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324 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
The tip provides?
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users with a fast-file control system
|
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Online processing may be called?
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real-time processing
|
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Which of the following best describes online processing?
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Equipment is under the direct control of the mainframe
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The basic limitation to batch processing is?
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There is always a processing delay
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What is considered the easiest method of creating a data file for pseudo processing?
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running the NFS0A0 program
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In what mode do you run PSURPB?
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DEMAND
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What indicator tells you that a PSURPB program has completed processing?
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The SOE character appears
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A pseudo file is created for PSURPB by
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using program NFS0A0
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Which support program file controls all online programs for each AIS?
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Validation table.
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Which support program file ensures that the FSA is running and up to date for the IMDS database?
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TIP file 611
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The basic keyin console mode allows
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a user to request the status on a user's run
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What console mode command displays a list of active runs?
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T D.
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The @@TM console command is used to
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send a message to a remote site
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What ECL command will provide you with the mainframe FTP address?
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@WHOAMI
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When transferring a file using FTP, the sending file name
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must correspond to the file name of the receiving file
|
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Which element contains data to be processed by control statements?
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Symbolic
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a collection of instructions that, when executed, results in the performance of one or more logical functions is called
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a program
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What ECL command syntax symbol is used to indicate to the systems an option is to follow?
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Comma (,)
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The "S" option at the end of an ECL command syntax indicates that
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only symbolic type elements will be affected by the command
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What should be used when constructing an ECL file to differentiate between two elements with identical names?
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/VERSION
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What is the maximum size a message can be when created with the @MSG ECL command?
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48 characters.
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The ECL information command @PRT,P FILENAME
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displays all files with the same project ID
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Which ECL file manipulation command allows a normal termination of data for input into a file?
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@EOF
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You should catalogue a file to
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retain the data after the file is freed.
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If the ECL file manipulation command GRANULE requirement is left blank when a file is catalogued, the result is that a system assumes
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TRK
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Which ECL file manipulation command is used to introduce, update, and correct an SDF file?
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@DATA
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In the @ASG statement, the PACK-ID
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specifies the removable disk pack required for the file.
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Which of the following ECL control commands makes provisions for the deassignment of files from a run and releases its input/output facilities?
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@FREE
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The ECL control command @RUN identifies
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a job to the system
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When using the @RUN command, what is the default priority?
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M
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Which ECL control command is used to queue a previously created print file to a specific device?
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@SYM
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Which ECL control command allows one part of the print file to print while the remainder of the run is still processing?
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@BRKPT
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Which is not a general function of Integrated Maintenance Data Systems (IMDS)?
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Saves the database
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The database manager must inform users when a batch program is scheduled to be run
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requiring the integrated maintenance data system online processing to be down
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When monitoring computer maintenance as a database manager, your efforst must be directed toward
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the analysis of unscheduled and scheduled downtime
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Which database verification program can be run on as needed when problems are suspected?
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NDA500
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Which utility program requires that the database be down when you run this program?
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Data management utility verifies
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The IMDS work order update WHC program is used to
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update WAH when a special requirement exists where air national guard units require more hours
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The two basic procedures for data recovery are
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manual remote and pseudo remote processing
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whenever an advisory notice is sent out to the field, who determines the affected users at base level?
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host database manager.
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What document is used by the CCSHD to communicate with field agencies?
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Heads up messages (HUM)
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What does the ELSG send out to the field right away if a software problem is discovered but a SAN might be delayed?
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HUM
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What do we use to identify IMDS database corrections and updates to DECC and functional users world-wide?
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System release
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For which situation may the user submit an IT/NSS RD regarding IMDS
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add new capabilites to IMDS
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An IT/NSS RD disapproved at any level is
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returned in reverse order down the chain to the initiator
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the ICI software package provides IMDS and supply users with
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message routing, recovery, and utility functions
|
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The responsibility for initializing ICI via screen #891 lies with
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the host DBM
|
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Which REMIS interface program provides a list of all the files which have been received from or transmitted to REMIS within the last 72 hours?
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DDN address record.
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Which REMIS interface program creates RCS-376 records containing SRD problems that are sent to REMIS?
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Table Validation Problem Reporting
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Which option on the G081 session selection menu brings up the G081 time sharing option (TSO) menu?
