates mu (μ) opioid receptor sites. D. it is not as prone to causing hypotension as morphine. |
D. it is not as prone to causing hypotension as morphine.
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Which of the following statements regarding the endotracheal route of medication administration is correct?
Choose one answer. A. If a medication must be given via the endotracheal route, five times the standard IV dose should be given. B. Evidence has shown that medications given via the endotracheal route quickly achieve a peak plasma level. C. The endotracheal route is no longer considered a reliable method of medication administration. D. Medications given via the endotracheal route should be flushed with 20 to 30 mL of sterile water. |
C. The endotracheal route is no longer considered a reliable method of medication administration.
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Compared to Schedule III drugs, Schedule IV drugs:
Choose one answer. A. have a moderate potential for physical dependence and include cough syrups that contain codeine. B. may lead to severe addiction and include short-acting barbiturates, amphetamines, and opiates. C. have a lower abuse potential and include medications such as diazepam (Valium) and lorazepam (Ativan). D. include medications such as Vicodin and have a high potential for psychological dependence. |
C. have a lower abuse potential and include medications such as diazepam (Valium) and lorazepam (Ativan).
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A medication undergoes first-pass metabolism in the:
Choose one answer. A. stomach. B. spleen. C. bone marrow. D. liver. |
D. liver.
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Which of the following statements regarding benzodiazepine medications is NOT correct?
Choose one answer. A. Benzodiazepines are commonly used in the prehospital setting to terminate seizures. B. A benzodiazepine may be used as the primary sedative for advanced airway care. C. High doses of a benzodiazepine may be needed to maintain a patient's blood pressure. D. Benzodiazepines have potent anxiolytic, antiseizure, and sedative properties. |
C. High doses of a benzodiazepine may be needed to maintain a patient's blood pressure.
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A/an _________ medication typically includes a “stem” that links it to other medications in the same class.
Choose one answer. A. trade B. brand C. generic D. official |
C. generic
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A medication is used “off-label.” This means that it:
Choose one answer. A. has been determined to be safe by a physician, and is used to treat a patient's illness before the medication has been approved by the FDA for any purpose. B. is administered in an extreme emergency situation, but only if initial clinical trials have determined that the medication will not cause harm to the patient. C. is used for a purpose not approved by the FDA, at doses different from the recommended doses, or by a route of administration not approved by the FDA. D. is administered in clinical trials while the manufacturer conducts further research and before the FDA has approved the medication for use. |
C. is used for a purpose not approved by the FDA, at doses different from the recommended doses, or by a route of administration not approved by the FDA.
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Compared to succinylcholine, rocuronium:
Choose one answer. A. has a rapid onset of action, a longer (up to 60 minutes) duration of action, and fewer adverse effects. B. does not bind with nicotinic receptor sites on muscle cells and does not antagonize acetylcholine. C. binds with nicotinic receptors on muscles and causes a brief activation known as fasciculation. D. has a rapid (30 to 60 seconds) onset of action and a relatively brief (3 to 8 minutes) duration of action. |
A. has a rapid onset of action, a longer (up to 60 minutes) duration of action, and fewer adverse effects.
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Which of the following medications is derived from a plant source?
Choose one answer. A. Insulin B. Digoxin C. Heparin D. Lithium |
B. Digoxin
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Patients taking ACE inhibitor medications commonly have:
Choose one answer. A. thin and fragile skin. B. a chronic, dry cough. C. a reduced platelet count. D. immunosuppression. |
B. a chronic, dry cough.
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What phases of the cardiac cellular action potential comprise the absolute refractory period?
Choose one answer. A. 1 and 2 only B. 0 through 3 C. 0 through 4 D. 2 and 3 only |
B. 0 through 3
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The paramedic should suspect altered medication metabolism in a patient with:
Choose one answer. A. chronic alcoholism. B. chronic renal failure. C. acute pancreatitis. D. hypertension. |
A. chronic alcoholism.
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Which of the following factors would be the LEAST likely to affect a patient's response to a medication?
Choose one answer. A. Past medical history B. Pregnancy C. Age and weight D. Body temperature |
A. Past medical history
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Common components of a medication profile include all of the following, EXCEPT:
Choose one answer. A. pregnancy risk factors. B. potential incompatibility. C. the weight of the drug. D. mechanism of action. |
C. the weight of the drug.
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Neuromuscular blocking agents achieve chemical paralysis by:
Choose one answer. A. agonizing muscarinic receptor sites and increasing acetylcholine production. B. inhibiting cerebellar activity, thereby decreasing voluntary muscle movement. C. blocking the action of the sodium-potassium pump, causing muscle paralysis. D. binding to nicotinic receptor sites on muscle cells and antagonizing acetylcholine. |
D. binding to nicotinic receptor sites on muscle cells and antagonizing acetylcholine.
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Compared to Schedule III drugs, Schedule IV drugs:
Choose one answer. A. include medications such as Vicodin and have a high potential for psychological dependence. B. may lead to severe addiction and include short-acting barbiturates, amphetamines, and opiates. C. have a lower abuse potential and include medications such as diazepam (Valium) and lorazepam (Ativan). D. have a moderate potential for physical dependence and include cough syrups that contain codeine. |
C. have a lower abuse potential and include medications such as diazepam (Valium) and lorazepam (Ativan).
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Which of the following conditions would make a patient the MOST susceptible to an adverse effect from a medication?
