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145 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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Besides just saving energy, what is an additional benefit of “economizers” on HVAC units? A. You gain optimum chiller capacity B. Less refrigeration loss C. Not as much “white” noise, thus, benefiting workers D. Less wear on all moving parts |
D. Less wear on all moving parts |
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In conference rooms, auditoriums, and other areas of assembly, the most significant heat gain is from: A. Lighting B. Ventilation C. Equipment D. People |
D. People |
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To compensate for thermal load variance due to sun, wind, and outside temperature, the HVAC system uses: A. Multiple systems B. Integrated controls C. Total capacity D. Multiple zones |
D. Multiple zones |
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The type of control that uses a varying signal in the control of heating, cooling and humidity is: A. Two-position action B. Timed two-position action C. Floating action D. Proportional action |
D. Proportional action |
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In a closed loop HVAC system, the feedback process begins with the: A. Controller B. Sensor C. Actuator D. Controlled device |
B. Sensor |
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The advent of the micro-electric controls has produced a concept known as: A. Building management system B. Energy management system C. ICS (Integrated Comfort Systems) D. Waste heat recovery system |
C. ICS (Integrated Comfort Systems) |
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The heating system that uses a refrigeration cycle is the: A. Heat pipe B. Total energy system C. Heat pump D. Absorption system |
C. Heat pump |
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The direct-expansion refrigerant HVAC system commonly used in newer one to two-story office buildings is: A. Through the wall unit B. Water-cooled unit C. Rooftop unit D. Fan-coil unit |
C. Rooftop unit |
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The principal way to improve a building’s indoor air quality is to: A. Establish a no-smoking policy throughout the building B. Educate occupants about the materials used in the building C. Reduce the amount of outside air drawn into the building D. Maintain acceptable temperature and relative humidity |
D. Maintain acceptable temperature and relative humidity |
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The all-air system that requires minimum apparatus size and the least complicated duct system is the: A. Single-duct VAT B. Single-duct VAV C. Multi-zone VAT D. Dual-duct VAT |
B. Single-duct VAV |
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The variable air volume (VAV) system depends on: A. Sensors for static pressure in the ducts B. Water moved through pumps at a high rate C. Ducts of uniform size D. Condenser water temperature of 75 degrees to 80 degrees |
A. Sensors for static pressure in the ducts |
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HVAC systems are designed with a capacity based on: A. System performance with low life-cycle costs B. Median conditions under which they are expected to operate C. Physical characteristics of the building D. Estimated maximum heating and cooling loads |
D. Estimated maximum heating and cooling loads |
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Ceiling return air plenums control the spread of fire from space to space by: A. Spray-on insulation B. Fire dampers C. Asbestos coatings D. Ventilation |
B. Fire dampers |
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The ratio of the maximum demand on an electrical system to the total connected load of a system is known as the: A. Energy factor B. Load factor C. Power factor D. Demand factor |
D. Demand factor |
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As a part of a feasibility study, which evaluation approach analyzes all current and future financial implications of a capital project? A. Systems approach B. Life-cycle costing C. Pay-back evaluation D. Cost-benefit analysis |
B. Life-cycle costing |
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The largest internal heat load in a typical office building is from: A. People B. Office equipment C. Ventilation D. Lighting |
D. Lighting |
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To save labor costs, group re-lamping should be done: A. At planned intervals B. On a annual basis C. At 90% rated life D. During working hours |
A. At planned intervals |
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In a space where workstations are at least 12 feet apart and not often relocated, the best choice for lighting is: A. Accent lighting B. Ambient lighting C. Uniform lighting D. Non-uniform lighting |
D. Non-uniform lighting |
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The type of lighting that illuminates the general areas surrounding work positions is: A. Task lighting B. Ambient lighting C. Uniform lighting D. Non-uniform lighting |
B. Ambient lighting |
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The most practical choice for general illuminations of interior working areas in an office is: A. Fluorescent lighting B. Incandescent lighting C. High-Intensity discharge lamps D. Combination of incandescent and HID lighting |
A. Fluorescent lighting |
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If the main power fails in a building, the emergency power system for the elevators causes each elevator cab to: A. Close and lock its door B. Remain open on its present floor C. Go to the lowest designated floor D. Maintain power to go up or down |
C. Go to the lowest designated floor |
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Elevators in buildings that have more than seven stops and require faster operation are generally: A. Traction B. Holed hydraulic C. Dual service D. Hole-less hydraulic |
A. Traction |
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The heart of the elevator system and location of most routine maintenance is the: A. Hoist-way B. Cab C. Pit D. Machine room |
