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91 Cards in this Set

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1. (401) What could be a cause of a compressor stall when there is a reduction or restriction of air at the air inlet?


a. Malfunction of the thrust reverser system.


b. Icing of the aircraft or the engine inlet.


c. Damage caused by over temperature.


d. Foreign object damage.

b. Icing of the aircraft or the engine inlet.

2. (402) Which subsystem is not included in the oil system?


a. Pressure.


b. Scavenge.


c. Indicating.


d. Monitoring.

d. Monitoring.

3. (403) On the TF33 engine, where on the intermediate compressor case is the oil tank mounted? a. Right.


b. Left.


c. Bottom.


d. Top.

a. Right.

4. (403) What type oil pump is on the TF33 engine?


a. Single section, two stage, air driven.


b. Two section, single stage, gear driven.


c. Three section, single stage, oil driven.


d. Three section, two stage, oil driven.


b. Two section, single stage, gear driven

5. (404) Which subsystem is not part of the oil indicating system?


a. Pressure.


b. Quantity.


c. Scavenge.


d. Temperature.


c. Scavenge.

6. (405) What happens if the generator frequency becomes unstable?


a. The engine will pulse.


b. Engine oil pressure will fluctuate.


c. Airflow to the compressor becomes erratic.


d. Accuracy of electronic equipment is affected.


d. Accuracy of electronic equipment is affected.

7. (406) A generator’s voltage output is roughly proportional to its


a. core speed.


b. turbine speed.


c. low fan speed.


d. revolutions per minute.


d. revolutions per minute.

8. (406) How many electrical phases does a TF33 engine driven generator produce?


a. 1.


b. 2.


c. 3.


d. 4.


c. 3.

9. (407) The generator control unit provides system protection and control, and


a. hertz monitoring.


b. frequency status.


c. voltage regulation.


d. electrical phase correction.


c. voltage regulation.

10. (408) During TF34 engine start, all fuel, up to a flow rate of how many pounds per square inch, will bypass the oil cooler?


a. 150.


b. 250.


c. 350.


d. 450.


c. 350.

11. (409) The TF34 fuel pump consists of a low and high pressure stage, relief valve, and a


a. fuel separator.


b. fuel solenoid switch.


c. over speed governor.


d. pressure regulating valve.


d. pressure regulating valve.


12. (409) How many pounds per square inch does the TF34 fuel pump boost stage increase the fuel inlet pressure?


a. 60.


b. 70.


c. 80.


d. 90.


c. 80.

13. (410) When the red warning button is popped out on the fuel filter housing it indicates


a. fuel is bypassing the filter element.


b. the fuel filter is clogged.


c. high fuel pressure.


d. low fuel pressure.


a. fuel is bypassing the filter element.

14. (411) The splined coupling engine shaft transmits a signal of the core engine speed (the high pressure compressor and high pressure turbine speeds) to what fuel system component? a. Fuel pump.


b. Fuel monitor.


c. Fuel governor.


d. Main fuel control.


d. Main fuel control.


15. (411) Where is the excess metered fuel, from the servo and fuel pump discharge fuel, bypassed back to?


a. Main fuel tank.


b. Fuel control valve. c. Fuel flow distributor valve. d. Inlet of the primary main pumping element.


d. Inlet of the primary main pumping element.

16. (412) Metered fuel is supplied to the fuel distributor through the


a. oil cooler.


b. fuel flow distributor valve.


c. quick engine change fuel flow transmitter.


d. quick engine change fuel flow transmitter and oil cooler.


d. quick engine change fuel flow transmitter and oil cooler

17. (412) On engine shutdown, as fuel pressure decreases to below 40–60 pounds per square inch, the drain valve in the fuel distributor moves to the left


a. closing the drain, forcing fuel to bypass the fuel pump.


b. opening the drain, shutting off fuel flow to the distributor.


c. forcing the fuel in the injectors and hoses back to the fuel tank.


d. allowing the combustor to force fuel through the bypass valve assembly.


b. opening the drain, shutting off fuel flow to the distributor.

18. (413) On the TF34–100A engine, injector 13 is configured differently to


a. provide clearance between the injector and fuel control.


b. ensure all fuel pressures are equal going to each injector.


c. provide ease of maintenance when replacing the injector.


d. reroute the fuel line around high temperature engine exhaust gases.


a. provide clearance between the injector and fuel control.