Choose one answer. A. Renal failure B. Chronic pain C. Minor trauma D. Hypertension |
A. Renal failure
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ACE inhibitor medications lower blood pressure by:
Choose one answer. A. blocking the release of angiotensin I from the renal system. B. selectively binding to alpha-1 and alpha-2 receptors. C. blocking the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II. D. increasing cardiac afterload and reducing cardiac output. |
C. blocking the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II.
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An undesirable clinical change caused by a medication that causes some degree of harm or discomfort to the patient is called a(n):
Choose one answer. A. side effect. B. idiosyncrasy. C. adverse effect. D. placebo effect. |
C. adverse effect.
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A patient receives several doses of the same drug within a short period of time, after which point the medication does not relieve his symptoms. Which of the following has MOST likely occurred?
Choose one answer. A. Cross-tolerance B. Dependence C. Tachyphylaxis D. Down-regulation |
C. Tachyphylaxis
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The ability of a medication to initiate or alter cell activity in a therapeutic or desired manner is referred to as:
Choose one answer. A. efficacy. B. affinity. C. the threshold level. D. potency. |
A. efficacy.
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Repolarization and myocardial contraction are occurring through phases:
Choose one answer. A. 0 and 1. B. 2 and 3. C. 3 and 4. D. 1 and 2. |
B. 2 and 3.
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Unlike Schedule I drugs, Schedule II drugs have:
Choose one answer. A. limited dependence potential. B. a higher abuse potential. C. no accepted medical application. D. accepted medical uses. |
D. accepted medical uses.
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Lidocaine is an antidysrhythmic that works by:
Choose one answer. A. blocking sodium channels in the Purkinje fibers and ventricle. B. antagonizing beta-adrenergic receptors in the myocardium. C. increasing the duration of phases 1, 2, and 3 of the cardiac cycle. D. displacing calcium at certain receptor sites in the myocardium. |
A. blocking sodium channels in the Purkinje fibers and ventricle.
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Dopamine is commonly used in the prehospital setting as the primary medication for:
Choose one answer. A. right-sided heart failure. B. nonhypovolemic hypotension. C. severe intracranial hemorrhage. D. vagal-induced bradycardia. |
B. nonhypovolemic hypotension.
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At 15 μg/kg/min, dopamine:
Choose one answer. A. antagonizes alpha-1 receptors. B. activates beta-2 receptor sites. C. reduces cardiac contractility. D. causes vigorous vasoconstriction. |
D. causes vigorous vasoconstriction.
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Calcium chloride or calcium gluconate may mitigate hypotension or bradycardia following an overdose of:
Choose one answer. A. metoprolol. B. Cordarone. C. diltiazem. D. adenosine. |
C. diltiazem.
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Which of the following statements regarding adenosine is correct?
Choose one answer. A. Ventricular tachycardia is often terminated following the administration of adenosine. B. Adenosine is used to assess for P waves when slowing a supraventricular tachycardia. C. Adenosine has a half-life of between 20 and 30 seconds and should be given slowly. D. Adenosine increases conduction velocity and shortens the effective refractory period. |
B. Adenosine is used to assess for P waves when slowing a supraventricular tachycardia.
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Medications that are manufactured synthetically:
Choose one answer. A. include insulin, digitalis, and thyroid medications. B. are derived from certain plants and animal organs. C. do not use animal, mineral, or vegetable sources. D. include calcium, iron, magnesium, and other minerals. |
C. do not use animal, mineral, or vegetable sources.
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What phases of the cardiac cellular action potential comprise the absolute refractory period?
Choose one answer. A. 2 and 3 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 0 through 4 D. 0 through 3 |
D. 0 through 3
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Cross-tolerance to a medication occurs when:
Choose one answer. A. the body's metabolism increases, resulting in a decreased concentration of the medication present near receptor sites. B. repeated doses of a medication within a short time rapidly cause tolerance, which renders the medication ineffective. C. repeated exposure to a medication causes an abnormal tolerance to the adverse or therapeutic effects of the medication. D. repeated exposure to a medication within a particular class causes tolerance to other medications in the same class. |
D. repeated exposure to a medication within a particular class causes tolerance to other medications in the same class.
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Patients with _________________ are at significant risk for toxic effects of medications or metabolic waste products in the body.
Choose one answer. A. stomach cancer B. renal failure C. diabetes mellitus D. heart failure |
B. renal failure
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A patient experiences profound sedation when an opioid, such as fentanyl, is given together with a benzodiazepine, such as midazolam. This is an example of:
Choose one answer. A. synergism. B. potentiation. |
A. synergism.
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An abnormal susceptibility to a medication that is peculiar to an individual patient is called an:
Choose one answer. A. exaggerated therapeutic effect. B. idiosyncratic reaction. C. untoward effect. D. adverse reaction. |
B. idiosyncratic reaction.
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