Skt For Tsgt

Front 1

which type of maintenance ensures that equipment is ready and available at the time of need

Back 1

preventive

Front 2

which of the following is used to highlight trends, benchmarks, or safety conditions relating to maintenance equipment, personnel, training, or processes.

Back 2

Cross- tells

Front 3

who is the office of primary responsibility (OPR) for the intermediate repair enhancement program.

Back 3

maintenance group commander

Front 4

which maintenance capability category is performed at backshop level and consist of off equipment maintenance

Back 4

intermediate

Front 5

all requests for depot level assistance must be coordinated through

Back 5

quality assurance and plans, scheduling, and documentation.

Front 6

what do you call wing level maintenance facilities providing intermediate level maintenance repair support for multiple air force units within a particular theater of operations

Back 6

centralized repair facilites

Front 7

what program promotes identifying and correcting system deficiencies before they affect combat capability

Back 7

reliability and maintainability

Front 8

which category of deficiency report should you submit if the equipment has deficiency that if uncorrected, may cause major loss or damage to equipment and no workaround is known

Back 8

1B

Front 9

which maintenance group agency provides technical assistance for deficiency reports to work center supervisors

Back 9

quality assurance

Front 10

which of the following is used to assign responsibilities, direct actions, and prescribe procedures within a subordinate function ( i.e, a staff office, a branch, a squadron, etc.)

Back 10

operating instructions

Front 11

when operating instructions (OI) apply to multiple groups, they should be published as

Back 11

wing OIs

Front 12

which AFTO IMT is used to maintain a permanent history of significant maintenance actions on end- items of equipment.

Back 12

95

Front 13

Printed copies of AFTO IMT 95 are not required to accompany end items upon transfer

Back 13

to/from locations that have access to the necessary maintenance information systems to retrieve the historical information

Front 14

what AFTO IMT is used to document accumulated cycles, operating time, and maintenance history, as well as pertinent manufacturing data for jet engine turbine wheels

Back 14

95

Front 15

which integrated maintenance database system- central database (IMDS-CDB) subsystem provides the capability to track engines and their components for time-changes and inspections and establishes and maintains the installed on relationship between the engine and components.

Back 15

comprehensive engine management system

Front 16

which integrated maintenance database system central database (IMDS-CDB) subsystem allows users to track maintenance actions and has both maintenance and supply data.

Back 16

maintenance events

Front 17

which integrated maintenance database system central database (IMDS-CDB) subsystem replaces the maintenance data collection (MDC) system and provides maintenance personnel with the online capability to document, inquire, and produce retrials of maintenance actions.

Back 17

job data documentation

Front 18

who guides the overall data integrity team and process and ensures the data provided to maintenance managers and supervision is meaningful and factual?

Back 18

maintenance management analysis

Front 19

in addition to being familiar with the units assigned weapon system, squadron representatives for the data integrity team must be at least

Back 19

a 5- level

Front 20

what provides a measurement of unit performance and capability?

Back 20

metrics

Front 21

what are the two most common types of primary maintenance metric indicators

Back 21

leading and lagging

Front 22

which primary maintenance metric indictor shows problems first, as they directly impact maintenances capability to provide resources to execute the mission.

Back 22

leading

Front 23

which primary maintenance metric indictor shows and follows firmly established trends

Back 23

lagging

Front 24

which maintenance repair priority is designated only for aircraft that are on alert status or aircraft that are supporting the war plan or national emergency mission

Back 24

1

Front 25

who is responsible for establishing a crashed, damaged, or disabled aircraft recovery program.

Back 25

wing commander

Front 26

who is personally responsibile for managing the foreign object damage and dropped object prevention programs

Back 26

wing vice commander

Front 27

who is responsible for chairing the daily maintenance production/scheduling meeting with representatives from throughout the maintenance group (MXG)?

Back 27

Maintenance Group Commander

Front 28

who is responsible for standardizing maintenance discipline, procedures, organizational structures, compliance, and management philosophy.

Back 28

MXG deputy commander

Front 29

who oversees the management of maintenance facilities and aircraft support equipment procurement and maintenance

Back 29

maintenance group superintendent

Front 30

who is held legally responsible for their units environmental protection agency program compliance in accordance with AFI 32-7042, water management.

Back 30

squadron commanders

Front 31

which commander is tasked with developing and publishing the wing flying/maintenance schedule in coordination with other squadron maintenance operations officers/maintenance superintendents

Back 31

maintenance operations flight

Front 32

worker safety and health information must be monitored, tracked, and documented using what AF IMT

Back 32

55

Front 33

section non commissioned officers in charge are responsible for developing cross utilization training requirements, ensuring they do not interfere with

Back 33

qualification and upgrade training

Front 34

section non commissioned officers in charge must ensure their sections are organized with tools, equipment, and material as close to the Point of Maintenance without jeopardizing

Back 34

accountability and control procedures

Front 35

when a maintenance squadron production superintendent is appointed, who must he or she inform of specialist non-availability to at the beginning of each shift?

Back 35

maintenance operation center

Front 36

how many standard squadrons are in a maintenance group?

Back 36

3

Front 37

which maintenance operations squadron flight is a centrally located agency responsible for monitoring and developing long-range strategies to sustain fleet health?

Back 37

maintenance operations (MOF)

Front 38

the maintenance operations center is responsible for the overall management of which integrated maintenance data system central database (imds-cdb) subsystem

Back 38

location

Front 39

which section is the wing focal point for engine health tracking and the engine health management program

Back 39

engine management

Front 40

which maintenance operation squadron section maintains standarized aircraft jacket files and attends pre dock and post dock inspection

Back 40

plans, scheduling, and documentation

Front 41

the maintenance training flight normally consist of what two sections

Back 41

training management; development and instruction

Front 42

what agency basic mission is to launch and recover aircraft and to perform the necessary servicing, inspections, and maintenance to perform daily aircraft flying operations

Back 42

aircraft maintenance unit

Front 43

which of the following is not a section within a standard aircraft maintenance unit>

Back 43

supply

Front 44

what does the debrief section use to help identify fault codes to aid maintainers in aircraft troubleshooting

Back 44

fault reporting manuals

Front 45

who must ensure the applicable aircraft form sets are provided to the debrief by the end of the flying day if debriefs are suspended due to aircraft flying surge operations

Back 45

flight line expediter or production superintendent

Front 46

the aircraft section is split into two separate sections when an aircraft maintenance units number of mission assigned aircraft is more than

Back 46

18

Front 47

which section is normally responsible for aircraft troubleshooting, on equipment repairs, component removal and installation, reprogramming avionics systems, and classified aircraft items management?

Back 47

specialist

Front 48

which technicians maintain aircraft bleed air, vacuum, pneumatic, fire suppression, and oxygen systems, including removing and replacing associated system components?

Back 48

electro- environmental specialist

Front 49

who is responsible to the weapons section chief for monitoring all armament systems maintenance and loading operations?

Back 49

weapons expediter

Front 50

which section is tasked with the maintenance, control, and storage of alternate mission equipment, dash-21 equipment, and maintenance, safety, and protective equipment?

Back 50

support section

Front 51

which of the following is not a standard flight in the maintenance squadron

Back 51

egress

Front 52

commanders have the option of establishing two separate squadrons, the equipment maintenance squadron and the component maintenance squadron, if maintenance squadron manning authorizations exceed

Back 52

700

Front 53

in relation to aerospace ground equipment, what are centrally located to enhance mission performance?

Back 53

sub-pools

Front 54

which avionics flight section is responsible for performing off equipment maintenance on systems such as all weather landing, attitude reference and bombing, and inertial navigation.

Back 54

guidance and control systems

Front 55

which avionics flight section is responsible for maintaining low- altitude navigation and targeting infrared for night (LANTIRN) pods?

Back 55

sensors

Front 56

which fabrication flight sections processes are tightly controlled because the parts and tools they manufacture must meet the stringent standards of aerospace-grade

Back 56

Metals technology

Front 57

if a refurbishment section is established, wings have the option to align it under either the maintenance flight or the

Back 57

fabrication flight

Front 58

which munitions flight section receives, stores, warehouses, handles, inspects, ships, inventories, and transports containers, dispensers, and training items?

Back 58

material

Front 59

which propulsion flight section section stores, builds up, tears down, modifies, and repairs engines, quick engine change kits, and test components?