19. (414) Under hot fuel conditions at the combustor inlet, the altitude starting capability of the TF34–100A engine


a. is enhanced.


b. is diminished.


c. is not possible.


d. remains the same as cold fuel conditions.


b. is diminished.

20. (414) During start up, all fuel flow up to how many pounds per hour, is forced through the bypass line around the oil cooler?


a. 250.


b. 350.


c. 450.


d. 550.


b. 350.

21. (415) Which type of fuel system is used in the TF34–100A engine to prevent spontaneous combustion of residual fuel after engine shutdown?


a. Shutdown drain system.


b. Fuel flash prevention.


c. Air-fuel purge.


d. Fuel flush.


a. Shutdown drain system.

22. (416) The F108-CF–201 engine monitoring system data that is incorporated as part of the flight data recorder is used to determine


a. engine and flight data for the pilot.


b. when engine replacement is needed at the depot.


c. if engine performance is at its highest efficiency.


d. the need for maintenance before an engine failure occurs.


d. the need for maintenance before an engine failure occurs.


23. (417) Data that is recorded for each engine is downloaded and distributed via the


a. down link data system.


b. engine analysis network.


c. on-board engine data distribution computer.


d. computer card.


d. computer card.

24. (418) All of the options listed below are proper troubleshooting practices except


a. checking the applicable trouble areas.


b. understanding the function of each engine component.


c. inspecting other areas after isolating trouble between points.


d. performing easy checks, then going to more difficult checks.


c. inspecting other areas after isolating trouble between points.

25. (419) In what format do technical orders present aircraft power plant and engine intermediate maintenance troubleshooting procedures?


a. Troubleshooting charts.


b. Mechanical drawings.


c. Power plant charts.


d. Fix-it diagrams.


a. Troubleshooting charts.

26. (419) To become an expert troubleshooter, you must


a. be a 7-level.


b. have at least 5 years’ experience.


c. attend courses in troubleshooting techniques.


d. understand the function of each component within each system.


d. understand the function of each component within each system

27. (421) On an F108 engine, which manifold is the anti-ice air supplied from?


a. Pneumatic.


b. Augmentor.


c. Combustion case.


d. Compressor case.


a. Pneumatic.

28. (421) On an F–108 engine, during which engine operation can the anti-ice valve be manually locked?


a. Full thrust.


b. Reverse thrust.


c. Shutdown or idling.


d. Maintenance power setting.


c. Shutdown or idling.

29. (422) The inlet duct used on multiengine subsonic aircraft (like the C–5 or C–17) has a diameter that progressively


a. increases from the front to the back.


b. decreases from the front to the back.


c. increases from the back to the front.


d. decreases from the back to the front.


a. increases from the front to the back.

30. (422) The compressor bleed system reduces the probability of a compressor stall in a dual-rotor engine by


a. reducing the amount of air available to the high-pressure compressor.


b. reducing the amount of air available to the low-pressure compressor.


c. increasing the amount of air delivered to the high-pressure compressor.


d. increasing the amount of air delivered by the low-pressure compressor.


a. reducing the amount of air available to the high-pressure compressor.

31. (423) What stage of the compressor airflow provides the cooling air for the turbine nozzle vanes?


a. First.


b. Middle.


c. Last.


d. All.


c. Last.

32. (424) On an F108-CF–100 engine, the direction of the variable bleed valve rotation is controlled by the


a. engine.


b. fuel pump.


c. compressor.


d. fuel gear motor.


d. fuel gear motor.

33. (424) On an F108-CF–100 engine, which cable relays the variable bleed valve position to the main engine control as the valve approaches the commanded closed position?


a. Servo.


b. Feedback.


c. Linear adapter.


d. Bleed valve loop.


b. Feedback.

34. (425) One type of aerodynamic blockage thrust reverser uses a.


a closed nozzle.


b. the reverser door extension.


c. a clamshell-type restriction aft of engine.


b. Feedback.


b. Feedback.

35. (426) How many core blocker doors are on the F117-PW–100 engine?


a. 6.


b. 7.


c. 8.


d. 9.


b. 7.

36. (427) The function of the fuel pump on a F117 is to provide fuel directly to the fuel


a. filters.


b. control.


c. diffuser.


d. injectors.


b. control.

37. (428) What two components operate together to provide the thrust management system for the F117?


a. Fuel control unit and main engine control.


b. Duel electronic channels and flight controller.


c. Electronic engine control and fuel control unit.


d. Electronic engine control and main engine control.


c. Electronic engine control and fuel control unit

38. (430) A typical jet engine exhaust gas temperature indicating system contains thermocouples, thermocouple leads, an indicator, and a


a. resistor.


b. turbine inlet.


c. control valve.


d. exhaust duct.


a. resistor.