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ATATS TSO
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In G081, what does it mean when you see three asterisks in a row?
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Press enter to continue
|
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All new G081 user Ids automatically have access to which G081 environment?
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IMSA CAMS Production
|
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In addition to creating new G081 user id in the G081 User ID maintenance facility, the G081 manager must process which program to grant access to G081?
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F9057, Terminal/User Master Record Update
|
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What two options are available to reset a G081 User ID password through the G081 User ID Maintenance Facility?
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Un-Suspend user and update G081 password
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A G081 manager can delete only G081 user IDs with what type of access?
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IMSA and IMSB
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Which option of the VTAM printing system VMCF printer selection list is used to access a particular printer's command page?
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Option C.
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What is entered in the Command Input field of the G081's spool display and search facility (SDSF) primary options menu to go to the SDSF Status Display Menu?
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ST, Status.
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What information does the spool display and search facility (SDSF) job dataset display give the G081 manager?
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Status of the job selected
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What type of database system(s) compose the IMDS central database?
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Network and relational.
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Physical pointers are used in networked databse to
|
establish relationships between records
|
|
how many dimensions do tables have in a relational database?
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Two
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The most distinguishing characteristic of a relational query language like SQL is it
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is a non-procedural language
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The ELC contains
|
the unique database for each base
|
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The characteristic that describes a function of the of the RDMS section of the central databse (CDB) is it contains
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the reference data from REMIS
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What does the schema of a database describe?
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Logical relationships between records.
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Which section of the schema is used by the Data management routine to locate records?
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set
|
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The two divisions of the schema are identification and
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data
|
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How many base level areas does the enterprise location code (ECL) database have?
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11
|
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The CDB global roll-up areas use enterprise location code (ELC) codes of
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0000
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Which clause in the record section of the IMDS schema defines the areas where the records can be found?
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Data identifier.
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Record placement in the IMDS database depends on association, distribution, and
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volatility.
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The three parts of an IMDS record database key (DBK) are area, page number, and ...
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record number
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You can access via set records only through
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an entry point record
|
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A direct type record has its database key assigned and controlled by the
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ELSG database administrator
|
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What types of records are defined when a hierarchical relationship is established by sets?
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Owner and member
|
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The database key in a pointer shows the
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next logical record in the set
|
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Which element of the database structure is not shown by the IMDS DMS schematic?
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Page
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When viewing the rectangle box on an IMDS schematic, what denotes an area as consisting of one schematic page?
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A whole number
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Which of the following is the main focus of a data model?
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Structure and organization of the data
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When building a data model, all data required by the database should be represented
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completely and accurately.
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Adding details to a data model includes adding data attributes, and data manipulation and
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integrity rules
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The two-dimensional structure of data values that form relations to one another in relational database is known as a
|
table
|
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In a relational database,
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a primary key field may not be null
|
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In what type of key establishes the relationship with records in one table to records in another table?
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Foreign key
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Which of the following is an association between two or more data items, or between two or more tables?
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Relationship.
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Which type of data relationship is represented when each row in a table is related to a single row in another table?
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One-to-one.
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Multiple occurrences of one data element are related to one occurrence of another, and vice versa, represents which type of data relationship?
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Many-to-many.
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Which of the following data relationships cannot be represented in a relational database?
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Many-to-many
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Which of the following is a relationship between fields such that the value in Field A determines the value in Field B, and there can only be one value in field B?
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Functional dependency
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A functional dependency in which the calue in a non-key field is determined by the value of another non-key field is called a/an
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transitive dependency
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In the RDMS what is the maximum amount of data the historical tables can store?
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Five years worth
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Which table in the RDMS holds data supplied by REMIS?
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Reference
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In the RDMS schema, in what order are the tables are arranged?
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Alphabetical
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Why are the RDMS tables indexed?
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For faster search and retrieval
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In the RDMS schema diagram, the tables in an area are drawn in
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boxes
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In the RDMS schema diagram, a solid arrow line between two tables points to a table with
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a defined foreign key
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In the RDMS schema diagram,
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a foreign key exists but is not defined.
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A profile is a list of TRICs that allows access to certain IMDS programs based on the user's
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role
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The IMDS master profile Generic_User_Profile contains
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the basic TRICs that all users need.