Back 59

jet engine intermediate maintenance

Front 60

the test, measurement, and diagnostic equipment (TMDE) flight maintains, calibrates, and certifies TMDE through the

Back 60

Air Force primary standards laboratory

Front 61

Training detachments (TDs) are administratively assigned to which MAJCOM?

Back 61

Air Education and Training Command (AETC)

Front 62

The block training method is normally used to teach which Maintenance Training Flight (MTF) training course?

Back 62

Maintenance Orientation

Front 63

How often must the Maintenance Operations Officer/Maintenance Superintendent review and sign the special certification roster (SCR)?

Back 63

Semi-annually

Front 64

In order to be given an authority to downgrade a "Red-X" am individual must be approved by the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) and hold the minimum grade of

Back 64

MSgt

Front 65

Training Business Area (TBA) provided Air Force personnel with global, real-time

Back 65

visibility of technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses of personnel

Front 66

In the Training Business Area (TBA), which type of notification does the "System Messages" board provide in addition to software releases, projected downtimes, and training update information?

Back 66

Application problems

Front 67

What training phase has these four sub-phases: multiphase, MAJCOM mandatory, free flow, and maintenance qualification training?

Back 67

2

Front 68

What continuation training consists of academic and practical hands-on courses that compliment initial skills training received through AETC mission ready airmen (MRA) and training detachment (TD) courses?

Back 68

Maintenance qualification

Front 69

How often does the maintenance training flight (MTF) provide a status of training (SOT) briefing to the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC)?

Back 69

Monthly

Front 70

An individual comes due for a training recertification while TDY, on leave, or incapacitated. Provided it has NOT been more then 60 days since the original due date, how many days are allowed after returning before decertification is required?

Back 70

30

Front 71

who is responsible for conducting an interview with both the trainee and his/her supervisor before a trainee starts a career development course (CDC)?

Back 71

Unit Training Manager

Front 72

Manpower authorizations are

Back 72

Funded

Front 73

A meeting to discuss manning issues in the maintenance group (MXG) is normally held

Back 73

Monthly

Front 74

The maximum continuous duty time you can schedule your workers for without getting maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) approval is

Back 74

12 hours

Front 75

Maintenance group commanders are the final approval authority for exceeding a 12-hour shift up to

Back 75

16 hours

Front 76

Which agency is normally responsible for monitoring the overall maintenance supply interface and resolving supply support problems?

Back 76

Maintenance supply liaison

Front 77

Maintenance supply liaison personnel report directly to the commander of the

Back 77

Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS)

Front 78

which of the following is not normally a maintenance supply liaison duty?

Back 78

collecting and turning in expendable, excess, and surplus precious metal bearing assets

Front 79

The assets in a high priority mission support kit (MPMSK) should be transferred into the host base's Standard Base Supply System account after how many days?

Back 79

30

Front 80

Which expandability, recoverability, and reparability codes (ERRC) must be assigned to an asset BEFORE it can be placed in bench stock?

Back 80

XB3

Front 81

the goal for bench stock assets is to establish levels to provide how many days of supply?

Back 81

30

Front 82

Provided it is still serviceable, which type of shelf life item are you allowed to inspect and re-mark with a new expiration date?

Back 82

type 2

Front 83

Who in the maintenance group (MXG) is responsible for ensuring the capability exists to meet local manufacture requirements?

Back 83

Maintenance Squadron (MXS) Operations officer/ Maintenance Superintendent (MX SUPT)

Front 84

What agency acts as a central repository of engineering drawings and other engineering data?

Back 84

Engineering Data Service Center

Front 85

Which of the following is NOT an obvious sign of pollution?

Back 85

cloudy water

Front 86

Who is responsible for developing a hazard communication (HAZCOM) training plan to notify personnel of all known hazards they may be exposed to in a particular work center?

Back 86

section supervisor

Front 87

Which tag should you use to document that a part has been properly drained and/ or purged?

Back 87

AFTO Form 20, Caution Tag

Front 88

Who much appoint an individual to be an equipment custodian?

Back 88

Squadron Commander

Front 89

What specific lock of supply training must an individual receive before assuming duties as a due-in from maintenance (DIFM) monitor?

Back 89

2b

Front 90

What form is used to document all report of surveys (ROS)?

Back 90

DD Form 200, Financial Liability, Investigation of Property Loss

Front 91

Which logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) office accounts for special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets managed on in-use detail records?

Back 91

Equipment Liaison Office (ELO)

Front 92

Unless delegated, who is responsible for reviewing all requests for special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) authorizations submitted by SPRAM custodians?

Back 92

Mission Support Group (MSG) Commander

Front 93

Which Precious Metals Indicator Code (PMIC) indicates that an item of supply contains a combination of two or more precious metals?

Back 93

C

Front 94

Which supply tracking document provides information on all document numbers processed during the day?

Back 94

D04, Daily Document Register

Front 95

Which supply tracking document is produced daily and lists all back-ordered parts with an urgency of need (UND) code of A?

Back 95

D18, Priority Monitor Report

Front 96

Which supply tracking document provides a management product for monitoring issue and bench stock supply support?

Back 96

M-24, Organization Effectiveness Report

Front 97

Who must authorize temporary storage of in-transit classified material in cargo security cages and alarmed rooms?

Back 97

Host installation commander

Front 98

When the aircraft owner or user does not stay with an aircraft which has secret of confidential equipment installed, she/he must arrange for security check to be accomplished every

Back 98

3 hours

Front 99

Who is the final authority for reviewing a unit's list of supply assets requiring functional check, calibration, or operational flight programming?

Back 99

Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) Chief Inspector

Front 100

Who is responsible for determining the appropriate supply delivery priority for a parts request?

Back 100

Customer

Front 101

Which urgency justification codes (UJCs) are used to show a supply request for bits and pieces to repair a line replaceable unit (LRU) or shop replaceable unit (SRU) spare?

Back 101

AR or BR

Front 102

Before a supply point can be established and located in a maintenance work area, who must Maintenance coordinate with?

Back 102

LRS material management element

Front 103

Once Established, how often must supply point accounts be reconciled by the work center supply point monitor?

Back 103

semiannually

Front 104

When a mission capable (MICAP) part issues and is placed on the tail number bin (TNB), supply personnel notify the

Back 104

Maintenance Operations Center (MOC)

Front 105

When the goal is to get a refund or a new item in exchange, what type of deficiency report is submitted??

Back 105

Supply Discrepancy Report

Front 106

Who has the responsibility for overall Deficiency Report program management for the submitting organization or group?

Back 106

Originating Point

Front 107

Who acts as the Deficiency Report focal point between the support point and submitting organization?

Back 107

Action Point

Front 108

Once a Category 1 Deficiency is discovered, a deficiency report (DR) must be submitted to the Screening Point within

Back 108

24 hours

Front 109

Which is not normally a Maintenance Group (MXG) technical order distribution office (TODO) duty?

Back 109

Establishing technical order distribution account (TODA) sub-accounts as required

Front 110

What Maintenance Operations Flight section is responsible for periodically reviewing maintenance information systems (MIS) products to ensure proper documentation and management of time compliance technical orders (TCTOs) by owning and managing agencies?

Back 110

Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation

Front 111

The Product Improvement Manager is usually assigned to what maintenance group (MXG) section?

Back 111

Quality Assurance

Front 112

Which of the following is NOT a technical order (TO) change priority category?

Back 112

Standard

Front 113

Who has the overall responsibility for AF policy governing the TO system?

Back 113

A4U

Front 114

Who designates cannibalization authorities?

Back 114

Maintenance Group (MXG) Commander

Front 115

If a serially controlled Item is Cannibalized (CANN), the CANN authority is required to notify

Back 115

Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation (PS&D)

Front 116

Which of the following does not institute a restricted maintenance area?

Back 116

Weapons loading operations

Front 117

Red Ball maintenance is not designed to prevent

Back 117

Aircraft status changes

Front 118

Who designates the Impoundment Official for a particular impoundment situation?

Back 118

Applicable Impoundment Authority

Front 119

Who is the office of primary responsibility (OPR) for development of wing procedures for control and management of tools/equipment used on the flight line and in aerospace maintenance industrial areas?

Back 119

Maintenance Group Commander (MXG/CC)

Front 120

How many digits make up an equipment identification designator (EID) code used to identify too,s and equipment?

