Ch. 46-51 Study Guide

Front 1

The use of the lights and siren on an ambulance:

Back 1

Usually only a request for the right of way.

Front 2

What entity is responsible for making recommendations regarding infection control practices that include all areas of personal protective equipment, sharps containers, and disinfecting equipment that is carried on an ambulance?

Back 2

OSHA

Front 3

Unless the fluid level is low, you should NOT uncap the brake fluid reservoir because:

Back 3

Absorbs moisture from the atmosphere. (Loses Pressure)

Front 4

High-performance EMS systems typically use a fractile response time standard, in which:

Back 4

All responses must be achieved in an established time. 8 min or less in urban areas.

Front 5

When determining productivity of an EMS system, the EMS provider:

Back 5

Measures how many patient transports per hour each ambulance accomplishes.

Front 6

In a tiered-response EMS system:

Back 6

Staff ambulances with EMT-B’s, That attempts to assign ALS ambulances only where they are needed.

Front 7

With respect to emergency driving, due regard means that:

Back 7

You may use lights and sirens as a means to alert other drivers that you are in emergency mode, but it does not exempt you from operating your vehicle with due regard for the safety of others.

Front 8

Which of the following statements regarding the use of emergency escorts is MOST correct?

Back 8

Not a good idea. Many drivers will see only the first set of lights and sirens and assume that the way is clear once that vehicle has passed.

Front 9

The decision to use lights and siren when transporting a patient to the hospital is MOST dependent upon:

Back 9

Judgment on part of the paramedic.

Front 10

When parking the ambulance off the side of the highway in dry weather:

Back 10

The heat from underneath the vehicle could start a grass fire.

Front 11

When transporting a small child on the stretcher, you should:

Back 11

Make sure the patient is properly restrained.

Front 12

The MOST important factor to consider when determining if transport of a trauma patient via helicopter is appropriate is:

Back 12

Does the patients condition warrant the risk of using air medical transport.

Front 13

In contrast to rotary-wing air ambulances, fixed-wing air ambulances:

Back 13

Are used for long transports.

Front 14

In which of the following situations should a helicopter generally NOT be utilized?

Back 14

Metropolitan areas

Front 15

Which of the following disadvantages of using an air ambulance should concern you the LEAST when utilizing it for a critically injured patient?

Back 15

Cost

Front 16

After a helicopter lands and continues to keep its rotor blades active, you should:

Back 16

Approach a helicopter from the front and keep the pilot in view at all times. Wait for the pilot to wave you in.


Front 17

Over which of the following does a disaster management team have little or no control?

Back 17

MCI’s

Front 18

A mass casualty incident (MCI) is MOST accurately defined as an event in which:

Back 18

Is an event in which the number of patients exceeds the resources available to the initial responders.

Front 19

Which of the following events would MOST likely cause an open, or uncontained, mass casualty incident?

Back 19

School shootings, tornadoes, hazardous materials, rising flood waters

Front 20

Using the incident command system (ICS) provides a modular organizational structure that:

Back 20

Is built on the size and complexity of the incident.

Front 21

An individual’s span of control:

Back 21

Keeping the supervisor/worker ratio at one supervisor for three to seven workers.

Front 22

Which of the following duties is NOT a responsibility of the incident commander?

Back 22

Assess the incident, establish the strategic objectives and priorities, and develop a plan to manage the incident.

Front 23

During a small-scale incident, the incident commander:

Back 23

Will do it all.

Front 24

Which of the following statements regarding the unified command system is MOST correct?

Back 24

Plans are drawn up in advance by all the cooperating agencies that assume a shared responsibility for decision making and cooperation.

Front 25

A single command system:

Back 25

Is one in which one person is in charge, even if multiple agencies respond.

Front 26

Prior to implementing any plans or operations at the scene of a mass casualty incident, you should FIRST:

Back 26

Make sure supervisor or the IC knows of any plans or operations before they are initiated.

Front 27

The transfer of incident command should occur:

Back 27

Must take place in an orderly manner and face to face if possible.

Front 28

If responders at a major incident require additional medical equipment and supplies, they should notify the:

Back 28

Logistics

Front 29

Occlusive dressings and large-bore IV catheters for thoracic decompression are supplies used to address

Back 29

Breathing issues at a mass casualty incident.