39. (431) What fuel-flow system component of a jet engine operates by using a water wheel concept? a. Indicator.


b. Generator.


c. Transmitter.


d. Remaining estimator.




c. Transmitter.

40. (432) Two units that work together to indicate the oil system is operating correctly is the oil pressure


a. relief valve and indicator.


b. transmitter and indicator.


c. relief valve and transmitter.


d. synchronous unit and indicator.


b. transmitter and indicator.

41. (432) An oil pressure transmitter contains a mechanical section and a


a. hydraulic unit.


b. electrical unit.


c. pnuedraulic unit.


d. synchronous unit.


d. synchronous unit.


42. (433) Where is the tachometer drive located that operates the high compressor rotor tachometer generator?


a. Fuel control.


b. Combustion case.


c. Engine turbine section.


d. Engine accessory section.



d. Engine accessory section.

43. (434) What switch is pushed during an operational check of the fire warning system?


a. TEST.


b. OPERATIONAL CHECK.


c. WARNING LIGHT TEST.


d. PREOPERATIONAL AND OPERATIONAL CHECK.


a. TEST.

44. (436) The test cell exhaust gas temperature (EGT) selector allows selection of


a. the EGT parameter for transit speeds.


b. accuracy check switch during adjustment.


c. the EGT indicator to be read in digital or analog. d. individual thermocouple inputs or an average of these inputs.


d. individual thermocouple inputs or an average of these inputs.

45. (436) Within how many revolutions per minute is the accuracy of the test cell low and high pressure compressor speed indicators?


a. 1.


b. 2.


c. 3.


d. 4.


b. 2.

46. (437) What type of vibration causes unnecessary engine removals and unwarranted repairs?


a. Forced.


b. Transient.


c. Unbalanced.


d. Externally excited.


d. Externally excited

47. (437) During vibration analysis, frequency is usually measured in


a. phase lags.


b. cycles per second.


c. phases per second.


d. revolutions per minute.


b. cycles per second.

48. (438) Which type of vibration transducer is made up of certain ceramic compounds and natural crystals?


a. Velocity.


b. Phase accelerometer.


c. Displacement accelerometer.


d. Piezoelectric accelerometer.


d. Piezoelectric accelerometer.

49. (439) The filter selector switch on the vibration analyzer


a. provides an exact revolutions per minute indication.


b. indicates the amplitude of the overall vibration. c. displays the frequency of the overall engine.


d. allows selection of the necessary filter to remove the natural vibration frequencies of a specific engine.


d. allows selection of the necessary filter to remove the natural vibration frequencies of a specific engine.


50. (440) What supports the fan and low-pressure turbine of a jet engine?


a. Bushings.


b. Brackets.


c. Bearings.


d. Blades.


c. Bearings.

51. (441) Written instructions for safe flight-line vehicle operations are found in


a. Air Force Occupational, Safety, and Health Standard 91–100.


b. the intermediate maintenance technical order.


c. Air Force Instruction 36–2903.


d. the flight-line job guide.


a. Air Force Occupational, Safety, and Health Standard 91–100.

52. (442) Where are the two pressure gauges connected when conducting a jet engine oil system pressure check?


a. Inlet side of the oil pump and the vent system. b. Output side of the main oil pump and the vent system.


c. Scavenge pump and the inlet side of oil pressure pump.


d. Bearing jets and the output side of the oil scavenge pump.


b. Output side of the main oil pump and the vent system.

53. (443) Which motoring check allows you to start the auxiliary power unit without advancing the jet engine throttle to idle?


a. Auxiliary.


b. Bypass.


c. Dry.


d. Wet.


c. Dry.

54. (444) Where do the primary air silencers, that are designed to reduce the high-frequency turbine whine of a jet engine, fit on an aircraft?


a. Rear exhaust area.


b. Near the bleed area.


c. On the aircraft fuselage.


d. Forward of the bleed exhaust area.


c. On the aircraft fuselage.

55. (445) What forms most of the test bay portion sidewalls of a hush house?


a. Air inlet modules.


b. Observation ports.


c. Air exhaust modules.


d. High-grade sound absorbing panels.


a. Air inlet modules.