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What profile level of operation allows database administrators to access all enterprise location codes (ELCs) and teh RDMS?
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Enterprise
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Managing the RDMS tables is the responsibility of the
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Central Database CDB database administrators DBA
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The allowed enterprise location codes concept gives the ELC database managers the ability to allow
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another IMDS user from another base access to their database.
|
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The adding or subtracting of a TRICs with its respective options and sub-options out of a loaded profile on an individual is known as
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DELTA
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What best describes a "green screen"?
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systems still using a text-based screen transaction
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What table identifies whether the DMS rollup area is available for transaction processing?
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FSA_Control
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UP to how many user Ids can the ELC profile manager by profile ID program load to a single master profile?
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25
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Site management (SIMAN) establishes and defines user-ids for demand, batch and tip users for
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the entire mainframe
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What site management (SIMAN) mode is especially effective for making precise entries or for use by less experienced database managers (DBMs)
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Screen
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What type of IMDS database errors can not be created by TIP users?
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Pointer
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What type of IMDS database errors occur when the data does not follow the schema rules?
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Structural
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Which database verify check for proper placement of random records throughout a database?
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CALC
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Which in put is required to obtain a record printout of a random access locator record when using the prom random access locator (LAF)?
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CALC Key
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Which of the following unused data items can the list is the File Inquiry (FIQ) program table to provide?
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Event sequence numbers
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What input command do you use to activate DBLOOK?
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@ADD
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The universal data systems monitor (UDSMON) provides for an integrated software environment for control and maintenance of?
|
user databases
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What kind of problems does the CAM/REMIS reconciliation (RIS) program identify and correct?
|
C-E status and inventory
|
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Which is an example of an integer literal?
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2
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Which is an example of a Boolean operator?
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AND
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The QLP statement ESH-ENG-FLY-HRS = '01000' represents
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a relational expression
|
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Which words in a QLP syntax skeleton are mandatory if they are underlined?
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Uppercase
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What character do you sued at the end of a QLP statement whn you want to continue the command to the next line?
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A semicolon
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QLP can be initialized online only in the
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Demand mode
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When more than one INVOKE statement is entered in one session, the second or subsequent INVOKE statement
|
automatically overrides the previous INVOKE statement.
|
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Which QLP sign-off procedure purges all reports that were not saved by used of the SAVE command?
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EXIT
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Which QLP clause allows you to specify portions of a data item as the selection criteria?
|
MASK
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With what clause does the QLP MACRO definition syntax terminates?
|
END-MACRO
|
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QLP Procedures are invoked by the command
|
CALL
|
|
The QLP procedure definition consists of the mandatory statements PROCEDURE and
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END PROCEDURE
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When printing a QLP output, what command do you use to activate a side-by printer?
|
@@PRNT
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The QLP clause that defines the explicit attributes of a derived name is
|
DECLARE
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Which QLP command that allows user to specify an output destination is
|
GENERATE
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When you choose to generate a summary report in QLP, which clause is disregarded?
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LINE
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Which QLP clause allows the user to specify the number of lines per inch to be printed?
|
DENSITY
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An edited QLP report is copied into the temporary savefile if
|
it was stored in the user or permanent savefile
|
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What savefile is automatically assigned to WLP when the INVOKE command is processed?
|
Permanent
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Which QLP savefile command is used to list all or specific entities?
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PRINT
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In which mode can the QLP COMPILE command not be used?
|
EDIT
|
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In SQL, what clause completes the SELECT statement?
|
FROM
|
|
In SQL, what do you normally enter in the select list of a SELECT statement?
|
Column names
|
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In a QLP report, how does the QLP recognize that the SELECT clause being used applies to the RELATIONAL DATABASE MANAGEMENT SYSTEM relational tables?
|
Invoking the RDMS environment
|
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If used on a QLP report, on what line do you enter the clause FOR TRANSFER?
|
REPORT
|
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When entering SELECT statemetns in IPF, what must precede the SELECT statement?
|
SQL
|
|
What is the standard interactive processing facility (IPF) continuation character?
|
'&'
|
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Who is authorized to write new FOCUS reports?
|
G081 Managers
|
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Which FOCUS commands is used to create a "logical link" between two databases?
|
JOIN command.