Front 30

If an incident is such that it warrants evacuation of people, the incident commander would MOST likely

Back 30

request that the PIO/JIC disseminate that information as well as evacuation directions.

Front 31

The National Incident Management System (NIMS) is designed to:

Back 31

Work with all jurisdictions.

Front 32

The NIMS standard incident command structures are based on:

Back 32

Provides a consistent nationwide template to enable federal, state, and local government, as well as private sector and nongovernmental organizations, to work together effectively and efficiently.

Front 33

Two MOST important underlying principles of NIMS are:

Back 33

Flexibility and standardization.

Front 34

When sizing up the scene of a mass casualty incident, the LEAST of your initial concerns should be:

Back 34

What do I have? What do I need to do? What resources do I need?

Front 35

After ensuring your own safety, you should consider the safety of, in order:

Back 35

Your safety, Your Partner, Other rescuer’s, Patient and bystanders.

Front 36

Initial command of an incident should be assumed by the:

Back 36

The first unit on scene.

Front 37

The primary duty of the triage officer is to:

Back 37

Count and prioritize patients.

Front 38

As soon as the treatment officer receives patients from the triage section, he or she should:

Back 38

Ensure secondary triage of patients is preformed and that adequate patient care is given as resources allow.

Front 39

Communicating with area hospitals to determine their capabilities and resources is a responsibility of the:

Back 39

Transportation Officer.

Front 40

If an emergency physician is present at the scene of a mass casualty incident, he or she would be the LEAST likely to:

Back 40

On-scene medical direction for paramedics, and they can provide care in the treatment sector as appropriate.

Front 41

Which of the following statements regarding the rehabilitation section is MOST correct?

Back 41

Should be located away from exhaust fumes and crowds (especially members of the media) and out of view of the scene itself.

Front 42

If a disaster situation requires a morgue officer, it is MOST important for the person who is assigned the function of morgue officer to:

Back 42

Should ensure that the morgue is out of view of the living patients and other responders.

Front 43

The goal of doing the greatest good for the greatest number of people mandates that:

Back 43

Triage assessment is brief and the patient condition categories are basic.

Front 44

In contrast to primary triage, secondary triage:

Back 44

Is done as patients are brought to the treatment area.

Front 45

Which of the following statements regarding triage during a mass casualty incident is MOST correct?

Back 45

Rapid and accurate triage will help bring order to the chaos of the MCI scene.

Front 46

Triage tags that have tear-off receipts are MOST useful to the:

Back 46

Transportation officer and it will assist him or her in tracking a patient.

Front 47

The FIRST step in the Simple Triage and Rapid Treatment (START) triage system involves:

Back 47

Calling the walking wounded out and directing them to a site.

Front 48

According to the START triage system, a nonbreathing patient should be triaged as immediate if:

Back 48

You open the airway by using airway by using a simple manual maneuver.

Front 49

According to the JumpSTART triage system for pediatric patients, infants or children not developed enough to walk or follow commands should be:

Back 49

Should be taken as soon as possible to the treatment sector for immediate secondary triage

Front 50

Patients who are hysterical and disruptive to rescue efforts:

Back 50

May need to be made an immediate priority and tansported out of the disaster site, even if they are not seriously injured.

In order to draw attention to their cause, Technology Terrorists

Front 51

All of the following are examples of domestic terrorism, EXCEPT the:

Back 51

Centennial Park Bombing, 1996 Summer Olympics, Oklahoma City Bombing.

Front 52

To date, the preferred weapons of mass destruction for terrorists have been:

Back 52

Explosive Devices

Front 53

The terrorism carried out by groups that have close ties with a national government is referred to as:

Back 53

State-sponsored terrorism

Front 54

Which of the following statements regarding chemical agents is MOST correct?

Back 54

Are manmade substances that can have devastating effects on living organisms.

Front 55

A suicide bomber typically uses a/an

Back 55

Explosives to achieve his or her objective.

Front 56

When the Homeland Security Advisory System alerts responders to the potential for a terrorist attack:

Back 56

The specifics of the current threat will not be given.

Front 57

If the Homeland Advisory Security System current threat level is yellow, you should recall that:

Back 57

Significant risk of terrorist attacks.

Front 58

Upon arriving at a scene involving a weapon of mass destruction, you should:

Back 58

Ensure that the scene is safe and stage upwind and uphill from the incident.