56. (446) What hush house piece of equipment allows for positioning of the removed engine directly in front of the augmentor tube?


a. Transportation trailer.


b. Hydraulic cylinder.


c. Restraint device.


d. Thrust stand.


d. Thrust stand.


57. (446) What establishes the time intervals for visual inspections and periodic maintenance requirements for the hush house?


a. Technical orders.


b. Concrete deterioration.


c. Fire suppression system.


d. Engine tie-down assemblies.


a. Technical orders.

58. (447) What is the first step in engine testing? a. Check for any foreign object damage.


b. Make sure the engine is properly secured to the test stand.


c. Determine the type of engine maintenance performed before coming into the test facility.


d. Determine the number of engine run hours in order to schedule the required periodic maintenance.


c. Determine the type of engine maintenance performed before coming into the test facility.

59. (448) What are the two types of engine test cells currently used in the Air Force?


a. Fixed and portable.


b. Single and combined.


c. Permanent and temporary.


d. Functional and progressive.


a. Fixed and portable.

60. (449) Engines are mounted in the fixed test cell on a thrust stand or are suspended


a. by an engine harness.


b. from a cradle mount.


c. by a tail-hook adapter.


d. on the 4100 suspended trailer.


b. from a cradle mount.

61. (449) In the fixed test cell, where does the engine intake air come from?


a. Floor.


b. Walls.


c. Ceiling.


d. Front doors.


c. Ceiling.

62. (450) On the portable test cell, the swivel pads at the bottom of the leveling jacks on the engine thrust trailer provide for all of the following except


a. leveling the engine being tested.


b. removal of the wheel and tire assemblies.


c. support the thrust trailer at a high of 80 inches. d. adjustment for rail compatibility with engine transportation trailers.


c. support the thrust trailer at a high of 80 inches.

63. (450) The noise suppressor on a portable test cell is not equipped with a.


a fuel trailer.


b. an exhaust muffler.


c. two air intake mufflers.


d. a water tank semitrailer.


a fuel trailer.

64. (451) In what condition should an engine arrive at the engine test cell?


a. Only need replacement of noted minor parts. b. Operable with all known discrepancies corrected.


c. All discrepancies noted, ready for troubleshooting.


d. Fuel and oil lines disconnected ready to be connected to the auxiliary power unit.




b. Operable with all known discrepancies corrected.

65. (451) What must be quickly moved to the "OFF" position should an unsatisfactory engine start occur in the engine test cell?


a. Engine throttle.


b. Fuel control valve.


c. Air and fuel valves.


d. Test cell master switch.


a. Engine throttle.

66. (451) What can an improperly rigged throttle linkage cause during an engine test cell run?


a. Fluctuating exhaust gas temperature.


b. Fluctuating revolutions per minute.


c. Damage to the inlet guide vanes.


d. Engine overspeed.


d. Engine overspeed.

67. (452) What action should be taken when making engine model and serial number entries on the test cell engine log sheet?


a. Verify these numbers with past records.


b. Verify these numbers against the engine data plate.


c. Make these entries in pencil in case of engine change.


d. Enter these after test is complete in case of engine change.


b. Verify these numbers against the engine data plate.

68. (452) What happens to jet engine efficiency as the operational hours increase?


a. Deteriorates due to wear.


b. Stays the same due to tight tolerances and harder metal.


c. Increases due to settling and sealing of the rotors, bearings, and other parts.


d. Until 5,000 hours of operation efficiency remains the same, after that it begins to slowly decrease.


a. Deteriorates due to wear.

69. (452) When making adjustments to any of the engine systems to bring them to specification during a test cell run, adjust the device


a. up or down to the required limit.


b. down, not up to the required limit.


c. up, not down to the required limit.


d. in increments of 1 pound of pressure at a time, then retest.


c. up, not down to the required limit.

70. (452) How can the turbine outlet pressure total at station number 7 be varied during an engine test cell trim?


a. Adjusting the fuel control.


b. Rapid movement of the throttle.


c. Adjusting the exhaust nozzle area.


d. Injecting water into the engine inlet.


a. Adjusting the fuel control.

71. (452) When adjusting the fuel control during an engine test run, you can get the temperature and barometric pressure from equipment at the test cell site or from


a. a local radio station.


b. a local weather station.


c. your immediate supervisor.


d. the base air traffic control tower.


d. the base air traffic control tower.


72. (453) What item is used with the applicable technical order to inspect a test facility?


a. Test cell run procedures.


b. Unit serial number listings.


c. Periodic inspection checklists.


d. Monthly requirements listings.


c. Periodic inspection checklists.