D. Machine room |
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After establishing the space requirements and performance expectations of the owner, the process of developing a building model is: A. Statement of need B. Systems approach C. Space utilization D. Programming |
D. Programming |
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Compared to proprietary security, contract security typically produces: A. Better trained personnel B. A more favorable company image C. Fewer management-personnel problems D. Less expensive |
D. Less expensive |
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The level of maintenance that intends to preserve the performance expected from the equipment or system is: A. Troubleshooting B. Breakdown maintenance C. Service maintenance D. Preventive maintenance |
D. Preventive maintenance |
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Efforts to keep equipment in good operating condition is called: A. Maintenance B. Troubleshooting C. Monitoring D. Inspection |
A. Maintenance |
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The level of maintenance that meets basic manufacturer’s recommendations and requires a minimum level of skill is: A. Troubleshooting B. Breakdown maintenance C. Service maintenance D. Preventive maintenance |
C. Service maintenance |
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What is the major goal of a preventive maintenance program? A. Extend the life of the facility’s fixed assets B. Reduce the overall cost of the maintenance program C. Provide assurance equipment is available when needed D. Reduce the number of times equipment is down unexpectedly |
D. Reduce the number of times equipment is down unexpectedly |
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You have just bid a landscape maintenance contract. The low bidder is unable to provide I-9 (right-to-work) forms for its foreign-born laborers. What should you do? A. Disqualify the bidder B. Hire the low bidder if he can provide forms within 90 days C. Refer the problem to the legal department D. Agree to hire the low bidder if he does not use employees without forms |
A. Disqualify the bidder |
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The type or lease in which the lessee pays all operating expenses is: A. Gross lease B. Net lease C. Contract lease D. Percentage lease |
B. Net lease |
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Your company requires new leased office space of 10,000 square feet in the next six months. You determine that using a commercial real estate broker would expedite the site selection. When receiving candidates, what is the most important factor? A. That the broker be employed by the largest commercial real estate firm in the city where your lease requirement is located B. That the broker also be the listing agent and represent a large number of landlords buildings in the local real estate market C. That the broker always have a long list of references from Fortune 500 companies which he or she has represented in the past D. That the broker work with you in a consistent partnership while providing experienced market knowledge and a good understanding of how commercial office leases function for both landlords and tenants |
D. That the broker work with you in a consistent partnership while providing experienced market knowledge and a good understanding of how commercial office leases function for both landlords and tenants |
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What is the greatest potential pitfall in acquiring property today? A. Inadvertently accepting environmental contamination liability B. Not obtaining the clear title to the property C. Stringent zoning restrictions D. Tax liability |
A. Inadvertently accepting environmental contamination liability |
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Every real estate project begins with a: A. Needs analysis B. Contract C. Feasibility study D. Celebration |
B. Contract |
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Which of the following space planning techniques will assist in bringing space/cost ratios into line: A. Increasing the number of corridors B. Maximizing the use of fixed walls C. Using inconsistent work station space modules D. Consolidating conference rooms and other support areas |
D. Consolidating conference rooms and other support areas |
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What is the written instrument, evidenced by a note or bond, which the borrower gives as security for the repayment of the loan: A. Mortgage B. Contract C. Purchase agreement D. Down payment |
A. Mortgage |
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The lease that tends to be long-term (20 years or more) is the: A. Ground lease B. Net lease C. Gross lease D. Percentage lease |
A. Ground lease |
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To be legally enforceable, a contract to purchase real estate must: A. Be in writing B. Involve unrelated parties C. Detail any financing D. Include insurance requirements |
A. Be in writing |
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Which of the following is not usually an allowable operating expense under a lease? A. Employee vacation/holiday pay B. Tenant improvement costs C. Property Insurance D. Utilities |
B. Tenant improvement costs
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What kind of lease includes the base rent, plus the tenant pays a share of the real estate taxes? A. Net lease B. Double-net lease C. Triple-net lease D. Cost lease |
A. Net lease |
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What kind of lease includes the base rent, plus tenant pays a share of the real estate taxes, insurance, maintenance, repairs, and operating expenses: A. Gross lease B. Double-net lease C. Triple-net lease D. Cost lease |
C. Triple-net lease |
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What do you call that portion of the building that is a public corridor or lobby, or is required for access by all occupants on a floor to stairs, elevators, toilet rooms, and building entrances: A. Common area B. Primary circulation C. Public area D. Secondary circulation |