Front 59

Upon arriving at a scene in which the incident command system has already been established, you should:

Back 59

Immediately seek out the medical staging officer to receive your assignment.

Front 60

When triaging patients at the scene of an explosion, you should be especially aware of the fact that:

Back 60

There could be a secondary Device.

Front 61

In contrast to volatile chemical agents, nonvolatile chemical agents:

Back 61

Evaporate relatively fast when left on a surface in the optimal temperature range.

Front 62

Vesicant agents inflict injury by causing:

Back 62

Burn-like blisters to form on the Pt’s skin as well as in the respiratory tract.

Front 63

Gray discoloration of the skin is a sign of permanent damage seen following exposure to:

Back 63

(L) Lewisite, and phosgene oxime (CX).

Front 64

In contrast to mustard, Lewisite and phosgene oxime exposure:

Back 64

Rapid Onset

Front 65

Which of the following statements regarding vesicant agent treatment is MOST correct?

Back 65

There are no antidotes for mustard or CX exposure.

Front 66

Initial exposure to

Back 66

Chlorine (CL) produces upper airway irritation and a choking sensation.

Front 67

Which of the following statements regarding phosgene is MOST correct?

Back 67

The odor produced by the chemical is similar to that of freshly mown grass or hay.

Front 68

When sarin is on clothing, it has the effect of off-gassing, which means that:

Back 68

The vapors are continuously released over a period of time (like perfume)

Front 69

In contrast to sarin, soman:

Back 69

Is twice as persistent as sarin, and 5 X more lethal.

Front 70

Which of the following statements regarding tabun is MOST correct?

Back 70

Half as lethal as sarin and 36 X more persistent, under the proper conditions it will remain for several days.

Front 71

Unlike G-series agents, VX is:

Back 71

Over 100X more lethal than sarin and extremely persistent. 


Front 72

The seizures associated with nerve agent exposure:

Back 72

The Patient will continue to seize until death or until treatment is given with a nerve agent antidote. (MARK1 or MARK2)

Front 73

Nerve agent antidote kits (NAAK) contain:

Back 73

Atropine and 2-PAM Chloride.

Front 74

Signs and symptoms of significant cyanide exposure include:

Back 74

SOB, Tachypnea, Flushed skin color, Tachycardia, ALOC, Seizures, Coma, Apnea, Cardiac Arrest.

Front 75

Which of the following chemical agents has the smell of freshly cut grass?

Back 75

Phosgene (CG)

Front 76

Understanding a biological agent’s incubation period is especially important for the paramedic to understand because:

Back 76

Although your patient may not exhibit signs or symtoms, he or she may be contagious.

Front 77

Which of the following statements regarding smallpox is NOT correct?

Back 77

Highly Contagious

Front 78

If an outbreak of smallpox were to occur, vaccinations would be offered to:

Back 78

First responders and people at risk

Front 79

A terrorist would MOST likely disseminate smallpox via:

Back 79

Aerosolized.

Front 80

Signs and symptoms of smallpox generally appear within

Back 80

10-12 days following exposure.

Front 81

Viral hemorrhagic fevers include all of the following, EXCEPT:

Back 81

Ebola, Rift Valley, and Yellow fever viruses.

Front 82

Infection with the Ebola virus is characterized by:

Back 82

Sudden onset of fever.

Front 83

Anthrax is a bacterium that:

Back 83

Lays dormant in a spore, When exposed to the optimal temp and moisture, the germ will be released from the spore.

Front 84

Although Inhalational or pulmonary anthrax is the most deadly,

Back 84

Cutaneous anthrax is the only form that is communicable.

Front 85

Which of the following statements regarding ricin is MOST correct?

Back 85

Ricin is least toxic by oral route.

Front 86

Whether ingested or inhaled, ricin poisoning causes:

Back 86

Local hemorrhage and cecrosis of the liver, spleen, kidney, and GI tract.

Front 87

Which of the following biological agents is highly transmittable from person to person?

Back 87

Pneumonic Plague & Smallpox.

Front 88

When conducting syndromic surveillance, patients with who

Back 88

present with signs and symptoms of Influenza are especially significant.

Front 89

The Strategic National Stockpile’s points of distribution are:

Back 89

Strategically placed facilities that have been pre-established.

Front 90

In contrast to alpha radiation, beta radiation:

Back 90

Is slightly more penetrating than alpha and requires a layer of clothing to stop it.

