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178 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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In order to participate in Joint Warfare, we need to learn to work together. Working together constitutes what concept?
a. Team. b. Self. c. Adult. d. Child. |
a. Team
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Competent joint war fighters must be skilled in thinking about all of the following EXCEPT.
a. Strategically and optimizing joint capabilities. b. Applying strategic and operational art. c. Conducting the necessary training. d. Having a joint perspective. |
c. Conducting the necessary training.
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Values that have special impact on the conduct of joint operations include the following EXCEPT.
a. Integrity. b. competency. c. physical courage. d. excellence in all we do. |
d. excellence in all we do.
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The following make up unified action in the military EXCEPT.
a. synchronization. b. familiarization. c. coordination. d. integration of the governmental activities. |
b. familiarization.
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The commanders of the geographic commands are each assigned a geographic.
a. assistant commander. b. deputy commander. c. temporary duty location. d. area of responsibility. |
d. area of responsibility.
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All of the following is a functional command EXCEPT.
a. United States Personnel Command (USPERCOM). b. United States Transportation Command (USTRANSCOM). c. United States Strategic Command (USSTRATCOM). d. United States Joint Forces Command (USJFCOM). |
a. United States Personnel Command (USPERCOM).
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All of the following are the main components of the Base-Level Service Delivery Model (BLSDM) EXCEPT.
a. an additional 10-20 personnel authorizations to build an entire new commander's support staff (CSS). b. organizational structure composed of Military Personnel Flight and CSS assets. c. personnel assets that provide efficient base-level service through a learning organization. d. information technology solution provided to commanders to support their personnel needs. |
a. an additional 10-20 personnel authorization to build an entire new commander's support staff (CSS).
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In April 2006, Personnel Services Delivery (PSD) was rolled out. Within this plan, what group of personnelists absorbed some of the work formerly done in the military personnel flight (MPF)?
a. Comptroller's squadron members. b. Commander's support staff. c. Commander's secretary. d. Squadron members. |
b. Commander's support staff.
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The transformation of the squadron structure began with a test of different mission support squadron configurations. This transformation resulted in a new squadron called the?
a. military support squadron (MSS). b. manpower and personnel squadron (MPS). c. force support squadron (FSS). d. manpower, personnel, and services squadron (MPSS). |
c. force support squadron (FSS).
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The force support squadron (FSS) has how many flights?
a. Two. b. Three. c. Four. d. Five. |
d. Five
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In the past, the commander's support staff (CSS) gave squadron commanders more direct and convenient personnel support. With the implementation of program budget decision (PBD) 720, how did this affect the structure of the CSS?
a. The CSS was consolidated into a single organization. b. The CSS was divided into two parts, with half of the authorizations being reassigned to the military personnel flight (MPF). c. The CSS was divided into two parts, with half of the authorizations being reassigned to the military personnel section (MPS). d. The CSS disbanded. |
a. The CSS was consolidated into a single organization.
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Before the Total Force Service Center (TFSC), the personnelist that was asked a question he or she could NOT answer, contacted the?
a. squadron commander. b. group commander. c. wing commander. d. major command (MAJCOM). |
d. major command (MAJCOM).
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If you are in the rank of E-6 or below and have a question that Total Force Service Center (TFSC) personnel CANNOT answer?
a. a trouble ticket is placed with your name and your question. b. the person will take a message and call you back within 1 hour. c. the person will take a message and call you back within 48 hours. d. the person will locate a subject matter expert (SME) to answer your question. |
a. a trouble ticket is placed with your name and your question.
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If you are in the rank of E-7 or above and have a question that Total Force Service Center (TFSC) personnel CANNOT answer?
a. a trouble ticket is placed with your name and your question. b. the person will locate a subject matter expert (SME) to answer your question. c. the person will take a message and call you back within one hour. d. the person will take a message and call you back within 48 hours. |
b. the person will locate a subject matter expert (SME) to answer your question.
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Personnelists take care of personnel actions related to all of the following groups of people EXCEPT?
a. United States Air Force (USAF) active duty members. b. USAF retirees. c. Navy, marines, and Coast Guard members. d. USAF dependents. |
c. Navy, Marines, and Coast Guard members.
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What section or element is the focal point for the translation of all military personnel policies and programs into individual actions affecting people?
a. Customer support element. b. force management operations element. c. Career development element. d. military personnel section (MPS). |
d. military personnel section (MPS).
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The difference between the new concept of the military personnel section (MPS) and the old concept of the military personnel flight (MPF) is, rather than assign specific individuals to specific tasks.
a. each personnelist is responsible for learning manpower, personnel, and services tasks. b. each personnelist is responsible for learning all tasks in their area. c. the base wing raining manager will assist the personnelist. d. manning assistance will be requested from an outside source to assist the personnelist. |
b. each personnelist is responsible for learning all tasks in their area.
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All of the following are examples of personnel actions that are required to be completed by commander-appointed individuals EXCEPT?
a. Enlisted Performance Reports (EPR). b. Officer Performance Reports (OPR). c. leave program. d. decoration processing. |
d. decoration processing.
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How many personnel activities are there?
a. Two. b. Four. c. Six. d. Eight. |
a. Two.
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Which office is responsible for the personnel activities?
a. wing commander section. b. military personnel section (MPS). c. force management operations element. d. Customer support element. |
b. military personnel section (MPS).
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who determines which military personnel responsibilities are performed by the satellite personnel activity?
a. Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center commander (HQ AFPC/CC). b. Major command commander (A1/CC). c. Number Air Force commander (NAF/CC). d. Force support management (FSM) commander. |
d. Force support management (FSM) commander.
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An Air Force specialty code (AFSC) is a?
a. grouping of positions requiring similar skills and qualifications. b. grouping of people with precise skills and qualifications. c. listing of college courses needed to qualify for a position. d. listing of experience needed to qualify for position. |
a. grouping of positions requiring similar skills and qualifications.