Back 120

9

Front 121

The Wing foreign object damage (FOD) monitor is normally located within the

Back 121

Quality Assurance section

Front 122

The wing foreign object damage (FOD) monitor must notify the MAJCOM FOD manager within how many hours of a FOD incident?

Back 122

24 hours

Front 123

Which of the following, if inadvertently dropped during aircrew operations is not considered a dropped object under the Dropped Object Prevention Program?

Back 123

explosive munitions

Front 124

A dropped object that has resulted in casualties or property damage must be reported IAW

Back 124

AFI 10-206, Operational Reporting

Front 125

Which AF publication provides general guidance for executing an effective maintenance recovery operation?

Back 125

AFI 21-101. Aircraft and Equipment Maintenance Management

Front 126

Who is the Quality Assurance (QA) Chief Inspector directly responsible to for ensuring the required Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Program (MSEP) functions are performed?

Back 126

Quality Assurance (QA) Officer In Charge (OIC)/Superintendent (SUPT)

Front 127

When a unit has received an Unsatisfactory Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Team (MSET) rating, the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) directs Quality Assurance (QA) to perform a Follow-up inspection on the unit within how many days?

Back 127

30

Front 128

What maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Team (MSET) individual assessment is an over-the-shoulder evaluation while the technician performs a task?

Back 128

Personnel Evaluation

Front 129

What Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Team (MSET) individual assessment is performed AFTER a technician completes a task?

Back 129

Quality Verification Inspection

Front 130

In regards to the modification of management program, which agency serves as the operator's interface with the single point manager for a weapons system?

Back 130

Lead command

Front 131

To which flight is the engine management section assigned?

Back 131

Maintenance Operations.

Front 132

When you are assigned to an aircraft maintenance squadron as an engine troop, to what flightwill you most likely be attached?

Back 132

Specialist.

Front 133

What does the fifth position of the Air Force specialty code (AFSC) 3A652 represent?

Back 133

Specific AFSC.

Front 134

How many months must you have in the Air Force before you may attend the AirmanLeadership School (ALS)?

Back 134

48.

Front 135

Which program’s purpose is to ensure safe and healthy working conditions for all Air Forceemployees?

Back 135

Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH).

Front 136

Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) Standards are located within Air Forcepublication series

Back 136

91.

Front 137

How far does a propeller’s axis of rotation extend?

Back 137

10 feet to the front and 5 feet from the rear.

Front 138

When approaching or leaving a helicopter with the blades rotating, all personnel need toremain in full view of the

Back 138

pilot.

Front 139

Foreign object damage (FOD) is normally caused by

Back 139

people.

Front 140

Which of the following is a general physical classification of toxic materials?

Back 140

Gases.

Front 141

As a propulsion journeyman, during flight-line and test cell operations, you may be exposedto

Back 141

carbon monoxide.

Front 142

Which person or agency is responsible for providing you with training on how to wear, use,and maintain personal protective equipment (PPE)?

Back 142

Supervisor.

Front 143

What would you normally use to clean and sanitize respirators?

Back 143

Mild soap.

Front 144

Hazardous waste storage areas must prevent

Back 144

unauthorized entry.

Front 145

Containers holding hazardous waste must be clearly marked to show the contents and

Back 145

date the waste began to accumulate.

Front 146

A specialized function of the Supply mission is

Back 146

disposal.

Front 147

From what perspective does the Global Logistics Support Center (GLSC) manage supply?

Back 147

Weapons system.

Front 148

Which Base Supply function manages the repair cycle system?

Back 148

Repair Cycle Support System (RCSS).

Front 149

Selected equipment items, when returned to depot because of their design characteristicsfunction or application, are predetermined to require

Back 149

overhaul.

Front 150

Which supply document provides a means for organizations to review all documentnumbers processed during the day by the Standard Base Supply System (SBSS)?

Back 150

Daily Document Register (D04).

Front 151

When you have completed the removal of items such as engines, end items, componentsand sub-assemblies, you complete AFTO Form 350 to identify

Back 151

the origin of an item.

Front 152

Which form do you submit when you determine that a first-time request part will become arecurring one and, therefore, the stock levels need to be adjusted?

Back 152

AF IMT 1996.

Front 153

Serviceable items, when received from supply and ready to use, each have an attachedDepartment of Defense (DD) Form

Back 153

1574.

Front 154

Which item is one that a storage time period must be assigned to ensure that it will performsatisfactorily over a specified period of time?

Back 154

Shelf-life.

Front 155

In the case of a failure trend that may contribute to accidents, deficiency reports (DR) areforwarded to

Back 155

higher headquarters.

Front 156

A Category I deficiency report (DR) is used to report a deficiency

Back 156

that, if uncorrected, will cause major loss or damage to equipment or a system.

Front 157

Within how many hours must Category I deficiency reports (DR) be forwarded to theoriginating point?

Back 157

24.

Front 158

Which type of items must be reflected on the Custodian Authorization/Custody ReceiptListing (CA/CRL)?

Back 158

Equipment authorization inventory data.

Front 159

When should new equipment account custodians receive training?

Back 159

Before signing for the account.

Front 160

The first section of a technical order (TO) number identifies the

Back 160

category and the aircraft mission type in the TO.

Front 161

In which type of technical order (TO) would you find a list of TOs for a specific category ofequipment?

Back 161

Index.

Front 162

Which technical order (TO) describes the Air Force TO system?

Back 162

00–5–1.

Front 163

Which type of technical manual (TM) is divided into tasks that cover a particularmaintenance action?

Back 163

Job Guide (JG).

Front 164

Which type of manual is used by maintenance personnel as a means of identifying andrectifying system or component malfunctions?

Back 164

Fault Isolation.

Front 165

Which time compliance technical order (TCTO) category is issued to correct hazardoussafety conditions that can result in a fatality or serious injury to personnel?

Back 165

Immediate action.

Front 166

Which technical order (TO) covers all information concerning the Air Force TO system?

Back 166

00–5–1.

Front 167

An Air Force technical order (AFTO) information management tool (IMT) Form 22,Technical Manual (TM) Change Recommendation and Reply, is not submitted for

Back 167

preliminary technical orders (TO).

Front 168

Which person or office makes sure the Air Force technical order (AFTO) informationmanagement tool (IMT) Form 22 is valid and warrants submission?

Back 168

Supervisor of initiator.

Front 169

Which Air Force technical order (AFTO) information management tool (IMT) Form 22recommendation would you submit that, if not corrected, could cause personnel injury or damageto equipment or property?

Back 169

Urgent.

Front 170

What are the two classifications of failures in the reliability centered maintenance (RCM)approach?

Back 170

Potential and functional.

Front 171

Which program integrates hardware, software, maintenance, and diagnostic processes toquantify and monitor/manage engine health?

Back 171

Engine trending and diagnostics (ET&D).

Front 172

The primary goal of the engine trending and diagnostics (ET&D) program is to prevent orlimit damage to turbine engines by

Back 172

early detection of performance degradation and/or failures.

Front 173

Within the engine trending and diagnostics (ET&D) program, to whom do flight-linepersonnel transfer collected data for analysis?

Back 173

Base engine maintenance shop.

Front 174

What drives the creation of a centralized rotatable pool (CRP)?

Back 174

Customer wait time and transportation constraints.

Front 175

Who maintains accountability of centralized repair facility (CRF) assets and reports theirstatus?

Back 175

Production supervisor.

Front 176

What supports base-level technicians by providing technical assistance and performing anyrepairs beyond their responsibility/capability?

Back 176

Depot maintenance.

Front 177

Depot level support includes depot field teams (DFT) and

Back 177

contract field teams (CFT).

Front 178

A primary objective of the engine reporting system is to

Back 178

maintain accurate and timely engine inventories.

Front 179

The key to making the Comprehensive Engine Management System (CEMS) work is

Back 179

accurate and timely data at the lowest level.

Front 180

For how many categories of reporting does the Comprehensive Engine Management System(CEMS) establish and maintain records?

Back 180

2.

Front 181

You should record the removal and replacement of engine accessories on which Air Forcetechnical order (AFTO) form?

Back 181

95.

Front 182

The purpose of the Lead the Fleet/Pacer programs is to

Back 182

determine distress modes of an engine and its subsystems in the field.

Front 183

How many years ahead should participating units accelerate engines, modules, andaccessories?

