Cdc Volume 2

Front 1

The air force atomic, biological, chemical (ABC) warfare program was formed in 1951 in response to proliferation of

Back 1

Nuclear weapons after World War II by the Soviet Union.

Front 2

What EM career field emblem was approved for use in 1966 by the US Army Institute of Heraldry, graphically symbolizes the components that make up the response elements, and is still in use today?

Back 2

The disaster response force (DRF) emblem.

Front 3

What career field award recognizes the best Readiness and Emergency Management (R&EM) flights annually.

Back 3

The Colonel Fredrick J. Riemer award

Front 4

After the terrorist attacks on 11 September 2001, a significant change to emergency management and response was the implementation of the

Back 4

National Incident Management System

Front 5

The Air Force complied with the directive to adopt the National Incident Management system (NIMS) by

Back 5

implementing the Air Force Incident Management System.

Front 6

The Air Force Chief of Staff (CSAF) approved the EM career field badge in

Back 6

2006

Front 7

What does the career field education and training plan (CFETP) state about wearing EM Occupational badge?

Back 7

You must wear the Civil Engineer (CE) occupational badge with the EM occupational badge.

Front 8

Which activities should include training and education as well as exercises, personnel qualifications, equipment certification, and the integration of planning and procedures?

Back 8

Preparedness

Front 9

Providing support in the emergency operations center (EOC) chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) control center, and unit control center (UCC) fall into what readiness and emergency management (R&EM) flight mission set?

Back 9

Operations

Front 10

What determines the number of 3E9s assigned to a flight?

Back 10

Manpower authorizations

Front 11

Who supervises the readiness and emergency management (R&EM) flight and analyzes the local threat of natural, technological, or man-made hazards.

Back 11

Flight Chief

Front 12

Who is the key EM representative for the senior AF authority and will perform the duties necessary to properly train and educate airmen on AF specific requirements such as chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) passive defense?

Back 12

EM section

Front 13

Which section is responsible for ensuring the civil engineer squadron accomplishes all Prime BEEF program requirements in accordance with AFI 10-210, Prime Beef Program, and Air Force pamphlet (AFPAM) 10-219, Volume 8, Prime BEEF Management?

Back 13

Expeditionary engineering section

Front 14

Who do senior readiness and emergency managment (R&EM) flight personnel directly report to?

Back 14

Base Civil engineer

Front 15

Who is responsible for enduring unit emergency management (EM) programs are managed according to AFMAN-32-1007 and AFI 10-2501?

Back 15

Flight leadership

Front 16

Which of the following would NOT be included in the meeting agenda?

Back 16

List of People attending

Front 17

The emergency management (EM) program review is designed

Back 17

to facilitate integration of all functional activities affecting the installation during contingencies.

Front 18

After determining briefing topics, what is the next step in preparing for an Emergency Management Working Group (EMWG) meeting?

Back 18

Schedule the time and place for the meeting.

Front 19

The Work Center Assignments option falls under which module of Automated Civil Engineering System-Personnel and Readiness (ACES-PR)

Back 19

Personnel

Front 20

Which module of Automated Civil Engineer System-Personnel and Readiness (ACES-PR) allows the user to manage equipment, mobility, the EM program stats?

Back 20

Readiness

Front 21

Which function of the Automated Civil Engineer System-Personnel and readiness (ACES-PR) Personnel module allows the user to add and modify records; view personnel history and/or move records to history; view, assign, and or delete additional duties; and assign personnel to work center positions.

Back 21

Readiness

Front 22

Which emergency management section element is responsible for all Readiness and Emergency Management flight equipment?

Back 22

Logistics

Front 23

Checklists for readiness and emergency management flight equipment must be prepared within how many days after the new equipment is received?

Back 23

30 days

Front 24

Which element of the R&EM flight is responsible for regularly reviewing EM-related allowance standards to determine if authorizations for accountable equipment items have been added, deleted, or changed?

Back 24

Logistics

Front 25

What document provides basic allowances of equipment normally required by Air Force activities for accomplishing the assigned mission, tasks, or duties?

Back 25

Allowance Standard

Front 26

Which of the following would not be found in an allowance standard

Back 26

War Reserve material (WRM)

Front 27

Which of the following of the following is not a suitable reason to request changes in allowance standard?

Back 27

When broken equipment needs to be repaired.

Front 28

Items not in an allowance standard, but required by an organization to perform its mission, may be obtained as

Back 28

Special Allowances

Front 29

What is used to authorize a required item that is not in an allowance standard but is already on hand?

Back 29

Retention Authority

Front 30

Temporarily required items are items needed for a period of

Back 30

180 calendar days or less.

Front 31

Unless otherwise directed by the SecDef, installations may not stock supplies solely for

Back 31

Defense support to civil authorities (DSCA)

Front 32

What is the key to logistics

Back 32

Effective inventory managment

Front 33

Which of the following is not one of the four basic steps to the inventory management process?