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The list of duties and responsibilities for any enlisted Air Force specialty code (AFSC) can be found in the?
a. Air Force Enlisted Specialty Code Directory. b. Air Force Officer Specialty Code Directory. c. Enlisted Force Structure Directory. d. Recruiter's Directory. |
a. Air force Enlisted specialty Code Directory.
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Specific duties of the personnelist include the following EXCEPT?
a. conducts interview to determine individual interests. b. advises officers and airmen on military personnel issues and programs. c. creates, maintains and audits personnel records. d. performs personnel actions. |
a. conducts interview to determine individual interests.
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Responsibilities of the personnelist include the following EXCEPT?
a. record information in unit, field, and Personnel Data System (PDS) records. b. update computerized personnel data. c. administer casualty program. d. over see personnel activities and functions. |
d. oversee personnel activities and functions.
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Personnel requiring access to secure rooms containing classified information can enter?
a. with only a letter from his or her commander. b. without an escort as long as he or she shows identification. c. with only a secret security clearance even if the information needed is marked top secret. d. with the appropriate security clearance and a need to know for the classified information. |
d. with the appropriate security clearance and a need to know for the classified information.
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US documents that contain foreign government information is marked on the?
a. front cover only. b. front cover and back cover. c. front cover or the first page. d. middle of the front cover. |
c. front cover or the first page.
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The first marking in the subject line of an E-mail will be the overall classification of the E-mail using these symbols EXCEPT?
a. (S) for secret. b. (C) for confidential. c. (U) for unclassified. d. (TS) for top secret. |
d. (TS) for top secret.
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Why is it important to consider your environment when hand carrying sensitive material?
a. The material may not be important enough to hand carry. b. The material may get confiscated. c. The foreign government may want to take it from you. d. You will bring attention to yourself. |
b. The material may get confiscated.
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When couriers are transporting laptops and disks on an airplane, they must?
a. travel with another authorized courier. b. inform the flight attendant of what they are carrying. c. communicate to the passengers what they are carrying. d. keep laptops and disks under constant surveillance or in secure facilities. |
d. keep laptops and disks under constant surveillance or in secure facilities.
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When transporting laptops and disks, couriers must do all of the following EXCEPT?
a. Password protect laptops. b. Mark laptops and disks according to DOD 5200.1-R Information Security Program. c. Keep laptops and disks containing classified information under constant surveillance. d. Completely erase laptops and disks before transporting. |
d. Completely erase laptops and disks before transporting.
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As a personnelist, your main job is to?
a. supervise. b. process decorations. c. complete leave inputs. d. provide service to customers. |
d. provide service to customers.
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If you frown when a customer walks into your office, non-verbally you are giving the impression you are?
a. not happy to see them. b. happy to see them. c. excited abut your job. d. happy to meet someone new. |
a. not happy to see them.
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You must get written consent before you release any of this information EXCEPT?
a. marital status. b. number, name, and sex of dependents. c. Air Force specialty code (AFSC). d. civilian education degrees. |
c. Air Force specialty code (AFSC).
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You do not have to get written consent to release this information EXCEPT for?
a. race/ethnic origin. b. name. c. rank. d. grade. |
a. race/ethnic origin.
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What agency is responsible for providing the enlisted part of the Field Record Group (FRGp)?
a. The first military personnel section (MPS) servicing the person. b. The second military personnel section (MPS) servicing the person. c. The commander's secretary at the first squadron. d. Personnel designated by the commander for in-processing. |
a. The first military personnel section (MPS) servicing the person.
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The second part of the Field Record Group (FRGp) contains the health record and the?
a. outpatient and dental records. b. inpatient and outpatient records. c. pharmacy, outpatient, and dental records. d. Physical health assessment results, outpatient records, and dental records. |
a. outpatient and dental records.
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What does the third part of the Field Record Group (FRGp) include?
a. The bio-environmental gas mask results. b. The personal clothing and equipment record. c. The squadron mobility folder. d. The Personal Information File. |
b. The personal clothing and equipment record.
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Custodians are required to make the Officer Command Selection Record Group (OCSRGp) for most line of the Air Force (LAF) officers in the grade of captain after how many years of active commissioned service?
a. Three. b. Five. c. Seven. d. Nine. |
c. Seven.
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In order for joint doctrine to promote a perspective that is used to plan, train, and conduct military operations, it represents what is?
a. believed what is wrong or incorect (that is, what is not working properly). b. taught, believed, and advocated as what is right (that is, what works best). c. thought of as joint military operations. d. thought of as US military war blueprints. |
b. taught, believed, and advocated as what is right (that is, what works best).
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What process guides the combatant commanders (CCDR) in developing plans for the possible employment of the military instrument of national power to meet contingencies and respond to unforeseen crises?
a. Mobilization planning. b. Deployment planning. c. Joint operation planning. d. Employment planning. |
c. Joint operation planning.
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The provision of logistics and personnel services required to maintain and prolong operations until successful mission accomplishment describes?
a. joint operation planning. b. operations planning. c. redeployment planning. d. sustainment planning. |
d. sustainment planning.
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Total force accountability is defined as the accurate accounting for all Air Force at all times.
a. and their dependents. b. regardless of location. c. even if they have an approved retirement date on file. d. even if they have not deployed within the last year. |
b. regardless of location.
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Total force accountability can be expanded by the theater commander or the supported command to include all of the following EXCEPT?
a. DOD emergency civilians. b. DOD essential contractor personnel. c. dependents. d. allied forces. |
c. dependents.
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PERSCO maintains accountablility over all personnel on the ground, including transients, at their deployed and designated geographically separated location, regardless of status, according to component command policies describes which element of total force accountability?
a. Total force. b. Unit. c. Replacemnt. d. Strength. |
d. Strength.
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The guard is a unique institution with both?
a. state and county missions. b. federal and state missions. c. federal and overseas mission. d. USAF, Marine, and Coast Guard missioins. |
b. federal and state missions.
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The air and space expeditionary force's (AEF) primary purpose is.
a. to provide predictability to Airmen. b. to provide stability Airmen. c. warfighter support. d. to disseminate Airmen across the tempo bands fairly. |
c. warfighter support.