Back 183

2.

Front 184

You should wear eye protection when you work

Back 184

with tools that may cause flying particles.

Front 185

What would you use to hold your tools when you cannot locate your toolbox within arm’sreach?

Back 185

Tool bag.

Front 186

Which technical order (TO) covers calibration procedures for torque wrenches?

Back 186

33K6 series.

Front 187

If you must torque a sequence of three or more bolts,

Back 187

use a staggered sequence.

Front 188

The length of a torque extension is determined by the distance between the center of thesquare drive and the center of the

Back 188

broached opening.

Front 189

The longest calibrated movement between the spindle and anvil of an outside micrometer is

Back 189

1 inch.

Front 190

The vernier scale on a micrometer is used to read measurements in

Back 190

ten-thousandths of an inch.

Front 191

Where is the contact point on a dial indicator located?

Back 191

At the end of a pivoted lever.

Front 192

How many range settings can you use when measuring voltage with the Fluke 8025A?

Back 192

4.

Front 193

One reason the borescope inspection is not intended to take the place of, or be as thoroughas, a periodic teardown inspection is because

Back 193

limited access ports are available.

Front 194

A rigid borescope requires

Back 194

a direct and lateral straight shot at the inspection area.

Front 195

When operating a borescope, what part of the borescope illuminates the interior of the areayou’re inspecting?

Back 195

Distal tip light guides.

Front 196

Which type of borescope misuse causes a poor field of view (black spots)?

Back 196

Application of lateral (pinching) pressure to the fiber bundle.

Front 197

Do not use self-locking nuts on

Back 197

engine joints.

Front 198

Which type of nut should never be used in areas where the temperature exceeds 250F?

Back 198

Nonmetallic self-locking.

Front 199

The shank of a screw is defined as the

Back 199

combination of the body and the threads.

Front 200

When installing a self-taping screw, the hole must be

Back 200

slightly smaller than the screw.

Front 201

What type of washer would you use to prevent scoring of machined surfaces?

Back 201

Plain.

Front 202

To prevent damage to the soft metal surfaces and a lock washer is required, what shouldyou use?

Back 202

Plain washer underneath the lock washer.

Front 203

Cotter pins are used for safetying various units such as

Back 203

castellated nuts.

Front 204

When you are lock wiring two units together, the first unit holes should be between whato’clock positions?

Back 204

3 and 6.

Front 205

When lock wiring, how many twists per inch are required to produce the proper stiffness?

Back 205

8 to 10.

Front 206

You can identify the various system lines used to transfer fluids and gases on jet engines by

Back 206

the color-code bands placed around the tubing or hoses.

Front 207

When removing or installing tubing from jet engine components, what numerical value isgiven to a fitting used on tubing that measures 3/8 inch?

Back 207

6.

Front 208

When removing components from a jet engine, why is it necessary to carefully removeclamps when disconnecting tubes from those components?

Back 208

For the prevention of nicks and scratches.

Front 209

After any jet engine maintenance has been performed, why is it necessary that dust caps beinstalled over tube ends rather than inside them?

Back 209

Avoids possibility of leaving caps installed.

Front 210

Which type of hose assemblies are exempt from shelf-life storage?

Back 210

Teflon.

Front 211

Never use oil as an aid to installing

Back 211

self-sealing hoses.

Front 212

When disassembling the oil filter, why should you always use a clean container?

Back 212

To prevent false contaminant indications.

Front 213

What do you use to seal male flared-type fuel drain fittings on an engine being prepared forair shipment?

Back 213

Caps.

Front 214

You must completely seal an engine being prepared for an air shipment to prevent

Back 214

flight safety from being adversely affected.

Front 215

Preservation of a component being shipped is required when it is being returned to depot orstored for more than how many days?

Back 215

30.

Front 216

The shroud-type jet engine cover consists of a buildup of how many layers of wrap?

Back 216

3.

Front 217

Which technical order (TO) covers the disposition of engines removed from aircraftinvolved in mishaps?

Back 217

2J–1–19.

Front 218

If a stored engine/module is in the shipping container, the container will be sealed andpressurized with dry nitrogen to what pounds per square inch, gauge (psig)?

Back 218

5 ± 1.

Front 219

To release the internal air pressure in a shipping container/module, you must remove the

Back 219

filler valve on the front end of the container.

Front 220

When removing the shipping container lid from the shipping container, how much are theturnlock fasteners turned?

Back 220

1/4 turn.

Front 221

What color is a serviceable humidity indicator on a shipping container?

Back 221

Blue.

Front 222

How many pins secure the adapters to the shipping container support?

Back 222

4.

Front 223

During the “over 180 days” engine preservation period, the fuel system is maintained full of

Back 223

MIL-L–6081 (grade 1010).

Front 224

To prepare the jet engine fuel system for service after depreservation, you must flush thesystem with

Back 224

fuel.

Front 225

When can you consider a depreserved jet engine ready for service?

Back 225

Only after a ground check run of the engine has been performed.

Front 226

Which factor is important in causing corrosion?

Back 226

Water.

Front 227

On the personnel maintenance platforms, the purpose of the platform safety lockpins is to

Back 227

prevent the platform from lowering while it is in use.

Front 228

You adjusted the maintenance platform to 4 feet? Which platform are you using?

Back 228

B–4.

Front 229

You adjust the maintenance platform between 7 and 12 feet? Which platform are you using?

Back 229

B–5.

Front 230

What information is found in Part I of an Air Force technical order (AFTO) Form 244,Industrial/Support Equipment Record?

Back 230

Item identification.

Front 231

“An unbalanced force on a body produces or tends to produce acceleration in the direction ofthe force and that the acceleration, if any, is directly proportional to the force and inverselyproportional to the mass of the body.” This statement is

Back 231

Newton’s second law of motion.

Front 232

Which type of duct would decrease the velocity and increase the pressure of a gas as it passesthrough?

Back 232

Divergent.

Front 233

What does fuel for an engine represent?

Back 233

Potential energy.

Front 234

Which section of a jet engine continually supplies air and maintains pressure?

Back 234

Compressor.

Front 235

Which section of a jet engine introduces and burns fuel?

Back 235

Combustion.

Front 236

Which section of a jet engine keeps the compressor rotating?

Back 236

Turbine.

Front 237

Through which section of a jet engine is energy expended into the atmosphere, resulting inthrust?

Back 237

Exhaust.

Front 238

How many British thermal units (Btu) does the heat content per pound of kerosene produce?

Back 238

18,500.

Front 239

To measure barometric pressure, you would use a

Back 239

barometer.

Front 240

What is the sea-level atmospheric pressure in pounds per square inch (psi) at “standard day”conditions?

Back 240

14.7 psi.

Front 241

What effect does moisture content or humidity have on density of air in a jet engine?

Back 241

More moisture, less dense.

Front 242

What effect does the divergent design of a diffuser have on air pressure in a jet engine?

Back 242

Increases pressure.

Front 243

The air temperature of a jet engine gradually rises across the compressor to the diffuseroutlet as a result of

Back 243

compression.

Front 244

Where is the highest point of temperature reached in a jet engine?

Back 244

Combustion section.

Front 245

Which jet engine component meters fuel for combustion?

Back 245

Fuel control.

Front 246

What is the required velocity for air and gases flowing through a jet engine?

Back 246

Greater velocity exiting than entering.

Front 247

What is the general flow of gases from the combustion chamber of the jet engine?

Back 247

Parallel to the axis of the rotor shaft.

Front 248

What directs the gases onto the first-stage turbine wheel blades in a jet engine?

Back 248

Turbine stator.

Front 249

When two or more turbine wheels are used in a jet engine, which component is placeddirectly in front of each turbine wheel?

Back 249

Turbine stator (nozzle diaphragm).

Front 250

The operation of any gas turbine engine, regardless of type, requires the provisions to bemade for three major functions. What are they?

Back 250

Compression of air, expansion of air by burning fuel, and extraction of power from gases fordriving the compressor and engine driven accessories.

Front 251

The three major sections of all jet engines are compressor, combustion, and

Back 251

turbine.

Front 252

Vane-type fuel pumps used in jet engines are similar to

Back 252

sliding-vane air compressors.

Front 253

Which condition reduces the efficiency of a centrifugal compressor?

Back 253

Pressure pulsations.

Front 254

A constructional feature of the centrifugal compressor is that the impeller

Back 254

is forged as a single unit.