B. Primary circulation |
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In a multi-floor, multi-tenant office building, a private stairwell built between two floors occupied by one tenant is: A. Part of the building’s common area B. Part of the tenant’s rentable areas C. Part of the tenant’s usable areas D. Both B and C |
D. Both B and C |
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What is the term used to describe the area of a building that measures to the outside face of exterior walls and disregards the cornices, pilasters and buttresses that extend beyond the wall face? A. Gross area B. Rentable area C. Usable area D. Assignable area |
A. Gross area |
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What is the term used to describe the area of a building that measures to the inside finished surface of the permanent out building walls, excluding any major vertical penetrations of the floor? A. Gross area B. Rentable area C. Usable area D. Assignable area |
B. Rentable area |
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When calculating a floor’s rentable area, you must first subtract the area calculation for which of the following? A. Mechanical rooms, stairwells, restrooms, and elevator shafts B. Elevator shafts, restrooms, mechanical rooms, and stairwells C. Entire core area of the floor D. Stairwells, elevator shafts, and mechanical chases |
D. Stairwells, elevator shafts, and mechanical chases |
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What is the term to describe the area of a building that includes the area to the exterior walls, building columns, and projections, and secondary circulation but excludes the exterior walls, major vertical penetrations, primary circulation, building core and building service areas? A. Gross area B. Rentable area C. Usable area D. Assignable area |
C. Usable area |
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What is the term used to describe the area of a building that measures to the inside surface of the exterior building walls to the finished surface of the walls surrounding major vertical penetrations and building core and service space and to the center of partitions separating assignable area from secondary circulation space? A. Gross area B. Rentable area C. Usable area D. Assignable area |
D. Assignable area |
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What do you call the area of load-bearing surfaces located above or below occupied building floors that are not available for general occupancy due to inadequate clear headroom, but that may contain building mechanical or electrical systems predominantly serving adjacent floors or provide access to such systems? A. Excluded area B. Service area C. Interstitial area D. Core area |
C. Interstitial area |
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What is the ratio of usable area divided by the rentable area called? A. Building efficiency ratio B. Rule of 72 C. Equity ratio D. Lease option ratio |
A. Building efficiency ratio |
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The Central issue in an investment decision is the owner’s: A. Qualifications B. Objectives C. Background D. Aggressiveness |
B. Objectives |
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The sum of fixed and variable expenses is called: A. Operating expenses B. Variable expenses C. Fixed expenses D. Total expense |
A. Operating expenses |
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What is the most important factor in leasing an office building? A. Cost B. Location C. Exterior design D. Occupancy limits |
A. Cost |
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What is the most important attribute of a master plan? A. Accuracy B. Flexibility C. Scheduling D. Viability |
B. Flexibility |
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During an appraisal, adjustment for site density are best analyzed in relation to the ratio of: A. Land to comparable land B. Building to land C. Land to traffic D. Building to comparable building |
B. Building to land |
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What would be the best policy to follow during downsizing? A. Consolidate in owned facilities; cancel leases B. Hold the line; wait for an up turn C. Consolidate into leased facilities; sell owned property D. Sublease unused space; develop long-term subleases |
A. Consolidate in owned facilities; cancel leases |
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What are usually excluded in a net lease? A. HVAC and Security B. Utilities and housekeeping C. Utilities and HVAC D. HVAC and housekeeping |
B. Utilities and housekeeping |
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When a lease agreement provides for “injunctive relief”, A. A tenant is not required to attain future successors B. A landlord may, at his/her sole direction, waive the right to secure the tenant’s obligation to deliver a guarantee C. Acceptance of rent shall not constitute consent to any holdover D. In the event of a breach of covenants, the landlord has the right to invoke any remedy by law |
D. In the event of a breach of covenants, the landlord has the right to invoke any remedy by law |
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In relocating your company, the most important consideration should be: A. Selection of moving company B. The moving schedule C. Cost savings D. Business interruptions |
D. Business interruptions |
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National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants (NESHAPs) concerning asbestos-containing material (ACM) in existing on-site structures are often cited in cases of: A. Cleaning B. Painting C. Renovation D. New construction |
C. Renovation |
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The EPA National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants primarily govern the asbestos activities of: A. Renovation and demolition B. Inspections C. Abatement D. Worker personal monitoring |
A. Renovation and demolition |