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Airmen are assigned to unit manpower document (UMD) authorizations that are postured in unit type codes. These unit type codes are aligned in.
a. the unit manning personnel roster (UPMR). b. Military Personnel Data System (MilPDS). c. the member's unit mobility folder. d. one of the air and space expeditionary force (AEF) or Enabler libraries. |
d. one of the air and space expeditionary force (AEF) or Enabler libraries.
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The Air Force presents its force capabilities to satisfy commander requirements through which concept?
a. Air and space expeditionary force (AEF). b. Operations plan (OPLAN). c. Unit type code (UTC). d. Global warfare. |
a. Air and space expeditionary force (AEF).
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Global Force management (GFM) is a proces to align?
a. tempo bands "A", "B", "E", and "N". b. and group all of the adversaries vulnerabilities. c. force apportionment, assignment, and allocation methodologies in support of the defense strategy and in support of joint force availability requirments. d. AEF cycle with the Enabler library. |
c. force apportionment, assignment, and allocation methodologies in support of the defense strategy and in support of joint force availability requirements.
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Air Force manpower and logistics requirements documented in JOPES/DCAPES time-phased force deployment data are used in support of all the following EXCEPT?
a. operations plan (OPLAN). b. concept of operations (CONPLAN). c. operations order (OPORD). d. schedule of events (SOE). |
d. schedule of events (SOE).
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A unit type code (UTC) is considered complete once?
a. it is registered in the TUCHA without MFE and/or equipment detail. b. it is registered in the TUCHA with all MFE and/or equipment detail c. it is registered in the UTC Availability. d. all of the agencies have coordinated on the UTC. |
b. it is registered in the TUCHA with all MFE and/or equipment detail.
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Standard unit type codes (UTC) are used in JOPES/DCAPES to identify manpower and logistic requirements for all of the following EXCEPT?
a. deployment. b. movement planning. c. sustainment actions. d. plan execution. |
c. sustainment actions.
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Which unit type code (UTC) attribute is a code identifying the deployment status of a UTC?
a. Unit level b. Total short tons. c. Passengers. d. Deployment indicator. |
d. Deployment indicator.
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Personnel unit type codes (UTC) are generally built to accomodate how many days of sustained capability before having to be resupplied or augmented with new supplies or personnel?
a. 15 b. 30 c. 45 d. 60 |
b. 30
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Which of these agencies can initiate unit type code (UTC) development EXCEPT?
a. Headquarters Air Force (HAF) funtional area manager (FAM). b. Major command (MAJCOM). c. Air national Guard (ANG). d. Base Level Military Personnel Section (MPS). |
d. Base Level Military Personnel Section (MPS).
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When a unit type code (UTC) is no longer needed, who can request the UTC be cancelled?
a. MEFPAK responsible agency (MRA). b. Major command (MAJCOM). c. Wing Plans (XP). d. Personnel readiness function (PRF). |
a. MEFPAK responsible agency (MRA).
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Unit type codes (UTC) that are cancelled remain in the MEFPAK and TUCHA for how many years?
a. One. b. Two. c. Three. d. Four. |
a. One.
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All Air Force personnel contribute to the air expeditionary force (AEF); therefore, all authorizations must be postured in the?
a. base level manpower personnel (MANPER-B) module. b. unit type code (UTC) availability. c. unit manning document (UMD). d. unit personnel manning roster (UPMR). |
b. unit type code (UTC) availability.
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Specific unit type codes (UTC) to posture is based on the Air Staff FAM prioritization and sequencing instructions that can be found in or on the?
a. AFCSM 36-699, Military Personnel Data System. b. AFI 10-401, Air Force Operations Planning and Execution. c. AEFC AEF Online Web site. d. HQ AFPC readiness Web site. |
c. AEFC AEF Online Web site.
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A-UTCs are postured in the UTC availability and aligned to the?
a. air expeditionary force (AEF) libraries. b. tempo bands. c. needs of the combatant commander. d. needs of the Chief of Staff (CSAF). |
a. air expeditionary force (AEF) libraries.
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The purpose of mobilization planning is the means by which?
a. orgainizations charged with mobilization responsibilities work with other countries to work out the differences. b. orgainizations charged with mobilization responsibilities define policies and document procedures to accomplish tasks. c. orgainizations work with other organizations to improve their war-planning procedures. d. governmental agencies determine whether they required help from the ARC. |
b. organizations charged with mobilization responsibilities define policies and document prodecures to accomplish tasks.
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Normally, Push-Pull will not be recommended unless all of the following factors are present EXCEPT?
a. large deployments of Air Force forces are required accompanies by expected personnel shortages. b. shortages can be predicted in terms of AFSC, quantity, and timing. c. major contingencies involve large deployments. d. Pretrained individual manpower (PIM) resources represent the best source of personnel to satisfy the projected shortages. |
c. major contingencies involve large deployments.
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Once the separation, personnel data system (PDS) action flows from base to Headquarters Air Force (HAF); the HAF records status changes from 10 to?
a. 17. b. 18. c. 19. d. 20. |
d. 20
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When will the flow of data from the active file to the ANG/USAFR file occur?
a. 120 days before the separation projection. b. at the time of the initial separation projection. c. 120 days after the separation projection. d. on the separation date plus one day. |
b. at the time of the initial separation projection.
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In order to demobilize a member, demobilization orders are not required. The personnelist needs what two documents to verify the deactivation?
a. copy of contingency TDY orders and copy of the paid travel voucher. b. DD Form 214 and a copy of the contingency TDY orders. c. DD Form 214 and the paid travel voucer. d. copy of activation orders and DD Form 214. |
c. DD Form 214 and the paid travel voucer.
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Individuals may request retention on active duty because of all of the following EXCEPT?
a. educational hardship. b. personal hardship. c. financial hardship. d. medical hardship. |
a. educational hardship.
