Reading...
Play button
Play button
Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;
Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;
H to show hint;
A reads text to speech;
124 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
|
Where Does the authority for the functions and responsibilities of information management originate?
a. Public Law only b. United States Code Only c. Public Law and Federal Statutes d. United States Code and Public Law |
d. United States Code and Public Law
|
|
|
What act provides policy to ensure public access to federal government information?
a. Privacy Act b. Federal Records Act c. Paperwork Reduction Act d. Freedom of Information Act |
d. Freedom of Information Act
|
|
|
Which of the following are ways we manage information in support of information resources management?
a. Security and privacy b. Security and Disposition c. Storage and Privacy d. Storage and Disposition |
a. Security and Privacy
|
|
|
What is the most critical piece of the information life cycle?
a. Use b. Storage c. Disposition d. Dissemination |
a. Use
|
|
|
What is the result of correlating and fusing information and assesing its meaning through the application of cognition?
a. Data b. Service c. Training d. Knowledge |
d. Knowledge
|
|
|
What term best describes preparing Airmen to successfully lead and act in the midst of rapidly evolving enviroments?
a. Stages of training b. Cognitive hierarchy c. Horizon vision document d. Goal of force development |
d. Goal of force development
|
|
|
What best describes the operation level of force development?
a. Personal b. Enduring c. Occupational d. Organization |
d. Organization
|
|
|
When may a trainee perform task unsupervised?
a. Once he or she is task certified. b. Once he or she completes 7-leve training. c. Upon completion of initial skills training. d. Upon notification of selection for promotion to SSgt. |
a Once he or she is task certified.
|
|
|
What outlines the center description and approved variances for the IM flights in peacetime?
a. Unit type codes b. Horizon vision document c. Air Force manpower standard d. Manpower force element listing |
c. Air Force manpower standard
|
|
|
Who provides functional expertise and direct customer service to help staff support information managers?
a. Trainer b. Supervisor c. Base Functional Manager d. Functional area records manager |
c. Base functional manager
|
|
|
Who are the information managers's customers?
a. Information users, both internal and external b. information users, both centralized and decentralized c. information providers, both internal and external d. Information providers, both centralized and decentralized |
a. Information users, both internal and external
|
|
|
What is the information systems flight (SCB) responsible for within the communication squadron?
a. Manages activities relating to budgeting and billing? b. Provides technical services to include telephone switching. c. Provides visual information services and publishing services d. Provides network control center operations to include the help desk |
d. Provides network control center operations to include the help desk
|
|
|
What is the Support Flight (SCS) responsible for within the communications squadron?
a. Manages activites relating to budgeting and billing b. Provides technical services to include telephone switching c. Provides visual information services and publishing services d. Provides network control center operations to include the help desk |
c. Provides visual information services and publishing services
|
|
|
What is the Plans flight(SCX) responsible for within the communications squadron?
a. Manages activites relating to budgeting and billing b. Provides technical services to include telephone switching c. Provides visual information services and publishing services d. Provides network control center operations to include the help desk |
a. Manages activities relating to budgeting and billing.
|
|
|
What function is associated with the plans and program IM core competency?
a. Collaborative tools b. Web records information mangement system c. Software/ Hardware installation and configuration d. Communication and information management awards |
d. Communication and information management awards.
|
|
|
What function is associated with the records management IM core competency?
a. Collaborative tools b. Web records information mangement system c. Software/ Hardware installation and configuration d. Communication and information management awards |
b. Web record information mangement system
|
|
|
What term best describes the ability for the Web based content creation and publishing?
a. Workflow b. Collaborative tools. c. Content Management d. Records Management |
c. Content Management
|
|
|
What term best describes a collaborative enviroment to create, manage and track form based information to automate common business processes?
a. Collaborative tools. b. records management c. knowledge management d. information management tool. |
d. information management tool.
|
|
|
What type of connection should not be used to synchronize a blackberry or palm pilot device?
a. Firewire b. Wireless c. Local area d. Universal serial bus |
b. Wireless
|
|
|
Who is the advisor for all issues affecting the information management career field?
a. Base functional Manager b. MAJCOM functional Manager c. Air Force career field manager. d. Air Force chief information officer |
c. Air Force career field manager
|
|
|
Who is the final authority to waive career field education training plan requirements?
a. AF chief information officer b. AF Career field manager c. MAJCOM functional manager d. Base Functional Manager |
b. AF Career field manager
|
|
|
Who serves as a voting representative during the utilization and training workshop?