Front 91

Neutron Energy is/are the

Back 91

fastest and most powerful form of radiation, and can easily penetrate through lead.

Front 92

Which of the following statements regarding a radiological dispersal device (RDD) is MOST correct?

Back 92

Is any container that is designed to disperse radioactive material.

Front 93

The destructive capability of a dirty bomb is:

Back 93

Limited to the explosives that are attached to it.

Front 94

The likelihood of a nuclear attack on the United States is:

Back 94

Extremely remote.

Front 95

Radiation exposure that occurs through the body is MOST appropriately termed:

Back 95

Irradiation.

Front 96

Common signs of acute radiation illness include all of the following, EXCEPT:

Back 96

Nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea.

Front 97

The BEST way to protect yourself from the effects of radiation is to:

Back 97

The best way to protect yourself from the effects of radiation are to use time and distance, and shield yourself in Level C protection from the source.

Front 98

Which of the following situations does NOT depict a technical rescue?

Back 98

Vehicles, water, trench collapse, confined spaces, or wilderness, search and rescue that requires specially trained personnel and special equipment.

Front 99

Recognizing hazards, securing the scene, and calling for appropriate assistance are characteristic of the

Back 99

Awareness level of technical rescue.

Front 100

Access to a patient and the initiation of treatment can begin only after the:

Back 100

Once the scene is safe and technical aspects of the Pt rescue or extrication are understood.

Front 101

When providing treatment to a patient while he or she is being rescued, it is MOST important to:

Back 101

Remember that there may be hidden hazards.

Front 102

If you believe that your assigned task at a rescue incident may be unsafe, it would be MOST appropriate for you to:

Back 102

Bring it to the attention of the IC or safety officer.

Front 103

Which of the following is NOT a reason for an unnecessarily difficult or failed rescue attempt?

Back 103

FAILURE

Front 104

The MOST effective way of preparing your department to respond to a technical rescue incident is to:

Back 104

Train

Front 105

Immediately upon arriving at the scene involving a technical rescue situation:

Back 105

The IC will assume command. A rapid scene size-up is needed to avoid placing rescuers in danger.

Front 106

The size of the rescue area is MOSTLY dependent upon the:

Back 106

Size of the rescue area is proportional to the hazards that exist.

Front 107

Which of the following statements regarding the hot zone at a rescue scene is MOST correct?

Back 107

For entry teams and rescue teams only.

Front 108

After the warm zone has been established:

Back 108

This is where the personnel and equipment decontamination and hot zone support take place

Front 109

Once the patient has been disentangled, your primary focus should be to:

Back 109

Removing the patient.

Front 110

The only time a patient should be moved prior to completion of initial care, assessment, stabilization, and treatment is when:

Back 110

The Pt’s or emergency responder’s life is in immediate danger.

Front 111

Which of the following statements regarding patient transport is MOST correct?

Back 111

Depending on the severity of the Pt’s injuries and the distance to the medical facility, the type of transport will vary.

Front 112

The scope and magnitude of a rescue incident:

Back 112

Should be done at scene size-up.

Front 113

Which of the following statements regarding utility hazards at the scene of a rescue operation is MOST correct?

Back 113

Utility hazards can be above or below ground. And the rescue situation will dictate which ones need to be addressed first.

Front 114

Which of the following items of personal protective equipment is NOT always required when performing a water rescue?

Back 114

Contamination protection.

Front 115

A handheld global positioning system is MOST useful in

Back 115

Wilderness rescue incidents.

Front 116

Immediate implementation of an incident management system is critical because:

Back 116

It will be difficult –if not impossible –to ensure the rescuers safety.

Front 117

Which of the following statements regarding vehicle airbags is MOST correct?

Back 117

They can deploy at any time after an accident and must be deactivated even if the power supply to the vehicle has been disconnected.

Front 118

In a four-door vehicle, the B posts are located:

Back 118

Between the front and rear doors.

Front 119

In contrast to a platform vehicle frame, a unibody frame:

Back 119

Which is used in most modern cars, combines the vehicle body and the frame into a single component.

Front 120

After a vehicle has been properly stabilized, the simplest way to gain access to a crash victim is to:

Back 120

Open the door.

Front 121

When heavy extrication tools are required to force a damaged door open, you should:

Back 121

Choose a door that will not endanger the safety of the Pt.