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Once the wing/installation commander completes the installation deployment officer (IDO) and alternate IDO appointment letter, all of these recieve a copy EXCEPT?
a. command post. b. security forces. c. respective MAJCOM/A4. d. battle staff/crisis action team (BS/CAT). |
b. security forces.
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Who determines the frequency and scope of exercises based on what is necessary to ensure the deployment process runs efficiently and that all units, including Associate units, are prepared to deploy?
a. Unit deployment manageer. b. Installation deployment officer. c. Wing/installation commander. d. Unit commander. |
c. Wing/installation commander.
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At a minimum, each wing/installation must conduct at least one deployment exercise per 20-month AEF cycle that tasks what percent of personnel and equipment of all P-coded UTCs identified in the UTC Availability?
a. 10. b. 15. c. 20. d. 25. |
d. 25
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The wing/installation commander ensures procedures are established to notify Airmen of a tasking within how many hours?
a. 48. b. 96. c. 144. d. 192. |
b. 96
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The mission support group commander (MSG/CC) is responsible for all of the following EXCEPT?
a. supports and assists the installation deployment officer (IDO) in resolving issues at the lowest level. b. supports the IDO to ensure that assigned units maintain a state of readiness. c. facilitating the installation reclama shortfall process. d. coordinates with the Logistic Readiness Squadron commander (LRS/CC) and the IDO and recommends to the wing/installation commander the frequency and scope of installation exercises. |
c. facilitating the installation reclama shortfall process.
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All of the these make up the installation deployment readiness cell (IDRC) EXCEPT?
a. Installation deployment officer (IDO). b. personnel readiness function (PRF). c. logistics readiness flight (LGRR). d. unit manpower document (UMD). |
d. unit manpower document (UMD).
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Within how many hours of an emergency event will HQ AFPC/PRC publish a message or e-mail to the MAJCOM CAT directors with a courtesy copy to the MAJCOM CAT/A1 representative outlining accountability procedures requiring all bases to identify personnel who are TDY, on a base, or on leave from their base?
a. 24. b. 48. c. 72. d. 96. |
b. 48
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What category title will the Air Force Reserve Command (AFRC) and the National Guard Bureau (NGB) make provisions to include evacuation plans on?
a. 1. b. 5. c. 10. d. 32. |
d. 32
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Who will each MAJCOM and the National Guard Bureau (NGB) direct to ensure all wing/installation commanders and geographically separated units (GSU) have evacuation plans and tracking procedures in place to account for all personnel in the event of a natural disaster or national emergency?
a. HQ AFPC/DPA. b. Plans and Requirements (A5). c. HQ AFPC/CAT. d. HQ AFPC/PA. |
b. Plans and Requirements (A5).
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In the event a member is stranded in a crisis area with no communications available, members are encouraged to report their status to?
a. their supervisor. b. their unit commander. c. their flight chief. d. any responding agency. |
d. any responding agency.
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Whose responsibility is it to ensure UCCs are trained and in place for members to report their evacuation location in the event the member and/or their families are required to relocate?
a. Unit commander. b. HQ AFPC/PRC. c. MAJCOM. d. NGB. |
a. Unit commander
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MAJCOMs own base-level GCCS-AF equipments and are responsible for all of the following EXCEPT?
a. software upgrades. b. warranty information. c. initial load of software. d. replacement parts. |
c. initial load of software.
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Personnel planners are responsible for ensuring sufficient personnel support for contingency operation teams (PT) and equipment are scheduled with what team?
a. RFL01. b. RFL02. c. RFL03. d. ADVON. |
d. ADVON.
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Which unit type code (UTC) is considered or called the personnel support for contingency operation (PERSCO) accountability team?
a. RFPF1. b. RFPF2. c. RFPF3. d. RFPF4. |
a. RFPF1
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Which unit type code (UTC) is a dependent team consisting of four individuals and cannot deploy without a RFPF1 team or FSS IPR present at the deployed location?
a. RFPF1. b. RFPF2. c. RFPF3. d. RFPF4. |
b. RFPF2
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Training is the primary factor in what deployment phase?
a. Training. b. Sustainment. c. Redeployment. d. Planning. |
d. Planning
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Who serves at the focal point for scheduling and documenting all initial/recurring ancillary deployment training and classified courier training for personnel support for contingency operation team (PT) members?
a. MSG/CC. b. FSS commander. c. FSS superintendent. d. FSS UDM. |
d. FSS UDM.
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The success of a good individualized newcomer treatment and orientatioin (INTRO) program is tied to?
a. the newcomer's first impressions of the sponsor. b. how many times the sponsor calls the newcomer. c. the Airman and family readiness center's sponsor kits. d. how well the gaining commander speaks with the newcomer. |
a. the newcomer's first impressions of the sponsor.
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What is one of the best ways to make the newcomer's move as smooth as possible?
a. Write them a letter. b. Call them. c. Send them an email. d. Go visit them. |
b. Call them.
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As a sponsor, what question would you not ask the newcomer?
a. Will your family members accompany you? b. Do you need information about other services? c. What type of vehicle do you drive? d. Do you want a post office box? |
c. What type of vehicle do you drive?
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For information about on-and-off-base housing, if the newcomer has dependents, where does the sponsor go?
a. Airman and family readiness center. b. Civil engineering squadron. c. Contracting office. d. Base housing office. |
d. Base housing office.
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After the initial duty assignment (IDA) worksheet and the records review listing (RRL) are updated, ensure they are reviewed and forwarded to?
a. HQ Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC)/Casualty. b. HQ AFPC/Automated Records Management System (ARMS). c. Force support squadron d. Military personnel section |
b. HQ AFPC/Automated Records Management System (ARMS)
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What form is used to document a member's active duty service commitment (ADSC) incurred due to training or a permanent change of station (PCS)?
a. AF Form 899, Request and Authorization for Permanent Change of Station - Military. b. AF Information Management Tool (IMT) 330, Records Transmittal/Request. c. AF IMT 988, Leave Request/Authorisation. d. AF IMT 63, Active Duty Service Commitment (ADSC) Acknowledgement Statement. |
d. AF IMT 63, Active Duty Service Commitment (ADSC) Acknowledgement Statement.