73. (453) How often are service inspections conducted on an engine test cell?


a. Daily.


b. Hourly.


c. Weekly.


d. Monthly.


a. Daily.

74. (454) Primary job aids that outline minimum inspection requirements are called


a. sequence charts.


b. inspection checklists.


c. inspection work cards.


d. work schedule guides.


c. inspection work cards.

75. (455) Which inspection is a flight preparedness check?


a. Periodic.


b. Pre-flight.


c. Thru-flight.


d. End-of-runway.


b. Pre-flight.

76. (455) A basic post-flight inspection is completed


a. with the thru-flight inspection.


b. after the first flight of the day.


c. with the end-of-runway inspection.


d. after the last flight of the flying period.


d. after the last flight of the flying period.

77. (456) What type inspection is completed on aircraft parts that require infrequent inspections?


a. Periodic.


b. Basic post-flight.


c. Hourly post-flight.


d. Home station check.


a. Periodic.

78. (458) What inspection is completed on all newly assigned aircraft and engines?


a. Phased.


b. Special.


c. Calendar.


d. Acceptance.


d. Acceptance.

79. (458) Which inspection is conducted by maintenance personnel after an occurrence of a specific or unusual condition?


a. Special.


b. Calendar.


c. Acceptance.


d. Time replacement item.


a. Special.

80. (459) A cold compressor stall that occurs at low revolutions per minute and is accompanied by a slight over temperature is called


a. an incipient.


b. a thermal.


c. a partial.


d. a mild.


a. an incipient.

81. (459) Where is a compressor blade most likely to fail?


a. At the leading edge.


b. Near the blade root.


c. At the trailing edge.


d. Near the blade tip.


b. Near the blade root.

82. (460) Turbine rotor blade failure usually occurs near what part of the blade?


a. Platform.


b. Middle.


c. Root.


d. Tip.


b. Middle.

83. (461) What is the cause of most bearing failures?


a. Transient vibration.


b. Partial loss of lubrication.


c. Complete loss of lubrication.


d. Over temperature stall condition.



c. Complete loss of lubrication.

84. (462) The pneumatic bled air from a small gas turbine engine cannot be used to


a. inflate aircraft tires.


b. remove snow and ice from aircraft surfaces.


c. supply pneumatic power to aircraft pneumatic starters.


d. provide pneumatic power for air-conditioning systems.


a. inflate aircraft tires.

85. (463) On a gas turbine compressor power unit 165, where is the air compressed by the single-stage centrifugal compressor assembly discharged into?


a. Diffuser case.


b. Turbine plenum.


c. Load control valve.


d. Vaned deswirl assembly.


d. Vaned deswirl assembly.

86. (463) How are the impeller wheel and two turbine wheels in the turbine section of the gas turbine compressor power unit 165 engine connected?


a. Couplings on a common shaft.


b. A gear reduction gearbox.


c. Helical splines.


d. Tie bolts.


a. Couplings on a common shaft.

87. (463) What controls the turbine discharge temperature during a loaded condition on a gas turbine compressor power unit 165 engine?


a. Permanent magnet generator.


b. Fuel flow divider valve.


c. Pneumatic thermostat.


d. Governor.


c. Pneumatic thermostat.

88. (464) What component provides the shaft drives for the accessories group that is located in the forward housing of a gas turbine compressor power unit 165 engine?


a. Forward gear assembly.


b. Shaft-drive gear assembly.


c. Housing assembly set gear.


d. Accessory group drive assembly.


c. Housing assembly set gear.

89. (465) Which signals are used by the fuel control unit to control engine operation on a gas turbine compressor power unit 165 engine?


a. Engine speed and pneumatic thermostat (load control) air pressure.


b. Ambient inlet pressure and turbine exhaust pressure.


c. Engine speed and turbine inlet temperature.


d. Engine temperature and load control.


a. Engine speed and pneumatic thermostat (load control) air pressure.

90. (466) Which component shuts the engine down if the oil pressure drops below the safe minimum operating limit on a gas turbine compressor power unit 165 engine?


a. Oil/air cooler.


b. Oil pressure switch.


c. Oil filter safety switch.


d. Oil pressure regulator valve.


b. Oil pressure switch.

91. (468) Where is air for the load control system extracted from on a gas turbine compressor power unit 165 engine?


a. Torus.


b. Combustor.


c. Turbine plenum assembly.


d. Compressor deswirl vanes.


c. Turbine plenum assembly.