a. Base training manager b. Highest ranking IM on the base c. MAJCOM functional manager d. COMM squadron commander |
c. MAJCOM functional manager.
|
|
|
Who identifies qualified subject matter experts to help with the development of specialty knowledge tests?
a. Chief Group b. MAJCOM functional manager c. AF career field manager d. Comm Squadron commander |
b. MAJCOM functional manager.
|
|
|
Whose responsibility is it to ensure all information managers have a current copy of the CFETP?
a. Base training manager b. Base functional manager c. MAJCOM functional manager d. AF career field manager |
b. Base functional manager
|
|
|
Who conducts quarterly IM forums to ensure IM personnel are kept abreast of career field changes?
a. Base training manager b. Base functional manager c. MAJCOM functional manager d. Air Force career field manager |
b. Base functional manager
|
|
|
What effect does an overload of 3-level personnel do to a base?
a. Effects job rotation schedules b. Underinflates actual manning percentages c. Forces a significant training burden on the base d. Produces high turnover rate for senior ranking IM personnel. |
c. Forces a significant training burden on the base.
|
|
|
Who has the responsibility of ensuring job rotation?
a. Unit Commanders b. Base Training Manager c. Base functional Manager d. Comm squadron commander |
c. Base functional manager
|
|
|
What is the normal time at which personnel are considered for job rotation?
a. 15 months b. 15 months prior to a permanent change of station c. 24 months d. 24 months prior to a permanent change of station |
c. 24 months
|
|
|
What defines the mission a unit type code is capable of accomplishing?
a. Logistics detail b. Manpower detail c. Mission capability statement d. Designed operational capability |
c. Mission capability statement
|
|
|
What part of a unit type code can be classified?
a. title b. Lagistics detail c. Mission capability statement d. Manpower and equipment detail |
c. Mission capability statement
|
|
|
What type of code covers communication and information responsibilities?
a. 3kxxx b. 6kxxx c. K3xxx d. K6xxx |
b. 6Kxxx
|
|
|
When is the AF IMT 209, Communications and Information Management After Action Report, provided to an individual?
a. Before they deploy b. During their deployment c. After they deploy d. Never |
a. Before they deploy
|
|
|
What job components make up the on-the-job training program?
a. Knowledge, proficieny and experience b. Experience, ability and understanding c. Experience, proficiency and ability d. Knowledge, proficiency and ability |
a. Knowledge, proficiency and experience
|
|
|
What skill level is completion of the career development course mandatory?
a. apprentice, journeyman and craftsman b. Apprentice and craftsman only c. Craftsman and journeyman only d. Craftsman only |
c. Craftsman and journeyman only
|
|
|
Who conducts a comprehensive review of the entire career development course with the trainee in preparation for the course examination?
a. trainer b. certifier c. Supervisor d. Unit training manager |
c. Supervisor
|
|
|
Within how many days after notification of test arrival does a unit training manager schedule the trainee for the examination?
a. 30 days b. 60 days c. It is up to the trainee when they feel they are ready to test d. It is up to the supervisor when they feel the trainee is ready to test |
a. 30 days
|
|
|
Within how many days does the unit commander conduct an interview with the supervisor and trainee after a course failure?
a. 30 days for both active duty and AF Reserve Command personnel b. 30 days for active duty and 90 days for the Air Force Reserve Command Personnel. c. 90 days for both active duty and Air Force Reserve Command personnel. d. 90 days for active duty and 30 days for the AF Reserve Command. |
b. 30 days for active duty and 90 days for Air Force Reserve Command personel.
|
|
|
What option does the commander have after a trainee's second failure of a CDC examination?
a. Evaluate for possible CDC waiver. b. Withdraw for failure and retest 90 days from date of failure. c. withdraw for failing to progress and set up supervised study. d. Evaluate for possible re-entry into the CDC. |
a.Evaluate for possible CDC waiver
|
|
|
What document identifies all day to day mission requirements, core task, and additional duties performed by workcenter personnel?
a. master task list b. Operating instruction c. job qualification standards d. job knowledge certification list. |
a. Master task list
|
|
|
What type for alternative training consist of instructors, trainers, training aids and operation equipment that formal schools send to bases or operating locations?
a. Mobile training teams b. In resident training team c. Contract mobile training teams. d. Communication and information seminars |
a. Mobile training teams
|
|
|
What is the purpose of the planning and implementation management seminar?