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Once the member inprocesses, no-fee passports are?
a. collected by a personnelist. b. shredded by the member. c. collected by security forces. d. collected by the military personnel section (MPS) commander. |
a. collected by a personnelist
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For officers, all of the following can look at unfavorable information files (UIF) EXCEPT?
a. commanders at all levels for members assigned or attached to their unit. b. a member's peer who works in the military personnel section. c. major command commander, vice commanders, staff director and directors. d. chiefs of staffs, their deputies and assistants and other staff agency heads. |
b. a member's peer who works in the military personnel section.
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For enlisted members, who is not allowed to look at unfavorable information files?
a. Civil Air Patrol Reserve Assistance Program manager. b. Senior Air Force officer in a joint command. c. The member's wing or unit chaplain. d. Comparable Secretary of the Air Force officers. |
c. The member's wing or unit chaplain.
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When filing an optional Uniform Code of Military Justice Article 15, Nonjudicial Punishment, in a member's unfavorable information file (UIF) do not use?
a. AF Information Management Tool (IMT) 330, Records Transmittal/Request. b. AF Form 899, Request and Authorization for Permanent Change of Station - Military. c. AF IMT 1058, Unfavorable Information File Action. d. AF Form 3070A, Record of Nonjudicial Punishment Proceeding (AB thru TSgt). |
d. AF Form 3070A, Record of Nonjudicial Punishment Proceeding (AB thru TSgt).
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An officer receives a letter of reprimand (LOR). What action must the commander take using the AF Information Management Tool (IMT) 1058, Unfavorable Information File (UIF) Action?
a. The commander does not submit AF IMT 1058 to the officer and LORs must be filed in an officer's UIF. b. The commander submits the AF IMT 1058 to the officer and LORs must be filed in an officer's UIF. c. The commander decides whether to submit the LOR into the member's UIF since and LOR officer is optional for officers. d. There is no action necessary from the commander because the staff judge advocate handles all UIF actions. |
a. The commander does not submit AF IMT 1058 to the officer and LORs must be filed in an officer's UIF.
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How many days does an individual (enlisted and officer) have to acknowledge the intended actions and provide pertinent informatioin before the commander makes the final decision on placing optional documents in the unfavorable information file (UIF)?
a. Three duty days. b. Three calendar days. c. Five duty days. d. Five calendar days. |
a. Three duty days.
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Who is not subject to line of duty (LOD) determinations?
a. Active duty Air Force members. b. Air Reserve Componet members who die, incur or aggravate an illness/injury. c. Junior Reserve Officer Training Corps (JROTC) members. d. Air Force Reserve Officer Training Corps (AFROTC) members. |
c. Junior Reserve Officer Training Corps (JROTC) members.
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A line of duty (LOD) determination process must be initiated when a member, whether hospitalized or not, has an illness, injury or disease that results in all of the following EXCEPT the?
a. death of a member. b. inability to perform duties for over 24 hours. c. likelihood of permanent disability. d. death of a spouse's member. |
d. death of a spouse's member.
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During the line of duty (LOD) process, which of the following is the Customer Support element at the military personnel section (MPS) not responsible for?
a. Making the medical determination. b. Directing the LOD determination to the required authorities. c. Monitoring suspenses. d. Disposing of final documentation. |
a. Making the medical determination.
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HQ Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC)/DSAS controls and approves all military personnel surveys, questionnaires?
a. telephone interviews, and attitude and opinion polls. b. telephone interviews, and occupatioinal surveys. c. attitude and opinion pools, and occupational surveys. d. official audit surveys conducted by the Air Force Audit Agency, and telephone interviews. |
a. telephone interviews, and attitude and opinion polls.
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When requesting survey approval, HQ AFPC/DPSAS does not require you to?
a. state the purpose and justification for the proposed research. b. indicate how you will use the survey results. c. state the different types of surveys utilized in the last fiscal year. d. provide a point of contact, with a telephone number. |
c. state the different types of surveys utilized in the last fiscal year.
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All approved, non-local surveys show one of the following EXCEPT a/an?
a. survey control number. b. report control symbol. c. Office of management and Budget number. d. fiscal year number. |
d. fiscal year number
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Which of the following types of insurance does the government not offer?
a. Mutual Life Insurance (MLI). b. Servicemember's Group Life Insurance (SGLI). c. Family Member Servicemember's Group Life Insurance (FSGLI). d. Veteran's Group Life Insurance (VGLI) |
a. Mutual Life Insurance (MLI).
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In relation to insurance processing, the Customer Support element has all of the following responsibilities EXCEPT?
a. managing the Servicemember's Group Life Insurance Handbook. b. ensuring compliance with AFI 36-3002, Casualty Services. c. counseling and providing members with monthly premium rates. d. maintaining and completing numerous veterans affairs forms. |
b. ensuring compliance with AFI 36-3002, Casualty Services.
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An important benefit of the Servicemember's Group Life Insurance (SGLI) is the ability to convert it to what type of insurance after leaving the military?
a. Nationwide Retired Military Insurance (NRMI). b. Servicemember's Group Life Insurance-Retired (SGLI-R). c. Veteran's Group Life Insurance (VGLI). d. There is no option to convert SGLI after leaving the military. |
c. Veteran's Group Life Insurance (VGLI).
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Family Member Servicemember's Group Life Insurance (FSGLI) expands Servicemember's Group Life Insurance (SGLI) coverage to whom?
a. Spouses only. b. Children only. c. Parents of sponsor. d. Spouses and children. |
d. Spouses and children.
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All of the following children are eligible for an identification (ID) card except a?
a. child, unmarried and under age 21, adopted. b. child, unmarried and under age 25. c. child, unmarried and under age 21, stepchild. d. legal custody ward, including foster children. |
b. child, unmarried and under age 25.