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Training and certification for lead inspectors, abatement workers and laboratories is overseen by: A. EPA B. OSHA C. HUD D. Property Manager |
A. EPA |
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Responsibility for maintaining all manifest records of hazardous waste transport and disposal rests with the: A. Transporter B. TSD operator C. Generator/ Owner D. Property Manager |
C. Generator/ Owner |
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The 1990 Clean Air Act Amendments directly and specifically target all of the following establishments except: A. Dry cleaners B. Office buildings C. Power plants D. Factories |
B. Office buildings |
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A manager's decision to replace equipment that uses CFC's depends on the existing equipment's: A. Condition and age B. Amount of CFC's used C. Power plants D. Ease of maintenance |
A. Condition and age |
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Situations that require a manager to review the property's stormwater system include all of the following except: A. The parking lot repaving B. A building and site expansion C. The discovery of a sinkhole D. The building of neighboring facilities |
A. The parking lot repaving |
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The National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System permit program is administered by: A. Local municipalities B. EPA directly C. EPA or appropriate state agency D. State stormwater/wastewater management |
C. EPA or appropriate state agency |
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Compared to regulations for underground storage tanks, those for above-ground storage tanks are: A. Fewer B. Similar C. Exactly the same D. Nonexistent |
A. Fewer |
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Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA) waste management regulations mandate how a company manages all of the following except: A. Storage of petroleum products underground B. Control of solid or nonhazardous waste C. Transport of waste for disposal D. Generation of hazardous waste |
C. Transport of waste for disposal |
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Facilities involved with hazardous waste are required to obtain an EPA identification number if they: A. Treat more than 100kg per day of regulated waste B. Transport regulated waste to permitted TSD facilities C. Store more than 100kg of regulated waste D. Generate more than 100kg per month of regulated waste |
D. Generate more than 100kg per month of regulated waste |
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Who is legally responsible for the completeness and accuracy of the information on the uniform hazardous waste manifest? A. The waste disposal firm B. The transporter C. The generator D. The DOT inspector |
C. The generator |
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The Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation and Liability Act (CERCLA) and Superfund Amendments and Reauthorization Act (SARA) collectively provide the federal regulation establishing: A. Contamination levels for hazardous waste sites B. Environmental laboratory and consultant qualifications C. Responsibility for cleanup of hazardous waste sites D. Property transfer disclosure requirements |
C. Responsibility for cleanup of hazardous waste sites |
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According to OSHA, who can be sited or fined if an employee must wear steel-toed shoes, does not, and has an accident where his toes are crushed? A. The company B. The department manager C. The employee and company D. The employee and his supervisor |
D. The employee and his supervisor |
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The federal agency responsible for implementing and enforcing workplace health and safety standards is the: A. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention B. Occupational Safety and Health Administration C. Department of Energy D. National Institute of Health |
B. Occupational Safety and Health Administration |
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The category of OSHA fines that carry the highest penalties are: A. Serious B. Repeat C. Willful D. Fatal |
C. Willful |
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To demonstrate a "good faith" effort toward employee safety and health, all activities to eliminate workplace hazards must be: A. Documented in detail and updated B. Recorded and sent to OSHA C. Agreed upon by all building occupants D. Approved by OSHA before implementation |
A. Documented in detail and updated |
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The federal agency that establishes guidelines for IAQ investigation is: A. EPA B. OSHA C. ASHRAE D. ACHIH |
B. OSHA |
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Specifics on a chemical's properties, hazards and safe use are given in a: A. Written HAZCOM program B. DOT label C. Material Safety Data Sheet D. Hazardous assessment |
C. Material Safety Data Sheet |
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All of the following types of information are required on a typical MSDS except: A. Safe handling procedures and controls B. Precautionary, spill, leak, and clean up procedures C. Titles of personnel authorized to use the chemical D. Potential for fire and/ or explosion |
C. Titles of personnel authorized to use the chemical |
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What should you do as a facility manager, when personnel have developed symptoms associated with "sick building syndrome"? A. Hire an indoor air quality consultant B. Investigate the HVAC system with in-house personnel C. Clean all carpet and dust D. Vacuum the HVAC system's duct work |
A. Hire an indoor air quality consultant |
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Ergonomics generally studies: A. Workplace comfort and efficiency B. Worker's interactions with each other C. Exercise and stress in the workplace D. Productivity related to salary |
A. Workplace comfort and efficiency |