a. Training of 33S, 3A, 3C, 3V, and 2E SNCOs b. Provide education and awareness to communication and information managers. c. Provide just-in-time training on the base level planning and implementation flight. d. Train information managers on their warfighting capabilities prior to a deployment |
c. Provide just in time training on the base level planning and implementation flight.
|
|
|
How many parts are in a career field education and training plan?
a. 2 b. 3 c. 5 d. 7 |
a. 2
|
|
|
What does a certifier use to identify all duty position requirements, including those core tasks asociated with the current duty positions?
a. Master training list b. Specialty training standard c. Air Force job qualification standard d. job qualification standard continuation sheet. |
a. master training list
|
|
|
Who ensures tests are valid and relevant by using ratings of testing importance, knowledge of job structure, and performance by pay grade groups of specific tasks?
a. Supervisors b. Psychologist c. Career field manager d. Utilization and training workshop group |
b. Psychologist
|
|
|
What do people involved in training decisions use as part of instructional systems development?
a. Workshops b. Master training list c. Occupational analysis d. job qualification standard |
c. Occupational analysis
|
|
|
How many people can make up a team that is awarded the General Edwin W. Rawlings Award?
a. 2 to 25 b. 2 to 50 c. 300 or less d. 301 or more |
a. 2 to 25
|
|
|
Which award in the Air force Communications and Information Annual Awards Program is named for the first commander of the Air Force Communications Service
a. General Edwin W. Rawlings Award b. Lieutenant General Harold W. Grant Award c. Major General Harold M. Mcclelland Award d. General Billy Mitchell Award for Communications and Information Excellence |
b. Lieutenant General Harold W. Grant Award
|
|
|
How many days must an individual have performed in the AFSC for nomination as the Air Force Information Management Outstanding Airman Award?
a. 90 b. More than 180 c. 60 if deployed d. 120 if deployed |
b. more than 180
|
|
|
What AFSC is qualified for nomination of the AF Information Management Outstanding NCO award?
a. 3VXXX and 3CXXX b. 3VXXX only c. 3AXXX and 3CXXX d. 3AXXX only |
d. 3AXXX only
|
|
|
What is recognized during the quarterly awards program?
a. Squadrons, teams and individuals b. Squadrons and teams only c. Individuals and teams only d. Individuals only |
c. Individuals and teams only
|
|
|
What are the types of selection process for quarterly awards program?
a. Written packages and boards b. Written packages only c. name recognition and boards d. Name recognition only |
a. Written packages and boards.
|
|
|
What are the overarching elements of operationalizing the network?
a. Readiness and operational reporting b. Readiness only c. Training and operational reporting d. Training only |
a. Readiness and operational reporting
|
|
|
What does a major command(MAJCOM) network operations and security center provide commanders?
a. E-mail monitoring for squadron personnel b. Real-time operational network intrusion detection c. Password hacking abilities for deployed personnel d. Real-time streaming video presentation capabilities |
b. Real-time operational network intrusion detection
|
|
|
Who provides technical assistance to assigned network control centers?
a. Network control center b. Global information grid c. Global combat support systems d. Network operations and security center |
d. Network operations and security center
|
|
|
Which task is the network control center responsible for?
a. Manage electronic mail global address b. provide around the clock situation awareness and direction c. Install and configure a network interface card on a new computer d. Provide a core set of office automation application support services |
d. Provide a core set of office automation application support services
|
|
|
Who is the lead command for the combat information transfer system?
a. Air Combat command b. Chief, Information Officer c. Air Force Communications Agency d. Network Operations and security center |
c. Air Force Communications Agency
|
|
|
What does the combat information transfer system management office develop and maintain?
a. Voice switching system and telecommunications management system b. Voice switching system and the network operations and security center c. Global information grid and telecommunications management system d. Global information grid and the network operations and security center |
a. Voice switching system and telcommunications management system
|
|
|
Which system helps joint force commanders synchronize the actions of air,land,sea,space, and special operations forces.
a. Global Combat Support Systems (GCSS) b. Combat Information Transport System (CITS) c. Global Command and Control Systems (GCCS) d. Joint Operational Planning and Execution System (JOPES) |
c. Global Command and Control Systems (GCCS)
|
|
|
What common enviroments are at the center of the global combat support systems?