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Identification (ID) card verifying and issuing officials cannot be?
a. commissioned officer. b. warrant officer. c. below the grade of E-4. d. general schedule 4 and above civilian. |
c. below the grade of E-4.
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Once you retrieve identification (ID) cards, you may do all of the following EXCEPT?
a. destroy. b. shred. c. cut. d. line out. |
d line out.
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Members are eligible for join spouse assignment consideration unless they?
a. are on extended active duty with the AF and the spouse is civilian. b. are on extended active duty with the AF and the spouse is also on extended active duty. c. meet all permanent change of station eligibility requirements. d. have a join spouse intent code "A" or "B" and are not scheduled for reassignment. |
a. are on extended active duty with the AF and the spouse is civilian.
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What form is used as the primary document to record the marriage of a military couple?
a. AF Form 899, Request and Authorization for Permanent Change of Station - Military. b. AF IMT 1048, Military spouse Informatioin. c. AF IMT 988, Leave Request/Authorization. d. AF Form 3070A, Record of Nonjudicial Punishment Proceedings. |
b. AF IMT 1048, Military Spouse Information.
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Which of the following is not a join spouse intent code?
a. A. b. B. c. C. d. H. |
c. C.
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How many members does the Air Force Board for Correction of Military Records (AFBCMR) consists of?
a. Three. b. Five. c. Seven. d. Nine. |
a. Three.
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What form is used to apply for a correction to military records?
a. Department of Defense (DD) form 4, Enlistement/Reenlistment Document Armed Forces of the United States. b. AF IMT 901, Reenlistment Elifibility Annex to DD Form 4. c. DD Form 127, CAse Routing Slip. d. DD Form 149, Application for Correction of Military Record under the Provisions of Title 10, U.S.C., Section 1552. |
d. DD Form 149, Applicatioin for Correction of Military Record under the Provisions of Title 10, U.S.C., Seciton 1552.
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You can locate the form used to apply for a correction to military records at all of the following locations except?
a. a Finance Services Office. b. any Air Force Military Personnel Section. c. most veteran's service organization. d. Air Force Review Boards Office. |
a. a Finance Services Office.
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What is the responsibility of the military personnel section commander as it pertains to casualty services?
a. Provide public affairs with the name, age, rank, and home of record of the deceased. b. Ensure the Casualty Assistance Representative (CAR) has an open office for counseling the next of kin. c. Obtain and determine the cause of death from security forces. d. Publish required installation supplements to AFI 36-3002, Casualty Services. |
d. Publish required installation supplements to AFI 36-3002, Casualty Services.
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In order for an enlisted Airman to notify the next of kin (NOK) of a very seriously ill or injured (VSI), seriously ill or injured (SI), or incapacitating illness or injury (III) member, they must be in grade(s)?
a. Staff sergeant (SSgt) through chief master sergeant (CMSgt). b. Master sergeant (MSgt) through CMSgt. c. Senior master sergeant (SMSgt) and CMSgt. d. CMSgt only. |
b. Master sergeant (MSgt) through CMSgt.
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What are the three types of casualty reports?
a. Hostile, non-hostile, and pending. b. Hostile, non-hostile, and complete. c. Deceased, pending, and complete. d. Deceased, pending, and hostile. |
a. Hostile, non-hostile, and pending.
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The Survivor Benefit Plan (SBP) is a monthly annuity, due to an active duty member who dies in the line of duty (LOD) and is paid by the Air Force to the?
a. surviving spouse only. b. eligible children only. c. surviving siblings. d. surviving spouse or children. |
d. surviving spouse or children.
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The Survivor Benefit Plan (SBP) annuity paid is paid to a surviving spouse until the spouse dies?
a. but is suspended upon remarriage before age 45. b. and is not suspended upon remarriage. c. but is suspended upon remarriage before age 55. d. and then it passes onto any surviving children. |
c. but is suspended upon remarriage before age 55.
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A reassignment or deferment request must be initiated by the?
a. flight commander. b. unit commander. c. member. d. member's supervisor. |
c. member.
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To substantiate a humanitarian assignment request, which of the following is not a criterion?
a. A vacancy must exist at the new duty station and the member must meet retainability requirements. b. The problem involving a family member is more severe than usually encountered by other Air Force members with a similar problem. c. The member's presence must be absolutely essential to alleviate the problem. d. The member's assignment must be within 12 months of being complete. |
d. The member's assignment must be within 12 months of being complete.
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An initial relocation briefing should be conducted within how many days?
a. 10 duty days. b. 10 calendar days. c. 15 calendar days. d. 15 duty days. |
c. 15 calendar days.
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If the career development element has numerous relocation briefings to conduct, what can they do in order to save time?
a. Visit each member at their unit. b. Make appointments for each individual. c. File all assignment relocation folders in one drawer. d. Conduct mass briefings. |
d. Conduct mass briefings.
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An Airman submitting a dependent travel to a designated place (DTDP) application must have all of the following EXCEPT?
a. proof of insurance for any privately owned vehicle behing shipped to dependents' location. b. the retainability to serve the accompanied tour length at the follow-on location. c. a memorandum signed by the Airman with dependents names and birthdates. d. a signed entitlements fact sheet applicable to the country where dependents will relocate. |
a. proof of insurance for any privately owned vehicle being shipped to dependents' location.
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What form from the military personnel records does the Military Personnel Section (MPS), career development element extract information from for a member wishing to apply for a miscellaneous separation?
a. AF IMT 31, Airman's Request for Early Separation/Separation based on Change in Service Obligation. b. AF IMT 780, Officer Separation Actions. c. AF IMT 988, Leave Request/Authorization. d. AF Form 899, Request and Authorization for Permanent Change of Station - Military. |
a. AF IMT 31, Airman's Request for Early Separation/Separation based on Change in Service Obligation.
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How many years of total active federal military service (TAFMS) must members complete before being eligible for retirement?
a. 10. b. 20. c. 22. d. 25. |
b. 20.