|
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Which FOCUS command gives the user a means of specifying the selection criteria for a FOCUS retrievals?
|
F9029
|
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What option is entered in the ACT field of program F9029 to create a new FOCUS report?
|
A, ADD
|
|
What statistical method uses only a sample of data?
|
Inferential
|
|
Which action would require the use of the descriptive statistics method?
|
Summarize a large amount of data
|
|
A sample of a population that is taken in such a manner that each value has an equal change of being selected is referred to as a
|
random sample
|
|
What are measures, such as the mean or median, called if they are computed from a sample?
|
Statistics
|
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Which measurement scale consists of equal intervals between scale values and an arbitrary zero point?
|
Interval.
|
|
The second step in making a frequency distribution is to
|
determine the class interval size
|
|
If you construct a frequency distribution and the class interval is too large, the result is
|
a loss of detail
|
|
When constructing a frequency polygon, what are plotted against the corresponding midpoints?
|
Frequencies of the various class intervals.
|
|
Which graphical methods gives the best representation of the number of individual values in each class?
|
Histogram
|
|
What measure of central tendency is the most typical value in a distribution?
|
Mode
|
|
The median cannot be used with data from which measurement scale?
|
Nominal
|
|
Analysts frequently use the median because it is easy to compute and gives a better picture of data than the mean and mode when data are
|
skewed
|
|
What must you do first to determine the median from ungrouped data?
|
Array the data in ascending order.
|
|
A true characteristic of the arithmetic mean is it is
|
affected by extreme values
|
|
For any distribution, the sum of the deviations is
|
zero
|
|
For a standard deviation of a population, if the number of values increases, the standard deviation
|
increases
|
|
As the number of values in a normal distribution sample decreases, the standard deviation
|
becomes less representative of the population
|
|
Given a large number of random samples, how is the mean of all the sample means related to the population mean?
|
It is the same
|
|
Given a large number of random samples, how is the mean of all the sample means related to the population mean?
|
It is the same
|
|
A normal distribution contains what two parameters?
|
Mean and standard deviation
|
|
In a normal distribution, 99 percent of the area under the normal area curve is contained within how many standard deviations on each side of the mean?
|
3
|
|
When plotted on normal probability graph paper, data from a normal distribution shows up as a
|
straight line
|
|
The variable that measures how many standard deviations a value is from the mean is the
|
Z score
|
|
Where does the most frequent value of a normal cure occur?
|
at the center of the distribution
|
|
Where does the most frequent value of a normal curve occur?
|
At the center of the distribution
|
|
Nice studyin skills broski!
|
Thanks
|
|
The causes of variation that can be identified on a control chart, regulated, and possibly eliminated are..
|
assignable
|
|
The purposes of a control chart in statistics is to
|
detect the presence of assignable causes for variation.
|
|
In general statistical terms, a control chart tells you..
|
when to look for a problem
|
|
When identifying processes out of control and using a control chart, what action you take if you have set your control limits at three standard deviations and suspected problems are falling within the control limits?
|
switch to tighter limits.
|
|
In statistical terms, what does the control chart for plotting individual X values use for the centerline?
|
Mean
|
|
the statistical interpretation of a control chart for individuals would be distorted if the
|
distribution is extremely skewed.
|
|
In statistics, the control chart for averages is best used when dealing with data that is
|
in relatively large amounts.
|
|
What characteristics of the distribution used in a control chart for averages gives it an advantage over a chart for individuals?
|
Chart of averages
|
|
What subgroup sample size is commonly used when constructing a statistical range chart.
|
4 or 5
|
|
In statistics, what item on the P chart is affected by changes in sample size?
|
the control limits.
|
|
In statistics, a C chart may be used to measure the
|
number of defects per unit.
|
|
In statistics, a range chart is normally used with a
|
chart for averages
|
|
on what statistical control chart is the number of defects per unit plotted?
|
C Chart
|
|
The various statistical techniques associated with hypothesis testing should be performed when the observed differences between data are
|
neither very large nor very small
|
|
Hypothesis testing is used in data analysis to
|
identify significant differences, trends, and relationships
|
|
What type of hypothesis assumes no significant deference between two or more population samples?