Back 33

Establishing equipment turn in procedures

Front 34

Which system is cross-service web-enabled automated tracking system designed to initiate, process, and track equipment deficiency reports from the warfighter through the investigation process?

Back 34

Joint Deficiency Reporting System (JDRS)

Front 35

Who must identify requirements and then budget for, obtain, store, and maintain materiel needed to accomplish their specific function's emergency management tasks in support of response plans?

Back 35

Unit Commanders

Front 36

The types and quantities of passive defense equipment needed by forces in the area of employment are specified in

Back 36

The logistics portions of war and contingency plans.

Front 37

What must you do prior to starting any equipment task?

Back 37

Review all applicable technical orders for familiarization with the latest procedures.

Front 38

Members appointed as technical order distribution account (TODA) representatives must complete training within how many days of assignment?

Back 38

90 days

Front 39

In CBRN threat areas, who must store and maintain pre-positioned materiel for additive forces according to theater reinforcement plans, base support plans, and joint support plans?

Back 39

Installation Commanders.

Front 40

Who ensures unit materiel, including materiel in bulk storage, is stored in facilities that provide security, accessibility, and protection from fire, extreme weather, temperature, dust, and humidity?

Back 40

Unit Commanders

Front 41

The R&EM flight's training element develops and maintains master lesson plans for instructor-led courses using available instructor guides created by

Back 41

AFCEC/CXR

Front 42

When EM training is completed the readiness and emergency management flight's training element updates

Back 42

Automated Civil Engineer System - Personnel Readiness (ACES-PR)

Front 43

When formal training slots are available, individual mobilization augmented (IMAs) should be

Back 43

given the same consideration as active duty personnel

Front 44

What can help to evaluate training issues by considering topics previously covered, thus overcoming the urge to teach favorite topics and neglect other critical areas when conducting in-house training?

Back 44

Proper documentation

Front 45

How often must the installation DRF's ability to respond to adversarial/human-caused, technological/accidental, and natural threads outlined in the IEMP 10-2 be exercised?

Back 45

Annually

Front 46

Who is responsible for exercising the ability to conduct deployed combat operations?

Back 46

Any unit with a wartime mission

Front 47

Which component of SMART approach to developing exercise objectives encourages developers to remember that exercises are conducted during a limited timeframe and objectives must be able to be met during that time?

Back 47

Attainable

Front 48

Which component of the SMART approach to developing exercise objectives encourages developers to focus on specific operations or tasks to be completed?

Back 48

Task oriented

Front 49

What is the first step in establishing an effective "be ready" awareness campaign?

Back 49

Hazard analysis

Front 50

Which element of the readiness and emergency management flight ensures emergency support function (ESF) - 5 has the ability to provide core management function in the EOC

Back 50

Operations

Front 51

The R&EM flight operations element ensures that every unit and agency on the installation is in compliance with the EM program by

Back 51

implementing the EM program review process

Front 52

Who determines which installation will train and equip geographically separated units (GSU) units in compliance with the EM program?

Back 52

Majcoms

Front 53

How long after the most recent emergency management program review should the unit EM reps perform self-assessment using the EM program review checklist?

Back 53

6 months

Front 54

Each EM program review should be coordinated with the unit EM representative and commander at least how many weeks before the visit?

Back 54

2

Front 55

R&EM flight leadership will submit the written EM program review assessment to the CE commander within how many duty days after the out-brief?

Back 55

5 duty days

Front 56

Which of the following is not a factor that will affect the size of the emergency management support team (EMST)?

Back 56

Training requirments

Front 57

Which element of the R&EM flight serves as the OPR for CBRN passive defense and consequence management planning?

Back 57

Planning

Front 58

The R&EM flight planning element is responsible for assisting with what portions of the installation risk management process?

Back 58

CBRN and EM

Front 59

Which group performs and documents the risk management process?

Back 59

Installation's Emergency Management Working Group

Front 60

Which of the following is not one of the three assessments required to be completed as part of the risk management process.

Back 60

Efficiency assessment.

Front 61

Which is the most important assessment tool in the risk management process for an installation's EM program

Back 61

Hazards assessment

Front 62

Which risk management assessment describes all resources and capabilities available both on and off the installation for incident response and recovery

Back 62

Capability assessment

Front 63

Which risk management assessment identifies shortfalls and steps taken to either mitigate or eliminate the shortfalls through procurement, developing support agreements, developing or revising plans, accepting risks, or some other method?

Back 63

Capability Assessment

Front 64

Which risk management assessment identifies areas of improvement to withstand, mitigate and deter hazards and serves as one of the foundation components for effective emergency management?

Back 64

Vulnerability assessment

Front 65

How often are the assessments associated with the risk management process conducted?

Back 65

Annually

Front 66

Which publication provides Federal Emergency Management Agency guidance on the fundamentals of planning and developing emergency operations plans?