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Which of the following certificates are not given to a retiring member?
a. Department of Defense (DD) Form 363AF, Certificate of Retirement. b. DD Form 2542, Certificate of Appreciation for Service in the Armed Forces of the United States. c. DD Form 220, Active Duty Report. d. AF Form 1344, Cerificate of Appreciation (for Spouses) if appropriate. |
c. DD Form 220, Active Duty Report.
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Who in the military personnel section is responsible for notifying commanders of promotion selection and nonselection?
a. Flight commander. b. Force management operations. c. Customer support element. d. Career development element. |
d. Career development element.
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How many days in advance does the commander notify the officer of the projected promotion effective date when an individual is promoted to first lieutenant?
a. 30. b. 45. c. 60, d. 90. |
a. 30.
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The effective date of retirement, for a member who elects retirement in lieu of demotion, will be no later than the first day of what month following the date the member recieved the initial notification?
a. Second. b. Third. c. Fourth. d. Fifth month. |
c. Fourth.
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Within how many days of the first processing month must the "BELOW-ZONE-E4" promotion product be scheduled to run?
a. 10. b. 20. c. 30. d. 45. |
a. 10.
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The senior noncommissioned officer (SNCO) promotion program is a two-phase selection process that combines factors from?
a. the Weighted Airman Promotion System (WAPS) and the specialty knowledge test (SKT). b. WAPS and profesional military education (PME). c. WAPS and enlisted performance reports (EPR). d. WAPS and the evaluation board. |
d. WAPS and the evaluation board.
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Within how many months of their original expiration term of service (ETS) does a second-term Airman Receive selective reenlistment program (SRP) consideration?
a. 13. b. 15. c. 17. d. 18. |
a. 13
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First-term Airmen who complete how many months on their current enlistment receive selective reenlistment program (SRP) consideration?
a. 30 (54 for six-year enlistees). b. 33 (57 for six-year enlistees). c. 36 (60 for six-year enlistees). d. 40 (64 for six-year enlistees). |
b. 33 (57 for six-year enlistees).
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How many total months can second-term and career Airmen extend their current enlistments?
a. 12. b. 24. c. 48. d. 60. |
c. 48.
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How many days leave can Airmen sell if they've sold any leave since 10 Feruary 1976?
a. 15. b. 30. c. 45. d. 60. |
d. 60
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Oracle Training Administration (OTA) is used for all of the following EXCEPT?
a. graduating students from formal training. b. planning formal training. c. controlling formal training. d. funding formal training. |
a. graduating students from formal training.
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The policy on training line numbers is focused on the formal training office being located in the force support squadron/career development element (FSS/FSDE). If the formal training office is located outside of the FSS/FSDE, who is responsible for the requirments outlined in this process?
a. Military personnel section, customer support element. b. Military personnel section, career development element. c. The responsibility remains with the FSS/FSDE. d. HQ Air Force Personnel Center Education and Training Branch. |
c. The responsibility remains with the FSS/FSDE.
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Retraining requirements are determined by Air Staff?
a. HQ Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC)/Retraining and Career Field managers. b. and career field managers. c. National Guard Bureau and Air Force Reserve Command. d. active duty members and HQ AFPC/Retraining. |
b. and career field managers.
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What training status code can a second-term or career Airman not be in to be eligible for the Noncommissioned Officer Retraining Program (NCORP)?
a. "M". b. "N". c. "O". d. "P". |
c. "O".
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Which of the following is not an example of disqualification for reasons within a member's control?
a. Loss of security clearance. b. Drug or alchohol invilvement. c. Failure to progress in training. d. A medical condition. |
d. A medical condition.
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Who is responsibility for accomplishing an AF IMT 2096, Classification/On-the-Job Training Action, when a member does not have another awarded Air Force specialty code (AFSC)?
a. Career development element. b. Customer support element. c. The member. d. Force management operations. |
a. Career development element.
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The Air Force establishes an active duty service commitment (ADSC) for?
a. guard members. b. active duty members. c. reserve members. d. air reserve technicians. |
b. active duty members.
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What grades can incur an active duty service commitment (ADSC)?
a. All commissioned active duty officers. b. Enlisted noncommissioned officers only. c. Colonel and below and all enlisted personnel. d. General and below and all enlisted personnel. |
c. Colonel and below and all enlisted personnel.
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What type of counseling is suggested for members to obtain in order to make an informed career status bonus (CSB) option?
a. medical counseling. b. Legal counseling. c. Equal opportunity counseling. d. Financial counseling. |
d. Financial counseling.
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What document(s) do commanders use to determine a member's eligibility for the Career Status Bonus (CSB)?
a. Automated Records management System (ARMS) and the Commander's Management Roster (CMR). b. The ARMS only.. c. CMR only. d. Unfavorable Information File. |
a. Automated Records management System (ARMS) and the Commander's management Roster (CMR).
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The unit manpower document (UMD) is a product that provides the authorized positons that a unit is allowed to recruit, train and?
a. advertize. b. produce. c. swap. d. promote. |
d. promote.
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Over how many years does a unit manning document (UMD) list positions that will be deleted?
a. One. b. Two. c. Three. d. Four. |
b. Two.
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Members of reserve components are eligible for consideration of a military decoration?
a. only when they become retirement eligible. b. when they are place on active duty orders. c. in authorized periods of training or while in active status. d. in authorized periods of training or while in inactive status. |
d. in authorized periods of training or while in inactive status.
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Restrict recomendations for decorations to all of the following EXCEPT?
a. training honor graduates. b. meritorious service. c. outstanding achievement. d. acts of heroism. |
a. training honor graduates.
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What two agencies does duty status data provide a clear picture to?
a. Headquearters (HQ) AF and HQ Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC). b. HQ AFPC and major commands (MAJCOM). c. HQ AFPC and wing commanders. d. HQ AFPC and numbered Air Forces (NAF). |
b. HQ AFPC and major commands (MAJCOM).