Front 255

In a dual-spool compressor, revolutions per minute (rpm) of the N2 compressor aredetermined by the

Back 255

fuel control.

Front 256

The jet engine compressor that is cheaper to manufacture is the

Back 256

centrifugal type, because of its fewer parts.

Front 257

Which is a constructional feature of an axial-flow compressor casing?

Back 257

Split horizontal centerline.

Front 258

The percentage of combustion efficiency of a gas turbine is usually between

Back 258

95 and 100.

Front 259

Which facet of jet engine design helps prevent igniter plug fouling?

Back 259

Directing air around the plug.

Front 260

Carbon monoxide gas is poisonous and odorless, and has

Back 260

no color.

Front 261

What is the most chemically correct ratio for burning fuel in a combustion chamber of a jetengine?

Back 261

15:1.

Front 262

The excess airflow that is not burned in the combustion section of the jet engine is used to

Back 262

cool the burner surfaces.

Front 263

The inner and outer surfaces of an annular-type combustion chamber are formed by

Back 263

interlocking stainless-steel bands.

Front 264

Fuel that accumulates after a failed engine start is

Back 264

drained overboard by a drain system.

Front 265

The parts on a can-annular combustion section must be removed in a specific order becauseof the

Back 265

combustion chamber crossover tubes.

Front 266

What is the most common type of fuel nozzle system?

Back 266

Pressure-atomizing.

Front 267

Three types of turbine and vane assemblies used in jet engines are impulse, reaction, and

Back 267

reaction-impulse.

Front 268

In the reaction type turbine, what in the design causes the rotor to turn?

Back 268

The reduction in pressure and the increase in velocity of the exhaust gases occur in the passagebetween the rotor blades.

Front 269

The “fir tree” method of attaching turbine blades (buckets) to the turbine rotor disc ispreferred because

Back 269

of the temperature differential between the turbine rotor disc and the blades.

Front 270

Which method of attaching the turbine blades (buckets) to the turbine rotor disc is usedmost frequently?

Back 270

Series of grooves or notches broached in the rim of the turbine rotor disc.

Front 271

The exhaust duct connects the turbine outlet and the

Back 271

jet nozzle.

Front 272

The design of an exhaust duct straightens the exhaust gases as it leaves the last stage of theturbine section to provide for

Back 272

larger total thrust in a more efficient manner.

Front 273

The rear opening of the exhaust duct on the jet engine is referred to as the

Back 273

exhaust nozzle.

Front 274

Some jet engines are trimmed/adjusted to their correct exhaust gas temperature by analteration of what?

Back 274

Exhaust nozzle area.

Front 275

How many different types of loads can be imposed on a jet engine bearing?

Back 275

Three.

Front 276

Before inspecting new jet engine bearings, you should

Back 276

remove the preservative coating.

Front 277

Next to contamination and improper lubrication, what is the greatest enemy of antifrictionbearings?

Back 277

Improper removal.

Front 278

The most commonly used bearing removal tools include

Back 278

arbor presses and bearing pullers.

Front 279

Which type of defect appears on bearings as a result of bearing parts striking together?

Back 279

Nicks.

Front 280

Which type of bearing defect results from inadequate lubrication?

Back 280

Galling.

Front 281

Excessive bearing wear can usually be detected by

Back 281

roughness of the metal.

Front 282

Before you install separable bearings in a jet engine, you must make sure the

Back 282

bearings are a matched set.

Front 283

To cause an accessory in a jet engine to operate at its most optimum speed, design engineersmust

Back 283

change the gear ratio.

Front 284

On an F108 engine, the radial drive shaft connects the core engine to the

Back 284

accessory drive assembly.

Front 285

Which F108 major engine module provides for mounting of the front of the engine to theairframe?

Back 285

Fan major module.

Front 286

Power to drive the accessory gearbox (AGB) on the F108 engine is transmitted from the

Back 286

accessory major module.

Front 287

F108 structural rigidity is obtained with a short length and by having only two mainstructures that are called

Back 287

mainframes.

Front 288

Primary airflow in the F108 engine is through all of the following components except the

Back 288

accessory gearbox.

Front 289

Which types of load does the No. 2 bearing take up in the F108 engine?

Back 289

Radial.

Front 290

The F108 engine has an air duct through the inside diameter of the core compressor rotorthat forms a flow path for

Back 290

pressurizing and cooling airflow.

Front 291

On the F108 engine, the combustion chamber is of which design type?

Back 291

Annular.

Front 292

On the F108 engine, the low-pressure turbine (LPT) shaft assembly connects the fan shaftwith the

Back 292

LPT rotor.

Front 293

On the F108 engine, as gases flow through the convergent passageways of the low-pressureturbine (LPT) nozzle their pressure drops, and their axial velocity

Back 293

increases.

Front 294

The F108 engine turbine frame is the engine rear main structural component, and it supportsthe

Back 294

LPT rotor rear section.

Front 295

On the F108 engine, what connects the inlet gearbox (IGB) to the transfer gearbox (TGB)bevel gears?

Back 295

Radial drive shaft.

Front 296

On the F108 engine, how is the transfer gearbox (TGB) is mounted to the fan case?

Back 296

By a single clevis-and-link rod-mounting arrangement.

Front 297

On the TF34 jet engine, the fan forward shaft, bolted to the aft side of the double disc, issupported by

Back 297

both the No. 1 thrust ball bearing and the No. 2 roller bearing.

Front 298

The single-stage fan rotor on the TF34 jet engine provides what percentage of the enginesthrust?

Back 298

85 percent.

Front 299

On the TF34 jet engine ,which strut does the fan speed pickup protrude through to thenumber two bearing locknut?

Back 299

9 o’clock.

Front 300

The compressor inlet temperature sensor is mounted on the outer surface of the splitter noseat what “o’clock” position on the TF34 jet engine?

Back 300

9 o’clock.

Front 301

How many stages of compressor blades are in the TF34 engine?

Back 301

14.

Front 302

Why is the compressor stator case split horizontally?

Back 302

To allow access to the compressor rotor.

Front 303

What stages of compressor vanes are variable in the TF34 engine?

Back 303

Stages 15.

Front 304

What type of combustion liner does the TF34 have?

Back 304

Annular.

Front 305

On the TF34 jet engine, the first-stage nozzle consists of 24 cast segments with how manyvanes in each segment?

Back 305

2.

Front 306

What is purpose of the low-pressure turbine (LPT) transition assembly?

Back 306

To funnel hot gases from the HPT rotor to the larger diameter LPT rotor.

Front 307

On the TF34 jet engine, which strut is used to port seventh stage compressor air into the C-sump area to pressurize the number six carbon seal?

Back 307

12 o’clock.

Front 308

Which of these items does not belong to the TF34engine accessories section?

Back 308

Compressor stator.

Front 309

In order to facilitate borescoping the engine, what is provided for rotating the high-pressurerotor system and where is it located?

Back 309

A gearbox cranking pad located between the lube and fuel pump pads.

Front 310

Which one of these compressor section subsystems does not belong on the F117-PW-100jet engine?

Back 310

High-pressure turbine (HPT) group.

Front 311

The high-pressure compressor (HPC) group on the F117-PW-100 jet engine consists ofhow many rotor stages and how many stages of stators surrounded by a two section titanium andsteel case?

Back 311

12 rotors and 12 stators.

Front 312

How many exit vanes make up the compressor exit stator assembly on the F117-PW-100jet engine

Back 312

72.

Front 313

The combustion chamber assembly provides the optimum environment for combustion anddirects the flow of

Back 313

hot gases to the turbine nozzle.

Front 314

Which of these turbine section subsystems does not belong on the F117PW100 jetengine?

Back 314

Low-pressure compressor (LPC) nozzle group.

Front 315

Which one of these components is not an engine accessory component on the F117-PW-100 jet engine?

Back 315

Radial drive shaft.

Front 316

Which one of the listed components is not an aircraft accessory component on the F117-PW-100 jet engine?

Back 316

Low-pressure turbine (LPT) module.

Front 317

What could be a cause of a compressor stall when there is a reduction or restriction of air atthe air inlet?

Back 317

Icing of the aircraft or the engine inlet.

Front 318

Which subsystem is not included in the oil system?

Back 318

Monitoring.