Back 66

CPG 101, Developing and Maintaining Emergency Operations plans

Front 67

Which of the following is the foundation for state, territorial, tribal, and local emergency planning in the US and is the standard for EM planning used with the Air Force EM program?

Back 67

CPG 101, Developing and Maintaining Emergency Operations Plans

Front 68

Planners can test whether critical plan elements are sufficiently flexible by

Back 68

exercising them against scenarios of varying type and magnitude.

Front 69

Which of the following is not one of the planning tiers?

Back 69

Deliberate

Front 70

Planners typically use which approach to develop planning assumptions primarily for hazard- or threat-specific annexes to a basic plan?

Back 70

Scenario-Based Planning

Front 71

Which approach to planning focuses on a jurisdiction's capacity to take a course of action>

Back 71

Capabilities-based planning

Front 72

What establishes an agreement between parties and documents proof of the agreement and its contents?

Back 72

Support agreements

Front 73

For Defense Support to Civil Authorities (DSCA) response within the US, its territories and possessions, who coordinates response activities for federal agencies if the incident affects areas outside the installation's boundaries?

Back 73

Department of Homeland Security

Front 74

At the national level, who is responsible for EM within CONUS?

Back 74

FEMA

Front 75

Which plan provides comprehensive guidance for an emergency response to physical threats resulting from natural, man-made, or technological hazards?

Back 75

Installation Emergency Management Plan (IEMP) 10-2

Front 76

Who approves the Installation Emergency Management Plan (IEMP) 10-2

Back 76

Installation Commander

Front 77

What was developed and adopted to assist Air Force Emergency managers in the development process of their respective IEMP 10-2?

Back 77

IEMP 10-2 Planning Tool

Front 78

Units must develop and/or update implementing instruction within how many days of publication of an IEMP 10-2?

Back 78

60

Front 79

Who is responsible for identifying and evaluating installation facilities that may be used for shelters?

Back 79

Base Civil engineer

Front 80

What is used during a natural, man-made, or technological emergency condition to provide limited protection for the unprotected personnel or casualties?

Back 80

Shelter-in-place

Front 81

Which announcement is an emergency protocol used as a security measure to confine and restrict movement during an active shooter incident?

Back 81

Lockdown

Front 82

When planning supply and resupply actions to support extended shelter operations, how many days should you plan for after the onset of CBRN contamination?

Back 82

7 consecutive days

Front 83

Which agency is responsible for providing notification of earthquakes in order to enhance public safety and to reduce losses through effective forecasts based on the best possible scientific information?

Back 83

United states geological survey (USGS)

Front 84

To determine which areas in the US are at higher risk than others to an earthquake, the USGS creates seismic hazard maps that show

Back 84

peak ground acceleration.

Front 85

Which agency monitors ocean waves after any Pacific earthquake with a magnitude greater than 6.5?

Back 85

International Tsunami Warning System (ITWS)

Front 86

When is hurricane season in the Atlantic, Caribbean, and gulf of Mexico as well as in the Central Pacific Basin?

Back 86

1 June 30 November

Front 87

Which agency issues coastal tropical cyclone watches and warning for the US and its territories and provides watch and waning recommendations to other world Meteorological Organization Region IV meteorological services?

Back 87

National Hurricane Center (NHC)

Front 88

What is the nickname of the area of the US that experiences a high volume of tornadoes each year?

Back 88

Tornado Alley

Front 89

A boundary separating hot, dry air to the west from warm, moist air to the east is called?

Back 89

A dry line

Front 90

Which level of HAZMAT response is conducted when the hazard is confined to a small area that can be controlled by first responders, does not require evacuation beyond the involved structure, and poses no immediate threat to life or property?

Back 90

Level 1

Front 91

Which level of HAZMAT response is conducted when the hazard poses a potential threat to life or property?

Back 91

Level 2

Front 92

Any large number of casualties produced in a relatively short time, usually as a result of a single incident is called?

Back 92

Mass Casualty Incident

Front 93

Conventional explosives are the most troubling weapons of mass destruction because

Back 93

they can be disperse chemical, biological, or radiological agents.

Front 94

Chemical agents are based on their

Back 94

Physiological effects

Front 95

Which weapons are used to cause illness, injury, or death in humans, livestock, or plants?

Back 95

Biological

Front 96

What is the primary defense against biological weapons?

Back 96

Recognition

Front 97

Which of the following is not one of the three primary mechanisms by which terrorists can use radiation to carry out an attack?

Back 97

Hijacking an aircraft with Nuclear weapons

Front 98

A dirty bomb is another name for what kind of weapon?

Back 98

Radiological Dispersion Device

Front 99

Critical Water or sewer system failures can and do occur quite often, primarily as a result of

Back 99

natural hazards

Front 100

According to the World Food Program, what is the greatest worldwide threat to health?

Back 100

Famine