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What duty status code is used to represent present for duty (PFD)?
a. 00. b. 01. c. 02. d. 03. |
a. 00
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What form is used to document personnel reliability program (PRP) certification?
a. AF Information Management Tool (IMT) 2096, Classification/On-the-Job Training Action. b. AF Form 10, Unit Personnel Record Group (Folder). c. AF Form 3070C, Record of Nonjudicial Punishment Proceedings (Officer). d. AF Form 286, Personnel reliability Program (PRP) Qualificatioin/Certification Action. |
d. AF Form 286, Personnel Reliability Program (PRP) Qualification/Certification Action.
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Which of the following output products does not generate during personnel reliability program (PRP) processing?
a. PRP status P, R, P roster b. Administrative qualification record of individual personnel (RIP). c. PRP status A, B, C roster. d. PRP change roster. |
a. PRP status P, R, P roster.
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The enlisted assignment preference is used for?
a. special duty assignments. b. continental United States or overseas assignments. c. joint/departmental assignments. d. short notice overseas assignments. |
b. continental Untied States or overseas assignments.
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Members are encouraged to discuss their assignment preferences with all of the following EXCEPT?
a. family members. b. supervisors. c. unit leave monitors. d. commanders. |
c. unit leave monitors.
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Airmen are eligible for a special duty assignment (SDA) if they?
a. have any other self-initiated permanent change of station request pending. b. have an active unfavorable information file or are on the Control Roster. c. are not recommened for a SDA by their commander. d. have been notified they are noncommissioned officer of the quarter. |
d. have been notified they are noncommissioned officer of the quarter.
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How many months, minimum, time on station (TOS) is required to apply for a special duty assignment (SDA)?
a. 0. b. 12. c. 24. d. 36. |
a. 0.
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How many days are months computed when you are computing service dates?
a. 28. b. 29. c. 30. d. 31. |
c. 30.
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The expression "use or lose" refers to leave days. In excess of how many days will be lost by the end of the fiscal year (FY) if it is not used?
a. 15. b. 30. c. 45. d. 60. |
d. 60.
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Leave must begin and end where?
a. In the local area. b. At your duty section. c. At the leave monitor's building. d. Within 30 miles ofthe local area. |
a. In the local area.
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Who does the commander and first-sergeant forward an evaluation report to, for further processing, once they ensure it is accurate and technically correct?
a. The member. b. Military personnel section. c. The member's supervisor. d. Finance services office. |
b. Military personnel section.
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Once the military personnel section receives an evaluation report, what do they do if they find errors?
a. Correct the errors without informing the unit. b. Call the supervisor to correct the errors. c. Return to the unit for corrections. d. Shred the report and have it rewritten. |
c. Return to the unit for corrections.
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Airmen using the self service module for supplemental promotioin should complete the application, upload or fax any supporting documents and route the request electronically to what office?
a. HQ Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC)/appeal section. b. HQ AFPC/evaluation section. c. Air Force Contact Center (AFCC). d. Total Force Service Center (TFSC). |
d. Total Force Service Center (TFSC).
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The human resource (HR)-case management system (CMS) was initially developed by HQ Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC) and Air Force Accounting and Finance Office (AFAFO) to respond to what type of problems?
a. Reenlistment. b. Pay. c. Extension. d. Identification card. |
b. Pay.
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Regardless of who maintains a member's personal information, the unit personnel information file (PIF) must be established and maintained in accordance with what Air Force instruction (AFI)?
a. AFI 36-3002, Casualty Services. b. AFI 36-3003, Military Leave Program. c. AFI 36-2110, Assignments. d. AFI 36-2608, Military Personnel Records System. |
d. AFI 36-2608, Military Personnel REcords System.
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If a PIF is established what form must be used?
a. AF Form 10A, Personnel Information File, REcord of Performance, Officer Command Selection Record Group (folder). b. AF Form 10, Unit Personnel Record Group (Folder). c. AF Information Management Tool (IMT) 330, REcords Transmittal/REquest. d. DD Form 220, Active Duty Report. |
a. AF Form 10A, Personnel Information File, Record of Performance, Officer Command Seleciton Record Group (Folder).
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Basic allowance for subsistence (BAS) is meant to offset costs for members and?
a. their dependents. b. no one else. c. children. d. spouses. |
b. no one else.
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The basic allowance for subsistence (BAS) is based in the historic origins of the miltiary in which the military provided what two items?
a. Room and laundry sevice. b. Food and shoe-shine service. c. Room and board. d. Room and transportation. |
c. Room and board.
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What factor below is the essential station messing (ESM) entitlement not based on?
a. Location and capacity of dining facilities. b. Location of living quarters. c. Duty hours. d. Number of people member lives with. |
d. Number of people member lives with.
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Essential station messing (ESM) is also termed?
a. rations in-kind. b. messing in-kind. c. dining in-kind. d. chow in-kind. |
a. rations in-kind.
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Transaction registers are computer products that are programmatically controlled and produced?
a. daily. b. every other day. c. weekly. d. monthly. |
a. daily.
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How many months must the Personnel System Management (PSM) element retain the certified copy of the Defense Joint Military Pay System (DJMS) data change transaction register (TR)?
a. Two. b. Four. c. Six. d. eight. |
c. Six.
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Who should create additonal discoverer workbooks to help verify or identify further database integrity checks?
a. Total Force Service Center director. b. HQ Air Force Personnel Center Personnelist. c. Base level computer programmers. d. Personnel System Management manager. |
d. Personnel System Management manager.
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Which management assessment product (MAP) selects all individuals who have negative indicators such as an unfavorable information file (UIF), reenlistment eligibility, promotion eligibility and lost time?
a. Two. b. Three. c. Four. d. Six. |
d. Six.
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The Defense Joint Military Pay System (DJMS) is used to update what type of personnel action to the Defense Finance and Accounting Service (DFAS) files?
a. Identification cards. b. Reenlistments and extensions. c. Supervisor updates. d. Assignment actions. |
b. Reenlistments and extenstions.
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Before updating a reenlistment or an extention, you will need to access the Master Military Pay Account (MMPA) file to pull what type of product?
a. T16. b. T17. c. T18 d. T19. |
c. T18.
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