|
Null or given
|
|
How would you state the null hypothesis concerning your assumption between population A and population B? The mean of population A
|
is equal to the mean of population B
|
|
The probability of making a type I statistical error is denoted by
|
alpha
|
|
When you assign a level of significance to a statistical test, you are actually assigning
|
a certain proportion of data in the normal curve area as your rejection region
|
|
What is the first step in the hypothesis testing procedure?
|
State the two hypotheses.
|
|
What statistical test makes no assumptions about the shape of the populations form which the samples come?
|
nonparametric.
|
|
in statistical testing, the extreme regions in sampling distributions are signified by
|
critical squares
|
|
in parametric testing, a T test is a one-tailed test because
|
only one tail of your sampling distribution is used
|
|
if you use an F test for variance between two samples, you reject your null hypothesis when your computed F test statistic is
|
greater than the F critical value.
|
|
In statistics, a T test evaluates the significance of the difference between the
|
means of two small samples
|
|
For a T test, what should the sample size be for differences between sample means?
|
Less than 30.
|
|
For a Z test, the sample size for differences between sample means should be a at least
|
30
|
|
In nonparametric testing when making a comparison to the table of U critical values, you use the
|
smaller U statistic
|
|
IN nonparametric testing, whiy is the U test statistic converted to a z deviate when the sample size is greater than 2-?
|
the sampling distribution of U rapidly approaches the normal distribution .
|
|
The Krusakl-Wallis H test requires data from at least what scale?
|
Ordinal.
|
|
In nonparametric testing, what number of samples can the X^2 test be used for?
|
Any number of samples
|
|
In nonparametric testing, what is the degree of freedom for a x^2 sample containing five categories and four rows in a multi-sample test?
|
12
|
|
In predictive analysis, a coefficient of correlation indicates
|
to what extent two sets of data are related
|
|
When performing correlation analysis, as values in one set of measure increase and the corresponding or paired values in the other set also increase, the relationship is considered to be
|
positive
|
|
When performing correlation analysis, as values in one set of measure increase and the corresponding or paired values in the other set also increase, the relationship is considered to be
|
positive
|
|
In correlation analysis, to display a negative relationship between the X and Y values, the
|
high X values are paired with low Y values
|
|
Which statement is true regarding the data used for Pearson's coefficient of correlation?
|
Data must display homogeneity of variance
|
|
When the calculated value of Pearson's R exceeds the coefficient of correlation?
|
a correlation exists and it is significant.
|
|
Do not use Spearman's correlation method as a substitute for Pearson's if the result is to be
|
used in additional statistical testing
|
|
What is the full range of Spearman's rank correlation coefficient?
|
-1 to +1
|
|
In regression analysis, what does a line of regression show?
|
Trend of the data relationships.
|
|
In data correlation for regression analysis, the measure of dispersion is the standard
|
error of the estimate
|
|
When plotting a line of regression , you allow for variation of the predicted values by
|
establishing a range within which a given proportion of the values will fall.
|
|
What statement best describes the cyclical variation type of trend analysis?
|
Usually caused by the nature of the data itself.
|
|
What month or months is/are not used in plotting a semi-average trend analysis line?
|
Beginning and ending
|
|
Whenever data tend to form a straight line, what is the most popular method for computing the secular trend analysis of a time series?
|
Least-squares method.
|
|
When computing a trend line using the least-squares analysis method, what does 'b' represent in the formula?
|
Slope of the trend line.
|
|
Which plots are used to draw the moving-average in a nonlinear trend line?
|
the center plots for each time span.
|
|
What is considered a disadvantage when using the moving average trend analysis method?
|
extrapolation is not possible
|
|
To analyze seasonal trends, you would use the percent-of-yearly-total method to establish
|
an index of seasonal variations.
|
|
The use of statistical methods in the forecasting of secular trends analysis consists primarily of
|
measuring events in the past.
|
|
The standard deviation of "K" is dependent on the
|
sample size
|
|
In probability statistics, failures per end item are considered what type of data?
|
Continuous
|
|
In terms of how probability is determined, what are the two definitions of probability?
|
Classical and frequency.
|
|
The probability that two events will occur together or in succession is determined by the probability laws of
|
multiplication.
|
|
When you need to know the probability of two events occurring at the same time, you determine the answer by
|
multiplying the two probabilities.