Front 319

On the TF33 engine, where on the intermediate compressor case is the oil tank mounted?

Back 319

Right.

Front 320

What type oil pump is on the TF33 engine?

Back 320

Two section, single stage, gear driven.

Front 321

Which subsystem is not part of the oil indicating system?

Back 321

Scavenge.

Front 322

What happens if the generator frequency becomes unstable?

Back 322

Accuracy of electronic equipment is affected.

Front 323

A generator’s voltage output is roughly proportional to its

Back 323

revolutions per minute.

Front 324

How many electrical phases does a TF33 engine driven generator produce?

Back 324

3.

Front 325

The generator control unit provides system protection and control, and

Back 325

voltage regulation.

Front 326

During TF34 engine start, all fuel, up to a flow rate of how many pounds per square inch,will bypass the oil cooler?

Back 326

350.

Front 327

The TF34 fuel pump consists of a low and high pressure stage, relief valve, and a

Back 327

pressure regulating valve.

Front 328

How many pounds per square inch does the TF34 fuel pump boost stage increase the fuelinlet pressure?

Back 328

80.

Front 329

When the red warning button is popped out on the fuel filter housing it indicates

Back 329

fuel is bypassing the filter element.

Front 330

The splined coupling engine shaft transmits a signal of the core engine speed (the highpressure compressor and high pressure turbine speeds) to what fuel system component?

Back 330

Main fuel control.

Front 331

Where is the excess metered fuel, from the servo and fuel pump discharge fuel, bypassedback to?

Back 331

Inlet of the primary main pumping element.

Front 332

Metered fuel is supplied to the fuel distributor through the

Back 332

quick engine change fuel flow transmitter and oil cooler.

Front 333

On engine shutdown, as fuel pressure decreases to below 40–60 pounds per square inch,the drain valve in the fuel distributor moves to the left

Back 333

opening the drain, shutting off fuel flow to the distributor.

Front 334

On the TF34–100A engine, injector 13 is configured differently to

Back 334

provide clearance between the injector and fuel control.

Front 335

Under hot fuel conditions at the combustor inlet, the altitude starting capability of theTF34–100A engine

Back 335

is diminished.

Front 336

During start up, all fuel flow up to how many pounds per hour, is forced through thebypass line around the oil cooler?

Back 336

350.

Front 337

Which type of fuel system is used in the TF34–100A engine to prevent spontaneouscombustion of residual fuel after engine shutdown?

Back 337

Shutdown drain system.

Front 338

The F108-CF–201 engine monitoring system data that is incorporated as part of the flightdata recorder is used to determine

Back 338

the need for maintenance before an engine failure occurs.

Front 339

Data that is recorded for each engine is downloaded and distributed via the

Back 339

computer card.

Front 340

All of the options listed below are proper troubleshooting practices except

Back 340

inspecting other areas after isolating trouble between points.

Front 341

In what format do technical orders present aircraft power plant and engine intermediatemaintenance troubleshooting procedures?

Back 341

Troubleshooting charts.

Front 342

To become an expert troubleshooter, you must

Back 342

understand the function of each component within each system.

Front 343

On an F108 engine, which manifold is the anti-ice air supplied from?

Back 343

Pneumatic.

Front 344

On an F–108 engine, during which engine operation can the anti-ice valve be manuallylocked?

Back 344

Shutdown or idling.

Front 345

The inlet duct used on multiengine subsonic aircraft (like the C–5 or C–17) has a diameterthat progressively

Back 345

increases from the front to the back.

Front 346

The compressor bleed system reduces the probability of a compressor stall in a dual-rotorengine by

Back 346

reducing the amount of air available to the high-pressure compressor.

Front 347

What stage of the compressor airflow provides the cooling air for the turbine nozzle vanes?

Back 347

Last.

Front 348

On an F108-CF–100 engine, the direction of the variable bleed valve rotation is controlledby the

Back 348

fuel gear motor.

Front 349

On an F108-CF–100 engine, which cable relays the variable bleed valve position to themain engine control as the valve approaches the commanded closed position?

Back 349

Feedback.

Front 350

One type of aerodynamic blockage thrust reverser uses

Back 350

vanes inside the duct to create swirling gases.

Front 351

How many core blocker doors are on the F117-PW–100 engine?

Back 351

7.

Front 352

The function of the fuel pump on a F117 is to provide fuel directly to the fuel

Back 352

control.

Front 353

What two components operate together to provide the thrust management system for theF117?

Back 353

Electronic engine control and fuel control unit.

Front 354

A typical jet engine exhaust gas temperature indicating system contains thermocouples,thermocouple leads, an indicator, and a

Back 354

resistor.

Front 355

What fuel-flow system component of a jet engine operates by using a water wheel concept?

Back 355

Transmitter.

Front 356

Two units that work together to indicate the oil system is operating correctly is the oilpressure

Back 356

transmitter and indicator.

Front 357

An oil pressure transmitter contains a mechanical section and a

Back 357

synchronous unit.

Front 358

Where is the tachometer drive located that operates the high compressor rotor tachometergenerator?

Back 358

Engine accessory section.

Front 359

What switch is pushed during an operational check of the fire warning system?

Back 359

TEST.

Front 360

The test cell exhaust gas temperature (EGT) selector allows selection of

Back 360

individual thermocouple inputs or an average of these inputs.

Front 361

Within how many revolutions per minute is the accuracy of the test cell low and highpressure compressor speed indicators?

Back 361

2.

Front 362

What type of vibration causes unnecessary engine removals and unwarranted repairs?

Back 362

Externally excited.

Front 363

During vibration analysis, frequency is usually measured in

Back 363

cycles per second.

Front 364

Which type of vibration transducer is made up of certain ceramic compounds and naturalcrystals?

Back 364

Piezoelectric accelerometer.

Front 365

The filter selector switch on the vibration analyzer

Back 365

allows selection of the necessary filter to remove the natural vibration frequencies of a specificengine.

Front 366

What supports the fan and low-pressure turbine of a jet engine?

Back 366

Bearings.

Front 367

Written instructions for safe flight-line vehicle operations are found in

Back 367

Air Force Occupational, Safety, and Health Standard 91–100.

Front 368

Where are the two pressure gauges connected when conducting a jet engine oil systempressure check?

Back 368

Output side of the main oil pump and the vent system.

Front 369

Which motoring check allows you to start the auxiliary power unit without advancing the jetengine throttle to idle?

Back 369

Dry.

Front 370

Where do the primary air silencers, that are designed to reduce the high-frequency turbinewhine of a jet engine, fit on an aircraft?

Back 370

On the aircraft fuselage.

Front 371

What forms most of the test bay portion sidewalls of a hush house?

Back 371

Air inlet modules.

Front 372

What hush house piece of equipment allows for positioning of the removed engine directlyin front of the augmentor tube?

Back 372

Thrust stand.

Front 373

What establishes the time intervals for visual inspections and periodic maintenancerequirements for the hush house?

Back 373

Technical orders.

Front 374

What is the first step in engine testing?

Back 374

Determine the type of engine maintenance performed before coming into the test facility.

Front 375

What are the two types of engine test cells currently used in the Air Force?

Back 375

Fixed and portable.

Front 376

Engines are mounted in the fixed test cell on a thrust stand or are suspended

Back 376

from a cradle mount.

Front 377

In the fixed test cell, where does the engine intake air come from?

Back 377

Ceiling.

Front 378

On the portable test cell, the swivel pads at the bottom of the leveling jacks on the enginethrust trailer provide for all of the following except

Back 378

support the thrust trailer at a high of 80 inches.

Front 379

The noise suppressor on a portable test cell is not equipped with

Back 379

a fuel trailer.

Front 380

In what condition should an engine arrive at the engine test cell?

Back 380

Operable with all known discrepancies corrected.

Front 381

What must be quickly moved to the “OFF” position should an unsatisfactory engine startoccur in the engine test cell?

Back 381

Engine throttle.

Front 382

What can an improperly rigged throttle linkage cause during an engine test cell run?

Back 382

Engine overspeed.

Front 383

What action should be taken when making engine model and serial number entries on thetest cell engine log sheet?

Back 383

Verify these numbers against the engine data plate.

Front 384

What happens to jet engine efficiency as the operational hours increase?

Back 384

Deteriorates due to wear.

Front 385

When making adjustments to any of the engine systems to bring them to specificationduring a test cell run, adjust the device

Back 385

up, not down to the required limit.