a. Operating and data b. Operating and logistics c. Deployed and logistics d. Deployed and operating |
a. Operating and data
|
|
|
What architecture view describes tasks and activities, operational elements, and information flow required to accomplish or support a military operation?
a. Operational b. Technical c. Systems d. Control |
a. operational
|
|
|
What architecure view is a description, including graphics, of systems and interconnections supporting warfighting functions?
a. Operational b. Technical c. Systems d. Control |
c. Systems
|
|
|
What is the organizing and transforming construction for managing information technology throughout the Dept. of Defense (DoD)?
a. Global information grid b. Joint system architecture c. Joint technical architecture d. Global combat support system |
a. Global information grid
|
|
|
What is the objective of the network operations standardization and evaluation program?
a. Inspire standardization for network center security issue with new wireless connections b. Provide all network users with evaluations to ensure proper management of the network c. Create a working enviroment that inspires trust, teamwork, and a quest for improvements d. Conduct comprehensive readiness inspections for network while under combat conditions |
c. Create a working enviroment that inspires trust,teamwork, and a quest for improvements
|
|
|
To which of the following does the standardization and evaluation program apply?
a. Work center personnel assigned to a functional systems administrator b. Client Support adminsitrator not assigned to the communication squadron c. Work center and all personnel assigned to the base network control center d. CSA for an organization with over 300 computers |
c. Work center and all personnel assigned to the base network control center
|
|
|
Which program ensures the authenticity of telecommunications?
a. Pyhsical Security b. Emission Security c. Computer Security d. Communications Security |
d. Communications Security
|
|
|
What must you consider to achieve a balance between operational expedience and communication security (COMSEC)?
a. Classificaiton of the information and the rank of the person receiving the information b. Type of hostile area and rank of the person recieving the information. c. Classification of information and speed of service required d. Type of hostile area and speed of service required |
c. Classification of information and speed of service required
|
|
|
When must commanders and decision-makers apply operations security?
a. As a follow up procedure b. Earliest stages of planning c. Right before implementation d. when directed by Air Force instrucitons |
b. Earliest stages of planning
|
|
|
What security program is considered the first line of defense against unauthorized access to information?
a. Physical b. Emission c. Computer d. communications |
a. Physical
|
|
|
What type of vulnerability results from incorrect or inadequate computer security safeguards and controls to a network?
a. Physical b. Technical c. Administrative d. malicious logic |
c. Administrative
|
|
|
What is the maximum time period in which you must scan a computer system for viruses?
a. 3 Work days b. 3 calender days c. 7 work days d. 7 calender days |
d. 7 calender days
|
|
|
What security program is designed to deny unauthorized persons information from interception and analysis from telecommunications systems?
a. Physical b. Emission c. Computer d. Communications |
b. Emission
|
|
|
With what does the information assurance (IA) awareness program interegate to achieve information superiority?
a. Emission security only b. Emission and computer security only c. Communication and computer security only d. Computer, communication, and emission security |
d. Computer, communication and emission security
|
|
|
Who develops an implementation plan with the concurrence of the requester?
a. Network Control Center b. Base functional manager c. Global command and control systems officer d. Communications and information systems officer |
d. Communications and information systems officer
|
|
|
How often are systems reaccredited?
a. each year b. every 2 years c. every 3 years d. every 4 years |
c. every 3 years
|
|
|
What type of accreditation is used to accredit functional systems and applications that are either not deployed to other locations or are stand alone systems?
a. Site b. Type c. System d. Component |
c. System
|
|
|
What type of accreditation is used to accredit functional systems and applications that are deployed to multiple locations?
a. Site b. Type c. System d. Component |
a. Site
|
|
|
Who establishes policies and procedures for management and support of the organizations computer resources?
a. Commander b. Equipment Custodian c. Equipment control officer d. Client Support Administrator |
a. Commander
|
|
|
Who provides guidance and training for the equipment custodians?
a. Unit training manager b. Equipment control officer c. Client Support administrator d. Communications and information system officer |
b. Equipment control officer
|
|
|
Who does the client support administrator take direction from?
a. Commander only b. Functional system administrator only c. Commander and network control center d. Funtional System administrator and network control center |
d. Functional System administrator and network control center
|
|
|
What does a standard licensing criterion ensure?
a. Users are all proficient in computer maintanance b. Computer systems are all operating with identical software configuration c. Personnel accesing the network are knowledgeable of their roles and responsibilities d. Infrastructure is secured by standardization of antivirus software and password authentication |
c. Personnel accessing the network are knowledgeable of their roles and responsibilities
|
|
|
Which of the following is not a duty of the client support administrator?