|
|
test test test
|
check check check
|
|
Which term is not a level of maintenance?
|
Base
|
|
What is considered the highest level of maintenance for more complex repairs?
|
Depot
|
|
What level of maintenance does the 2LM approach seek to modify or eliminate?
|
Intermediate.
|
|
Which category of maintenance consists of those tasks that cannot be done on the end item but are within the capability of the skills and equipment possessed by a unit?
|
off-equipment, operating command
|
|
Which category of maintenance pertains to correcting those discrepancies discovered during flight?
|
unscheduled
|
|
Which method of inspection is used when maintenance or operational requirements are such that the inspection must be performed at the equipment location?
|
in-place
|
|
Which method is a "through and searching inspection of the entire aircraft?"
|
major.
|
|
How many calendar inspections are required for aircraft no matter what inspection concept the aircraft is under?
|
Two
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Which inspection status is affected by the 30 or 90 day inspection?
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home station check
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What changes to baseline computer programs are normally announced by a TCTO?
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software-only
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Which type of item is modified using the TCTO process?
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special purpose vehicle
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What are the levels of maintenance authorized for the completion of the TCTOs?
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Depot, intermediate, and organizational
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Exceeding what time factors normally causes a TCTO to be classified as depot-level maintenance?
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8 clock - or 25 man-hours
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How many basic TCTO categories are authorized?
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3
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What are the authorized types of TCTOs?
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immediate, routine, and urgent
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In order to permit simultaneous release of two or more TCTOs requiring work in the same general area, procuring activities are authorized to withhold the release of non-safety routine action TCTOs for a maximum of?
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90 days
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What kind of TCTO is issued specifically for part or serial numbered items?
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Commodity.
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Which logistics indicator shows a unit's ability to keep equipment in a ready status?
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system reliability
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The data to calculate system capability rates is obtained from?
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debriefing.
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Who forwards an item to contract maintenance or AFMC depot if repair is not authorized at base level?
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Supply.
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Which maintenance codes are used to compute the base level capability rates?
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A,F,G,K,L,Z.
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Personnel capability is measured in terms of?
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maintenance personnel per operational unit.
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Facility capability is computed to determine?
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How many flying hours the inspection dock can support.
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Facility capability is computed to determine?
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How many flying hours the inspection dock can support.
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Weights are usually assigned when computing maintenance scheduling effectiveness rates to show?
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the degree of importance of a task
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Where can you get the information for computing maintenance scheduling effectiveness rates?
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Monthly Maintenance Plan.
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The mission capability status code that is the sum of NMCS and NMCB and reflects total NMC aircraft limitations due to supply is called?
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TNMCS
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All raw data used to compute mission capabilities comes from?
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The avs report
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What are the two most common types of chargeable deviations?
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Maintenance and supply.
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The total number of cancellations can be obtained form the?
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AUR.
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If the number of deviations increases, the flying scheduling effectiveness rate will?
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Go down
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Are operating hours not a factor for computing manhour per flying hour?
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yes
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What rate is used to measure speed of repair and of equipment maintainability?
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fix rate.
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What maintenance status code is entered in IMDS when an aircraft lands with a code 3 landing status?
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NMC
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What are the three time frames in hours used in the fix rate forumla?
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4, 8 or 12
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A more accurate description of a 20 percent break rate is 2 out of 10?
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sorties landed with a landing code 3.
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What a sortie has to make an emergency landing due to an equipment failure, what type of abort is it?
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Air.
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The total abort rate is a combination of?
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air and ground abort.
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Computation of the cannibalization rate includes number of?
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sorties flown.
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What action taken code means "removed for cannibalization"?
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T
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When determining aircraft utilization effectiveness, the minimum time period (in month/months) of data should be at lease?
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6
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Which command uses the departure reliability rate?
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AMC.
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The standard for on-time departure when used for the departure reliability rate is within?
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14 minutes of the schedules departure time.
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What factor represents a historical percentage of schedules sorties lost to unit controllable causes?
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Attrition.
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What computation rate will a maintenance scheduler use to project additional sorties in the flying schedule to meet sortie requirements?
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attrition.
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If you have 100 sorties required to fly for the month and the attrition rate is 8 percent, how many total sorties will you show on the flying schedule?