Front 386

How can the turbine outlet pressure total at station number 7 be varied during an engine testcell trim?

Back 386

Adjusting the fuel control.

Front 387

When adjusting the fuel control during an engine test run, you can get the temperature andbarometric pressure from equipment at the test cell site or from

Back 387

the base air traffic control tower.

Front 388

What item is used with the applicable technical order to inspect a test facility?

Back 388

Periodic inspection checklists.

Front 389

How often are service inspections conducted on an engine test cell?

Back 389

Daily.

Front 390

Primary job aids that outline minimum inspection requirements are called

Back 390

inspection work cards.

Front 391

Which inspection is a flight preparedness check?

Back 391

Pre-flight.

Front 392

A basic post-flight inspection is completed

Back 392

after the last flight of the flying period.

Front 393

What type inspection is completed on aircraft parts that require infrequent inspections?

Back 393

Periodic.

Front 394

What inspection is completed on all newly assigned aircraft and engines?

Back 394

Acceptance.

Front 395

Which inspection is conducted by maintenance personnel after an occurrence of a specificor unusual condition?

Back 395

Special.

Front 396

A cold compressor stall that occurs at low revolutions per minute and is accompanied by aslight over temperature is called

Back 396

an incipient.

Front 397

Where is a compressor blade most likely to fail?

Back 397

Near the blade root.

Front 398

Turbine rotor blade failure usually occurs near what part of the blade?

Back 398

Middle.

Front 399

What is the cause of most bearing failures?

Back 399

Complete loss of lubrication.

Front 400

The pneumatic bled air from a small gas turbine engine cannot be used to

Back 400

inflate aircraft tires.

Front 401

On a gas turbine compressor power unit 165, where is the air compressed by the single-stage centrifugal compressor assembly discharged into?

Back 401

Vaned deswirl assembly.

Front 402

How are the impeller wheel and two turbine wheels in the turbine section of the gas turbinecompressor power unit 165 engine connected?

Back 402

Couplings on a common shaft.

Front 403

What controls the turbine discharge temperature during a loaded condition on a gas turbinecompressor power unit 165 engine?

Back 403

Pneumatic thermostat.

Front 404

What component provides the shaft drives for the accessories group that is located in theforward housing of a gas turbine compressor power unit 165 engine?

Back 404

Housing assembly set gear.

Front 405

Which signals are used by the fuel control unit to control engine operation on a gas turbinecompressor power unit 165 engine?

Back 405

Engine speed and pneumatic thermostat (load control) air pressure.

Front 406

Which component shuts the engine down if the oil pressure drops below the safe minimumoperating limit on a gas turbine compressor power unit 165 engine?

Back 406

Oil pressure switch.

Front 407

Where is air for the load control system extracted from on a gas turbine compressor powerunit 165 engine?

Back 407

Turbine plenum assembly.

Front 408

Which functions form a maintenance group?

Back 408

Maintenance operations, maintenance, aircraft maintenance, and QA.

Front 409

To which flight is the engine management section assigned?

Back 409

Maintenance Operations.

Front 410

Who monitors flying and maintenance schedules and maintains visibility of fleet healthindicators?

Back 410

Maintenance Operations Center.

Front 411

What does the fifth position of the Air Force specialty code (AFSC) 3A652 represent?

Back 411

Specific AFSC.

Front 412

What will be your title once you obtain the 7-skill level?

Back 412

Craftsman.

Front 413

What type of training is provided to help you learn the knowledge portion of your job?

Back 413

Career development course.

Front 414

How many months must you have in the Air Force before you may attend the AirmanLeadership School (ALS)?

Back 414

48.

Front 415

Air Force occupational safety and health (AFOSH) standards are located within Air Forcepublication series

Back 415

91.

Front 416

Which piece of personal protective equipment is required to avoid potential hazards whenlifting heavy objects?

Back 416

Safety-toed boots.

Front 417

Which Air Force instruction defines quality maintenance and requires maintenancepersonnel to display integrity and comply with all written guidance?

Back 417

21–101.

Front 418

Prior to starting any maintenance on the aircraft, what can you do to ensure that it is safe toproceed?

Back 418

Check with other personnel working inside or outside the aircraft.

Front 419

How far does a propeller’s axis of rotation extend?

Back 419

10 feet to the front and 5 feet from the rear.

Front 420

In order to avoid the engine exhaust blast, what is the minimum distance to the rear of theaircraft?

Back 420

200 feet.

Front 421

Foreign object damage (FOD) is normally caused by

Back 421

people.

Front 422

Who has overall responsibility for the foreign object damage (FOD) program?

Back 422

Vice Wing commander.

Front 423

Toxic materials are easiest to get into the body and cause rapid toxic reactions when theyare in the form of

Back 423

gases.

Front 424

Who is responsible for providing you with training on how to wear, use, and maintainpersonal protective equipment?

Back 424

Supervisor.

Front 425

What would you normally use to clean and sanitize respirators?

Back 425

Mild soap.

Front 426

Hazardous waste storage areas must prevent

Back 426

unauthorized entry.

Front 427

Containers holding hazardous waste must be clearly marked to show the contents and

Back 427

date the waste began to accumulate.

Front 428

A specialized function of the supply mission is

Back 428

disposal.

Front 429

From what perspective does the Global Logistics Support Center (GLSC) manage supply?

Back 429

Weapons system.

Front 430

Selected equipment items, when returned to depot because of their design characteristicsfunction or application, are predetermined to require

Back 430

overhaul.

Front 431

Which supply document provides a means for organizations to review all documentnumbers processed during the day by the Standard Base Supply System (SBSS)?

Back 431

Daily Document Register (D04).

Front 432

Base Supply must deliver numerous parts to numerous organizations on a prioritized basisbecause of the differences in each organization’s

Back 432

mission.

Front 433

What does a completed Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 350 serve to identify?

Back 433

Origin of an item.

Front 434

If you need detailed information concerning codes and entries on the Air Force InformationManagement Tool (IMT) Form 2005, Issue/Turn-In Request, refer to Air Force Manual

Back 434

23–110.

Front 435

Items that are awaiting parts or maintenance are each required to have an attachedDepartment of Defense (DD) Form

Back 435

1575.

Front 436

When a bench stock item has a type I shelf-life, it means the item

Back 436

has a definite nonextendible period of shelf-life.

Front 437

A Category I deficiency report (DR) is used to report a deficiency

Back 437

that, if uncorrected, will cause major loss or damage to equipment or a system.

Front 438

Within how many hours must Category I deficiency reports (DR) be forwarded to theoriginating point?

Back 438

24.

Front 439

Which type of items must be reflected on the Custodian Authorization/Custody ReceiptListing (CA/CRL)?

Back 439

Equipment authorization inventory data.

Front 440

To become an equipment custodian, you must be appointed by the

Back 440

commander.

Front 441

When should new equipment account custodians receive training?

Back 441

Before signing for the account.

Front 442

The second section of a technical order (TO) number gives the

Back 442

model and series for equipment type.

Front 443

Which technical order (TO) describes the Air Force TO system?

Back 443

00–5–1.

Front 444

Which type of technical manual is divided into tasks that cover a particular maintenanceaction?

Back 444

Job Guide.

Front 445

What section of the Illustrated Parts Breakdown (IPB) contains definitions of the codes usedin the IPB?

Back 445

Introduction.

Front 446

What time compliance technical order (TCTO) category is issued to correct hazardoussafety conditions that can result in a fatality or serious injury to personnel?

Back 446

Immediate action.

Front 447

Who originates technical orders?

Back 447

Equipment manufacturer.

Front 448

An Air Force technical order (AFTO) information management tool (IMT) Form 22,Technical Manual (TM) Change Recommendation and Reply, is not submitted for

Back 448

Preliminary technical orders (TO).

Front 449

Who makes sure the Air Force technical order (AFTO) information management tool (IMT)Form 22 is valid and warrants submission?

Back 449

Supervisor of initiator.

Front 450

What are the two classifications of failures in the reliability centered maintenance (RCM)approach?

Back 450

Potential and functional.

Front 451

In the reliability centered maintenance (RCM) approach, which preventative maintenancetask is a scheduled inspection to detect a potential failure condition?

Back 451

On condition.

Front 452

Which program integrates hardware, software, maintenance, and diagnostic processes toquantify and monitor/manage engine health?