Front 122

After gaining access to a patient with extrication procedures, the next step involves:

Back 122

Provide emergency medical care.

Front 123

A patient would MOST likely become trapped between the driver’s seat and steering wheel following a:

Back 123

Frontal & Rear-end collisions.

Front 124

Prior to displacing a dash, you should anticipate that rescue personnel will FIRST:

Back 124

Open both front doors.

Front 125

When displacing a vehicle’s roof, you must FIRST:

Back 125

First remove the glass to prevent it from falling on the Pt.

Front 126

Which of the following gases is commonly found in swamps and sewers, is colorless, toxic, and flammable, and is released when bacteria break down organic matter in the absence of oxygen?

Back 126

Hydrogen Sulfide

Front 127

Carbon monoxide

Back 127

binds to red blood cells and prevents them from transporting oxygen to all parts of the body.

Front 128

Ammonia

Back 128

is characterized by a pungent odor, and, because it is lighter than air, rises to the upper atmospheric level in confined spaces.

Front 129

On any call involving a confined space rescue, you should:

Back 129

Look for a bystander who might have witnessed the emergency.

Front 130

Trench rescues are MOST often required when:

Back 130

Earth is removed for placement of a utility line or for other construction and the sides of the excavation collapse.

Front 131

Which of the following factors would be the LEAST likely to cause a secondary collapse during a trench rescue incident?

Back 131

Vibration or additional weight or water eroding away the soil.

Front 132

The FIRST step in assuming the self-rescue position if suddenly immersed in fast-moving water involves:

Back 132

Is to roll into a face-up arched position with the lower back higher than the feet to avoid subsurface objects.

Front 133

If you are caught in cold water and there are no personnel available to rescue you, you should:

Back 133

Make every effort to keep your face above water, protect your head, and assume the heat-escape-lessening position (HELP)

Front 134

The MOST common swift water rescue scenario involves:

Back 134

People who have attempted to drive vehicles through a pool of water created by a flooded stream.

Front 135

Your initial attempt to rescue a person from the water should involve:

Back 135

Your safety and the safety of other rescuers.

Front 136

As soon as you reach an unresponsive victim who is floating in the water, you should:

Back 136

Turn the Pt supine.

Front 137

In contrast to low-angle rope rescues, high-angle rescues:

Back 137

Are situations where the slope of the ground is greater than 45°, and rescuers or Pts are dependent on a life safety rope and not a fixed surface or support such as the ground.

Front 138

Descending on a fixed rope from a severe angle is called:

Back 138

Rappel

Front 139

Pain in a patient who is being rescued should initially be treated with all of the following, EXCEPT:

Back 139

Pharmacologic methods

Front 140

An EMS/HM Level I responder is trained to:

Back 140

Preform defensive actions against the hazardous material, Preform Pt care activities in the cold zone at an incident for patients who no longer present a significant risk of secondary contamination.

Front 141

At the scene of a hazardous materials (Haz-Mat) incident, the paramedic would MOST likely be called upon to:

Back 141

Support hazardous materials teams through medical monitoring.

Front 142

When you first arrive at the scene and recognize a hazardous materials incident, your FIRST priority is to:

Back 142

Identify the hazardous material.


Front 143

Upon arriving at the scene of an overturned tanker truck or train derailment, you should be MOST suspicious that a hazardous material is involved if:

Back 143

Visible cloud or strange-looking smoke, Leak, Strong odor

Front 144

If you are the first unit to arrive at a scene and observe any signs suggesting that a hazardous materials incident has occurred, you should:

Back 144

Stop at a safe distance, upwind from the scene.

Front 145

You should be particularly suspicious that a hazardous materials incident is the result of a terrorist attack when it occurs at a/an:

Back 145

Large offices, government buildings, shopping malls.

Front 146

When assessing a potential hazardous materials incident from a distance:

Back 146

Rule of thumb.

Front 147

Knowledge of the specific hazardous material involved in an incident is MOST important because:

Back 147

It is tremendous value to the responding haz-mat team.

Front 148

Which of the following statements regarding level 4 hazardous materials is MOST correct?

Back 148

Includes materials that are so hazardous that minimal contact will cause death.

Front 149

Which of the following statements regarding the warm zone at a hazardous materials incident is MOST correct?

Back 149

The warm zone surrounds the hot zone.