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Ergonomic solutions related to office lighting include all of the following except: A. Use of overhead fluorescents at workstations B. Reduction of glare on computer screens C. Improvement of contrast of work surface D. Use of incandescents for visual comforts |
A. Use of overhead fluorescents at workstations |
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The first step in managing ergonomic stressors in the workplace is to analyze the: A. Job task B. Injury/ illness reports C. Existing training program D. Management of responsibilities |
B. Injury/ illness reports |
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The matrix of worker's activities and intensity levels is useful for the manager to evaluate: A. Insurance coverage B. Productivity projections C. Ergonomic risks D. Worker performance |
C. Ergonomic risks |
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A building-related illness (BRI) produces symptoms that are: A. Directly attributed to airborne building pollutants B. Linked to the time spent in a building C. Resulting in hospitalization or prolonged physician's care D. Related to serve allergies to air pollution |
A. Directly attributed to airborne building pollutants |
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Any investigation of a suspected building-related illness must be reported immediately to the: A. Contracted IAQ consultant B. Company legal counsel C. Local fire and safety officials D. Appropriate health officials |
D. Appropriate health officials |
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More than 50% of IAQ complaints are associated with: A. Office equipment B. Workplace layout C. Cleaning chemicals D. Ventilation systems |
D. Ventilation systems |
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A new emergency response plan has been developed. A fire drill is scheduled as a part of the safety employee training. Who should you notify ahead of time? A. Senior management B. All managers C. All employees D. Emergency response team |
D. Emergency response team |
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What part of a disaster plan is most critical? A. Procedures to minimize losses B. Knowing minimum resources needed to run the facility C. Emergency internal communication procedures D. Selection of alternative work sites |
A. Procedures to minimize losses |
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Under the CERCLA liability, if a chemical release occurs on a property, the burden of notification and costs normally rests on all of the following except: A. The owner of the property B. The operator of the facility C. The transporter of the materials D. The neighboring property owners |
D. The neighboring property owners |
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The objective of the facility plans has its origin in corporation's: A. Accounting plan B. Strategic and Operational Plans C. Personal Plan D. MIS Plan |
B. Strategic and Operational Plans |
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In the facility planning process, strategic planning decisions can occur: A. In the first quarter B. At mid-year C. In the last quarter D. At any time |
D. At any time |
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Good facility planning makes a significant contribution to the corporate: A. Bottom line B. Environment C. Standards D. Community |
A. Bottom line |
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An example of corporate objective for a facility project would be: A. Arranging adjacencies that support the flow of paper-based transactions B. Providing technology that grants access to multiple outside databases C. Developing an environment that attracts highly qualified employees D. Locating information centers directly adjacent to user work groups |
C. Developing an environment that attracts highly qualified employees |
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To best serve user needs, facilities standards must be: A. Rigid B. Updated C. Delineated in writing D. Flexible |
D. Flexible |
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Facility preprogramming tasks include all of the following except: A. Confirmation of the program content B. Documentation of the results C. Assembly of the programming team D. Determination of the program information provider |
B. Documentation of the results |
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An action that is critical to successful compilation of programming information is: A. Meeting with every individual staff member B. Diagramming work process transactions C. Using many levels of detail D. Determining early the level of detail required |
D. Determining early the level of detail required |
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Design development documentation should be coordinated with: A. Building constraints B. Schematic drawings C. Conceptual plans D. Post-occupancy surveys |
A. Building constraints |
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What is the most important function for project management success? A. A cohesive team B. Scheduling and budgeting C. Coordinating and communicating D. Planning and monitoring |
D. Planning and monitoring |
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The most effective budgeting and scheduling technique for capital and expensed budgeted projects is: A. Two separate budgets and schedules B. One master schedule including all detailed information C. A master budget with two separate schedules D. A master schedule with two separate budgets |
A. Two separate budgets and schedules |
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What kind of bond should the contractor carry on a large project in case the contractor defaults? A. Liability insurance B. Completion bond C. Project-specific bid bond D. Subcontractor bonding |
C. Project-specific bid bond |
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Traditionally, the construction contract is between the contractor and the: A. Architect B. Interior designer C. Engineer D. Owner |
D. Owner |