a. Perform initial system diagnostics b. Review the organization's need for computer resources c. Maintain a list of users and passwords for security purposes d. Identify organization deficiencies and operational needs that computer use can solve |
c. Maintain a list of users and their passwords for security purposes.
|
|
|
What type of memory is permanent and used by the computer for important data?
a. Cache b. Virtual c. Read only d. Random access |
c. Read only
|
|
|
In what types of local area networks are resource and security management fully centrallized?
a. Client/Server b. Peer to peer c. IBM Token Ring d. Fiber Distributed Data Interface |
a. Client/server
|
|
|
What type of address is the physical address of a network?
a. Static b. Dynamic c. Internet Protocol d. Media access control |
b. Dynamic
|
|
|
What is a set of related programs located at a server that protects the resources of a private network from users from other networks?
a. Proxy b. Firewall c. Gateway d. Network Packet |
b. Firewall
|
|
|
What is the basic communication language of the internet?
a. File tranfer protocol b. Windows Internet naming service. c. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol d. Transmission control protocol/Internet protocol |
c. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol
|
|
|
What type of operating system is designed primarily to support workstations connection?
a. Server b. Internet c. Network d. Windows |
c. Network
|
|
|
Why is a directory service one of the most important components of an extended computer system?
a. Enables Multi Point management of all users b. Provides standard-based access to limited general features c. It provides a single, consistent point of management for users d. It strengthens security by providing multi sign on procedures for internal desktop users |
d. It strengthens security by providing multi sign on procedures for internal desktop users
|
|
|
What provides a single point of management for Windows-based user account, clients, servers, and applications?
a. Windows XP b. Active Directory c. Windows Naming Service d. Network Infrastructure service |
d. Network Infrastructure Service
|
|
|
What computer account is available for users?
a. Guest b. Backup c. Limited d. Administrator |
a. Guest
|
|
|
What computer group can modify and delete only the accounts they create?
a. Guest b. Backup c. Replicator d. Power Users |
c. Replicator
|
|
|
What is a cluster?
a. Segments of memory storage b. A group of related file names c. Basic unit of logical storage on a hard disk d. A collected set of applications stored on a computer |
a. Segments of memory storage
|
|
|
Which is not a notable feature of NT file system?
a. Support for long file names b. Intergrated file de-compression c. Access control list for control of file access d. Data security for both removable and fixed |
c. Access control list for control of file access
|
|
|
What is a special subprogram that knows the command language for a specific printer?
a. spooling b. print buffer c. print driver d. peripheral operations |
c. print driver
|
|
|
What group has only the print permission?
a. Everyone b. Power users c. Print operators d. Server operators |
d. server operators
|
|
|
What is a set of computer program, procedures, and associated documentation concerned with the operation of a data processing system?
a. License b. Software c. Copyright d. Shareware |
b. Software
|
|
|
What is used if a software license is server hosted or for concurrent users?
a. Metering mechanism b. License for each user c. Stand alone computer system d. Nothing, it can't be install on a government computer |
d. Nothing, it can't be install on a government computer
|
|
|
Normally, we consider upgrades from an original software source as?
a. excess b. a new license c. a continuation of the original license d. additional copies of the original license |
a. excess
|
|
|
How does automated security incident measurement software enhance network security?
a. By logging, analyzing, and identifying all network traffic b. By logging, analyzing, and identifying suspicious network traffic c. By preventing unauthorized users from attempting to enter a base network d.By preventing unauthorized users from actually entering a base network |
b. By logging, analyzing, and identifying suspicious network traffic
|
|
|
What is the primary way in which a web browser communicates with a web server?
a. Domain Name Service b. Hyper-text transfer protocol c. Hyper-text markup language d. Internet message access protocol |
b. Hyper-text transfer protocol
|
|
|
In what file format are web pages usually displayed?
a. Domain name service b. Hyper-text transfer protocol c. Hyper-text markup language d. Internet message access protocol |
c. Hyper-text markup language
|
|
|
What file is usually required to install an application?
a. Setup.exe b. Setup.jpg c. Mount.exe d. Mount.jpg |
a. Setup.exe
|
|
|
How many volts of static electricity does it take to destroy a computer chip?