Front 150

Level A personal protective equipment:

Back 150

Provides the greatest protection from exposure.

Front 151

The direct exposure of a patient to a hazardous material is called:

Back 151

Primary contamination.

Front 152

Secondary contamination with a hazardous material occurs when:

Back 152

A hazardous material is transferred to a person from another person or from contaminated objects.

Front 154

Dermal exposure to a hazardous material:

Back 154

Is by touch.

Front 155

According to the dose effect principle:

Back 155

The greater the length of time or the greater the concentration of the material, the greater the effect probably will be on the human body.

Front 156

Parenteral exposure would occur if a patient

Back 156

involved in a motor vehicle crash has an open wound that has gasoline dripping into it.

Front 157

If a patient has ingested a hazardous material, your patient communication skills will be especially important because:

Back 157

Often the ingestion is deliberate.

Front 158

It is MOST important to park your ambulance upwind and uphill from a hazardous materials incident scene because:

Back 158

Vapor rises and dissipates as it travels with the wind.

Front 159

Decontaminating a patient with copious amounts of water:

Back 159

This decreases the does effect of the hazardous material on the Pt.

Front 160

Neutralization of a hazardous material is almost never used as a means of decontamination because:

Back 160

Of the dangers of uncontrolled exothermic reactions.

Front 161

In contrast to corrosive chemicals with a high pH, chemicals with a low pH:

Back 161

Will take less time to be flushed.

Front 162

Cyanide is a chemical asphyxiant, which means that it:

Back 162

Interferes with the utilization of oxygen at the cellular level.


Front 163

Prior to accepting a patient who has been decontaminated by the hazardous materials team, the paramedic must:

Back 163

Assume that the pt is not completely decontaminated.

Front 164

Violence against EMS personnel is not uncommon in rural areas, especially because:

Back 164

Being confused with PD

Front 165

If a violent person directs his or her aggression at you:

Back 165

You must quickly identify potentially dangerous situations and act to remove yourself, your team, and possibly the Pt

Front 166

All of the following are indicators of the potential for violence, EXCEPT:

Back 166

Shooting, stabbing, or attempted suicide.

Front 167

Your EMS system’s standard procedure for responding to any call involving violence should be to:

Back 167

Allow law enforcement personnel to arrive and secure the scene before your entry.

Front 168

If you unexpectedly find yourself in the middle of a domestic dispute, the situation would MOST likely deteriorate if you:

Back 168

Use good communication skills in conjunction with eye contact and appropriate body language can defuse the situation.

Front 169

Which of the following statements regarding clandestine drugs labs is MOST correct?

Back 169

The most popular substance manufactured in clandestine labs is methamphetamine.

Front 170

It is MOST important to consider a clandestine drug lab to be a/an:

Back 170

Everything associated with a clandestine lab is hazardous.

Front 171

Which of the following objects or locations would NOT provide adequate cover from gunfire?

Back 171

Trees, utility poles, mail collection boxes, dumbsters, curbs, vehicles, and depressions in the ground.

Front 172

If you are taken hostage, it is MOST important to:

Back 172

Remember that they last 4.5 to 5 hours, You can increase your chances of survival if you can anticipate the feelings and actions of the hostage taker and the negotiators.

Front 173

If you are under fire from a sniper who is on the roof a building, and you are using a vehicle as cover, the MOST effective way of protecting yourself is to:

Back 173

Use the engine block and wheel area as cover.

Front 174

Which of the following statements regarding cover and concealment is MOST correct?

Back 174

At night move into the darkness or shadows.

Front 175

If someone continues to intentionally block you from reaching a critically injured patient despite your initial request that he or she move, you should:

Back 175

Identify yourself and say “Move back! That person may die if you don’t let me help.

Front 176

Which of the following MOST accurately describes the interview stance?

Back 176

Arms length, with your body at a 45° angle to the person. Feet shoulder width apart, knees bent and hand relaxed

Front 177

If you believe that your life is in jeopardy:

Back 177

Any action that gets you out of the situation is reasonable level of force.

Front 178

How can you BEST assist law enforcement at the scene of a crime involving a gunshot wound or stabbing?

Back 178

Follow law enforcement direction when you are asked to park in a specific area or to avoid a certain location.

Front 179

One of the MOST difficult aspects of being a triage officer is:

Back 179

That you must not begin to treatment until all patients are triaged, or you will compromise your triage efforts.