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Who obtains comprehensive insurance for contractors? A. The contractor B. The contractor's insurance agent C. The building owner D. Whoever signed the contract |
A. The contractor |
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The contractor submits to the facility manager the final notice of completion and asks for signature. The project is 99% complete. The facility manager should: A. Ask to see all documents pertaining to the tenant improvements and then sign the form B. Not sign the form until you consider the project complete C. Not sign the form until a final occupancy permit is received D. Check with management and receive its approval before signing the form |
C. Not sign the form until a final occupancy permit is received |
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To effectively operate a new building systems, all maintenance personnel should have: A. A copy of all contract documents B. Training in each system C. Consultants on call D. A copy of last year's maintenance schedule |
B. Training in each system |
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During a move, if an employee does not pack according to move schedule, the person who should decide what is moved and what is discarded is: A. The user B. Senior manager C. The facility manager D. A moving company representative |
C. The facility manager |
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Furniture orders that are most susceptible to time-consuming delays are usually: A. Quick-shipment requests B. Those with multiple panel heights C. Small orders and accessory pieces D. Large and complex installations |
C. Small orders and accessory pieces |
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Detailed logistics of a move for employees should be included on a(n): A. Printout B. Operating procedure form C. Schedule A D. Master Schedule |
D. Master Schedule |
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The annual report can be used to report all of the following except: A. Critical maintenance actions B. Changes in facility strategy C. Project proposals D. Budget impact on facilities |
C. Project proposals |
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Organized project documentation is important for all of the following reasons except: A. Time is saved retrieving information B. Credibility is preserved C. Occupants feel like part of the process D. All decisions can be referenced |
C. Occupants feel like part of the process |
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To demonstrate trends in workload, the facility manager must: A. Use the industry standard as a benchmark B. Use the budgeting justification process C. Have access to corporate revenue data D. Have access to data for several years |
D. Have access to data for several years |
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The measurement of the frequency of change in the physical workplace of an organization is referred to as: A. Churn B. Development C. Outsourcing D. Service delivery |
A. Churn |
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From the facility management viewpoint, decisions about expenditures and programs are governed primarily by: A. The local economy B. Business objectives C. Management philosophy D. Building needs |
B. Business objectives |
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The document that provides a basis for developing a strategic facilities plan is the: A. Corporation's Annual Report B. Department's goals and objectives C. Corporation's Strategic Plan D. Department's mission statement |
C. Corporation's Strategic Plan |
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The quality of customer service should be determined by: A. Budgetary constraints B. Manager's expectations C. Expert opinions D. Customer perceptions |
D. Customer perceptions |
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All the following create a need for space delivery projects except: A. Growth B. Renovation C. Downsizing D. New processe |
B. Renovation |
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The best way for facilities personnel to become involved in marketing is through: A. Joining professional organizations B. Referring friends and acquaintances C. Excelling at customer service D. Distributing promotional materials |
C. Excelling at customer service |
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In business, the word that refers to making something happen is: A. Logistics B. Tactics C. Strategy D. Ergonomics |
B. Tactics |
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The two type of tactical activities are: A. Processes and services B. Production and programs C. Projects and assignments D. Programs and procedures |
A. Processes and services |
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The more timely the information, the better the: A. Customer relations B. Decision C. Technology D. Support system |
B. Decision |
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From the corporate executive's point of view, facilities: A. Are a long-term capital investment B. Are an income-generating resource C. Support the objective of the business D. Contribute to the direction of the business plan |
C. Support the objective of the business |
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All facility management functions have aspects that are both: A. Strategic and tactical B. Preventive and corrective C. Profit generating and cost savings D. Personal and impersonal |
A. Strategic and tactical |
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Facility management employees must possess all of the following except: A. Analytical thinking B. Flexibility C. Initiative D. Complete independence |
D. Complete independence |
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The most visible indicator of how priorities are set is the: A. Facility department policies B. Annual report C. Corporate mission statement D. Budgeting process |
D. Budgeting process |
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Facility Managers are more likely to have control of a(n): A. Investment center B. Profit center C. Capital budget D. Operating budget |