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109
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Spares are used to compensate for which unit controlled factors?
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Maintenance cancellations, supply cancellations, and ground aborts.
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In determining the spare factor, what is compared to the number of historical sorites scheduled?
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Number of 1st sortie logistics losses.
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When measuring MTTR, how is it expressed?
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Hours.
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When computing for the MTTR, what item is ignored when accouting for repair hours?
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Crew size.
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When computing for on and off equipment MTTR, the first position of the?
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WUC is not equal to zero.
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What are the two types of failure indicated by MTBF?
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inherent and induced.
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What is the maximum number of days allowed in the IMDS for MTBF calculation?
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180.
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Which mission performance indicator is used to measure the aveage time between failures of mission-essential systems?
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MTBCF.
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The MTBCF gives us the?
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average time between failure of mission essential systems.
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When computing for the MTBMA, what maintenance events are included?
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both scheduled and unscheduled.
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Which one gives us the average time for end items and is an indication of component overall performance?
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MTBMA.
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The two cornerstones of maintenance metrics are fleet availability and?
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program execution.
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Which statement is a lagging indicator under fleet availability?
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mission capable rate.
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What is the overall indicator for a flying program?
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UTE rate.
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Which fix rate time interval is reported for all aircraft other than fighters?
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twelve.
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Which mission capable rate does maintenance want to keep low by consolidating feasible CANNs to few aircraft when practical?
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TNMCS
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Concerning C-E equipment, training equipment is considered?
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inactive.
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Concerning C-E equipment what is the number of hours during which the system cannot be used for a specified purpose?
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downtime.
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In order to compute for an equipment's operational availability, you need its?
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active and downtime hours.
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What type of maintenance is excluded when calculating C-E operational dependability ?
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Unscheduled maintenance.
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Which item is excluded when computing for an equipment's operational readiness?
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scheduled maintenance.
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The C-E mean downtime is also expressed as the average time to complete?
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a maintenance action.
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Which is not an issue that effects equipment downtime?
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IMDS downtime.
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The measure of the average on-equipment corrective maintenance in an operational envirionment is the C-E mean
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repair time
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The C-E MRT starts when the technician?
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arrives at the equipment
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When computing for the C-E MTBCF, the operating hours come form the total?
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system operating time.
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What C-E mission performance indicator is a valuable indicator of equipment or system maintainability and speed of repair?
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C-E MTTRF
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C-E MTTRF measures the average elapsed time required to restore a system to full operational status after what type of event?
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critical failure.
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In determining C-E MTBSM, scheduled maintenance includes scheduled maintenance inspections, schedudled time changes, delayed discrepancies, and?
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non-immediate action TCTOs.
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Which type of event is not included when computing the C-E MTBUM?
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scheduled time changes.
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C-E utilization rate is a ratio of?
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active hours to possessed hours.
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What investigating a problem, why should you continue on even if the probelem seems to have disappeared?
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Te disappearance may only be temporary.
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Which statement is a benefit of follow-up when doing an analysis?
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provides results that generate effective management practices
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Information associated with operations of the maintenance organization is classified as?
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internal data.
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How do you determine if you should retain an office copy of a report?
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Determine if a real need exists for data.
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Which statement best describes a pulse point in a unit?
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the debriefing section
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The validity of computer-generated data depends on?
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quality of the raw data and the procedure with which it is analyzed.
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What is the most common approach to arrange maintenace data?
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chronological order.
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|
The points in a control chart represent?
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quality of performance
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|
Pie charts are effective when they represent what percentage of the item under consideration?
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100
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Who normally performs the investigative work and recommends corrective action when a submitted maintenance analysis referral indicates that a problem does exist?
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Quality assurance.
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The senior maintenance officer reviews the Maintenance Analysis Referral if?
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there is a deadlock over the proper corrective action.
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Which statement best describes a special study?
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an investigation and in-depth analysis of any subject.
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WHat kind of approach inities a special study during an equpment analysis?
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proactive.
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When you are establishing the scope of your special study, you are defingin your?
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assumptions and limitiations.
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Which medium is a formal way of presenting a special study?
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Written report.
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The IMDS users' group meets monthly to?
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keep current with IMDS issues.
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What personnel are usually required to attend IMDS meetings?
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Subsystem managers.
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