a. less than 50 b. 100 c. 150 d. More than 200 |
d. more than 200
|
|
|
How does an emergency repair disk help with corrupt startup files?
a. Will fix the systems to the last logon b. Nothing, startup files cannot be changed c. Will get the system back into a bootable state d. Nothing, startup files are unique and cannot be repaired |
c. Will get the system back into a bootable state
|
|
|
What files does the emergency repair disk contain that initialize the MS-DOS?
a. Setup.log and autoexec.nt b. Setup.log and setup.exe c. Config.nt and autoexec.nt d. Config.nt and setup.exe |
c. Config.nt and autoexec.nt
|
|
|
What is a two part system of recovery for Windows XP?
a. Incremental backup b. Emergency repair disk c. System installation program d. Automated system recovery |
d. Automated System Recovery
|
|
|
What type of backup always requires two tapes to restore your data?
a. Full b. Indifferent c. Differential d. incremental |
c. Differential
|
|
|
Who usually sets the leased obtain and lease expire dates for an Internet Protocol (IP) address?
a. Users b. Equipment Custodian c. Network Control Center d. Client support administrator |
c. Network Control Center
|
|
|
What does pinging the Internet Protocol address 127.0.0.1 accomplish?
a. Will contact the base gateway to see if information can leave the network b. System default address showing the network interface card is not connected to a hub c. Performs a software loopback on the network interface card to see if it can send and recieve d. Resets the system Internet protocol configuration to match the dynamic host configuration protocol. |
c. Performs a sofware loopback on the network interface card to see if it can send and recieve.
|
|
|
What act did Congress amend to require federal agencies to make electronic and information technology accessible to people with disabilities?
a. Privacy b. Rehabilitation c. Paper Reduction d. Information documention |
b. Rehabilitation
|
|
|
What information is require for all top level private Web pages?
a. Commander's organization, commercial and DSN phone number, and E-mail b. Information providers organization, commercial and DSN phone number, and Email c. Web page maintainers organization, commercial and DSN phone number, and Email d. Emergency contact information to include commercial, DSN, home telephone numbers |
c. Web page maintainer's organization, commercial and DSN phone number, and Email
|
|
|
Who oversees the unit Web page development, maintanence, and establishes security and access control requirements?
a. Web master b. Web page maintainer c. Information provider d. Client support adminsitrator |
b. Web page maintainer
|
|
|
What were the original search services on the Web?
a. Directories and explorers b. Directories and engines c. Internet and explorers d. Internet and directories |
b. Directories and engines
|
|
|
What are search directories?
a. Spreadsheets b. Operating System c. Hierarchical databases d. An extension of Windows explorer |
c. Hierarchical databases
|
|
|
What are self service applications?
a. Automatically updates your existing programs b. Run in the background while you are working on another program c. allow users to obtain security updates and install them at scheduled intervals d. allow users to obtain or update information previously processed by a third party |
d. allow users to obtain or update information previously processed by a third party
|
|
|
What technologies does the Air Force Portal use to deliver the right information to the right people?
a. Edit/Save b. Push/Pull c. Click/Drag d. Copy/Paste |
b. Push/Pull
|
|
|
At what level should content managers be assigned under the established tired management concept?
a. Major command and wing b. Major command and Air Force c. Unit and Wing d. Unit and Air force |
b. Major command and Air Force
|
|
|
Who is responisble for assisting in the preparation of handbooks, developer guides, templates, and content checklist describing neccessary information?
a. Content provider b. Content manager c. Information provider d. Web page maintainer |
b. Content manager
|
|
|
What type of protocol handles outgoing E-mail?
a. Post Officer b. Internet mail access c. Simple mail transfer d. Dynamic host configuration |
c. Simple mail transfer
|
|
|
What type of folder is not created in Microsoft exchange server?
a. Address b. recieve c. Personal d. Sendmail |
c. Personal
|
|
|
In what type of folder is a distribution list stored?
a. Outbox b. Contact c. Personal d. Calender |
b. Contact
|
|
|
Where are public folders usually located?
a. Inbox b. Gateway server c. Exchange server d. Personal Computer |
c. Exchange server
|
|
|
What type of folder is used to store items created offline that you want to send the next time you are online?
a. Drafts b. Storage c. Outbox d. Sendmail |
c. Outbox
|
|
|
What is the default aging period for the deleted items with autoarchive turned on?
a. 1 month b. 2 months c. 3 months d. 4 months |
b. 2 months
|