D. Operating budget |
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The core of the tactical facility function and the place customers contact when they need a facility service is the: A. Maintenance supervisor's office B. Work reception center C. Facilities department headquarters D. Leasing office |
B. Work reception center |
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The greatest value of computer-aided facilities management (CAFM) systems is in their support of: A. Annual budgets B. Construction planning C. Contract management D. Strategic planning |
D. Strategic planning |
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As the facility manager, based at the corporate headquarters of a large corporation, you have the staff with skills that are of: A. Broad scope and very little technical depth B. Narrow scope and have lots of technical depth C. Broad scope and have lots of technical depth D. Narrow scope and very little technical depth |
B. Narrow scope and have lots of technical depth |
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The keys to providing any facilities service is to effectively manage service efforts and to maintain realistic: A. Estimation B. Expectations C. Assessments D. Exertion |
B. Expectations |
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One way to measure workload is by taking into account the size of a space and the: A. Budget B. Churn rate C. Type of customer D. Age of the building |
B. Churn rate |
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What is the best way to develop teamwork among your staff members? A. Frequently tell them that they are part of the team B. Have them work together on projects C. Hold meetings on teamwork letting them know how to impact D. Consistently involve them in decision-making process |
D. Consistently involve them in decision-making process |
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Outsourcing may be used in all of the following situations except: A. Reducing head count B. Reducing expenses C. Focusing on core business D. Increasing span of control |
D. Increasing span of control |
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When there are many providers for facility services, to reduce the number of bids and proposals that must be reviewed in detail, a facility department should: A. Use rating criteria B. Use selection scorecards C. Practice short-listing D. Practice debriefing |
C. Practice short-listing |
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To avert innocent but unfortunate gaffes by contract personnel at the outset of a project, the contract should include: A. Specific methods for handing off work from one contractor to another B. Descriptions of acceptable and unacceptable communication patterns C. Existing administration guidelines D. Contract administration guidelines |
B. Descriptions of acceptable and unacceptable communication patterns |
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When a bundle of a full range of services is provided by a third-party single contractor or group of contractors, this arrangements is referred to as: A. Outsourcing B. Out tasking C. Consulting D. Contracting |
A. Outsourcing |
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One aspect of laying off staff and outsourcing facilities work is that it: A. Helps maintain better control B. Allows for manpower flexibility C. Eliminates patterns of problems D. Protects the organization's business interest |
B. Allows for manpower flexibility |
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Documents that convey the organization's compliance to regulations and local codes and ordinances are called: A. Project proposal commitments B. Policy and procedure manuals C. Contractual agreements D. Legal compliance documents |
D. Legal compliance documents |
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Setting long-range goals and strategies, defining the direction of a unit or organization, recognizing the possibilities and potential in the future, and inspiring others to join in are all aspects of: A. Supervision B. Management C. Administration D. Leadership |
D. Leadership |
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Leaders who rely on teaching, monitoring, and coaching to evaluate their followers' desires and goals are exercising: A. Transforming leadership B. Transactional leadership C. Communication-based leadership D. Directional leadership |
A. Transforming leadership |
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Variable expenses include all of the following except: A. Management and Administration B. Cleaning C. Utilities D. Depreciation |
D. Depreciation |
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Given an overall capitalization rate of 12.5% and a net operating income of $ 100,000, which of the following is the indicated value? A. 12,500 B. 80,000 C. 800,000 D. 1,250,000 |
C. 800,000 |
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Approximately how long will it take to double your money if you receive a 4% yield on your investment? A. 19 years B. 18 years C. 4 years D. 12 years |
B. 18 years |
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The point where total income and total expenses equal each other out is the: A. Yield-equity equalization point B. Leverage C. Break-even point D. 32% of total operating expense |
C. Break-even point |
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Developing a project capitalization rate starts with an evaluation of the: A. Weighted average cost of capital B. Expected rate of return C. Present value of the investment D. Property's current operations |
A. Weighted average cost of capital |
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If the present value of the future cash flows from an investment is greater than the initial investment, then: A. The expected rate of return has not been achieved B. The investment should not be made C. The internal rate of return is greater than the expected rate of return D. The expected rate of return is too high |
C. The internal rate of return is greater than the expected rate of return |