Back 452

Engine trending and diagnostics (ET&D).

Front 453

Within the engine trending and diagnostics (ET&D) program, to whom do flight-linepersonnel transfer collected data for analysis?

Back 453

Base engine maintenance shop.

Front 454

Which technicians provide maintenance activity data to the engine trending and diagnostics(ET&D) program?

Back 454

Propulsion and nondestructive inspection.

Front 455

Centralized repair facilities (CRF) provide support for whom?

Back 455

War fighters.

Front 456

Who maintains accountability of centralized repair facility (CRF) assets and reports theirstatus?

Back 456

Production supervisor.

Front 457

Depot maintenance provides support to base-level technicians by

Back 457

providing technical assistance and performing repairs beyond their capability.

Front 458

Depot level support includes depot field teams (DFT) and

Back 458

contract field teams (CFT).

Front 459

A primary objective of the engine reporting system is to

Back 459

maintain accurate and timely engine inventories.

Front 460

The key to making the comprehensive engine management system (CEMS) work is

Back 460

accurate and timely data at the lowest level.

Front 461

You should record the removal and replacement of engine accessories on the following AirForce technical order (AFTO) Forms

Back 461

95.

Front 462

Which is not a Lead the Fleet/Pacer program objective?

Back 462

Reducing customer wait time for serviceable assets.

Front 463

How many years ahead should participating units accelerate engines, modules, andaccessories?

Back 463

2.

Front 464

Carrying a handtool in your pocket is potentially hazardous because it could cause

Back 464

injury to you.

Front 465

You should wear eye protection when you work

Back 465

with tools that may cause flying particles.

Front 466

What would you use to hold your tools when you cannot locate your toolbox within arm’sreach?

Back 466

Tool bag.

Front 467

If you must torque a sequence of three or more bolts,

Back 467

use a staggered sequence.

Front 468

The length of a torque extension is determined by the distance between the center of thesquare drive and the center of the

Back 468

broached opening.

Front 469

What type of rule should you use for measuring an inside diameter?

Back 469

Slide caliper.

Front 470

If you were tasked to measure the clearance between two surfaces, what type of gaugewould you use?

Back 470

Thickness gauge.

Front 471

The longest calibrated movement between the spindle and anvil of an outside micrometer is

Back 471

1 inch.

Front 472

What feature is common to all dial indicators?

Back 472

Ability to amplify movement greatly.

Front 473

The Fluke 8025A multimeter control that is used to set the meter to check for alternatingcurrent (AC) and direct current (DC) is the

Back 473

function selector rotary switch.

Front 474

If the input into the Fluke 8025A meter is over the range being used, what will the digitaldisplay show?

Back 474

OL.

Front 475

What is the maximum voltage that can be measured if the range button is set at 30 on theFluke 8025A multimeter?

Back 475

32.

Front 476

What is the purpose of a borescope inspection on an assembled engine?

Back 476

Visually inspect internal sections.

Front 477

Light is transmitted to the tip of a borescope by

Back 477

the fiber optics.

Front 478

When operating a borescope, what part of the borescope illuminates the interior of the areayou’re inspecting?

Back 478

Distal tip light guides.

Front 479

Which factor is not considered for borescope operator certification?

Back 479

Age.

Front 480

Which type of borescope misuse causes a poor field of view (black spots)?

Back 480

Application of lateral (pinching) pressure to the fiber bundle.

Front 481

The grip length of a bolt should be a few thousandths of an inch shorter than the material itis holding to

Back 481

avoid bottoming out the nut.

Front 482

Which nuts should never be used in areas where the temperature exceeds 250°F?

Back 482

Nonmetallic self-locking nuts.

Front 483

How is a screw length measured?

Back 483

Top of the head to the bottom of the screw threads.

Front 484

When installing a self-taping screw, the hole must be

Back 484

slightly smaller than the screw.

Front 485

To prevent damage to the soft metal surfaces and a lock washer is required, what shouldyou use?

Back 485

Plain washer underneath the lock washer.

Front 486

What type of pin is used in joints that carry shear loads and where the absence of clearanceis essential?

Back 486

Tapered.

Front 487

When lock wiring, how many twists per inch are required to produce the proper stiffness?

Back 487

8 to 10.

Front 488

Why is it necessary to carefully remove support clamps when disconnecting tubes?

Back 488

Prevents nicking and scratching.

Front 489

Why should dust caps be installed over tube ends rather than inside them?

Back 489

Avoids possibility of leaving caps installed.

Front 490

Which type of hose assemblies are exempt from shelf-life storage?

Back 490

Teflon.

Front 491

What is one method of eliminating hose chafing?

Back 491

Use suitable bulkhead-type grommets.

Front 492

When you receive an engine in your shop, you should check the applicable forms and then

Back 492

check the compressor inlet.

Front 493

When disassembling the oil filter, why should you always use a clean container?

Back 493

To prevent false contaminant indications.

Front 494

Operating procedures and practices that if not strictly observed may result in damage toequipment are shown in the maintenance manuals in the form of

Back 494

cautions.

Front 495

Preservation of a component being shipped is required when it is being returned to depot orstored for more than how many days?

Back 495

30.

Front 496

The requirements for storing engines in a metal container is to maintain

Back 496

nitrogen pressure.

Front 497

What should you use to check for pressure leaks on an engine/module shipping container?

Back 497

A soap-water solution.

Front 498

To determine whether an engine stored in a shipping container is serviceable or repairable,look on the

Back 498

top half on the right panel of the container.

Front 499

Prior to removing a shipping container lid, what warning must be observed?

Back 499

Release all pressure before removing lid.

Front 500

How many pins secure the adapters to the shipping container support?

Back 500

4.

Front 501

During the “over 180 days” preservation period, the fuel system is maintained full of

Back 501

MIL-L–6081 (grade 1010).

Front 502

Engines inactive for over 180 days must have what accomplished?

Back 502

Preservation run and fuel system preservation.

Front 503

When can you consider a depreserved engine ready for service?

Back 503

Only after a ground check run of the engine has been performed.

Front 504

What is used to help remove moisture from an area where engines are stored?

Back 504

Desiccants.

Front 505

To dry an engine after water-washing a compressor, run the engine for at least

Back 505

2 minutes.

Front 506

On the personnel maintenance platforms, the purpose of the platform safety lockpins is to

Back 506

prevent the platform from lowering while it is in use.

Front 507

What information is found in Part I of an Air Force technical order (AFTO) Form 244,Industrial/Support Equipment Record?

Back 507

Item identification.

Front 508

An aircraft taxiing at a steady speed can be used to demonstrate

Back 508

Newton’s first law of motion.

Front 509

Newton’s third law of motion explains why an operating jet engine produces

Back 509

forward thrust.

Front 510

Which type of duct would decrease the velocity and increase the pressure of a gas as it passesthrough?

Back 510

Divergent.

Front 511

“The combination of decreased pressure above an airfoil, and the increased pressure belowthe airfoil produces lift” is best described by

Back 511

Bernoulli’s principle.

Front 512

Foot-pounds and inch-pounds are units of measure for

Back 512

work.

Front 513

What does fuel for an engine represent?

Back 513

Potential energy.

Front 514

Which section of a jet engine continually supplies air and maintains pressure?

Back 514

Compressor.

Front 515

The temperature of compressed air in a jet engine must be raised to

Back 515

increase energy.

Front 516

Which section of a jet engine introduces and burns fuel?

Back 516

Combustion.

Front 517

How many British thermal units (Btu) does the heat content per pound of kerosene produce?

Back 517

18,500.

Front 518

The efficiency of a jet engine is often referred to as

Back 518

thermal efficiency.

Front 519

The product of thermal efficiency and propulsive efficiency is

Back 519

overall efficiency.

Front 520

To measure barometric pressure, you would use a

Back 520

barometer.

Front 521

What effect does moisture content or humidity have on density of air?

Back 521

More moisture, less dense.

Front 522

Due to the divergent design of a diffuser, air pressure

Back 522

increases.

Front 523

The air temperature of a jet engine gradually rises across the compressor to the diffuseroutlet as a result of

Back 523

compression.

Front 524

Where is the highest point of temperature reached in an engine?

Back 524

Combustion section.

Front 525

Which engine component meters fuel for combustion?

Back 525

Fuel control.

Front 526

What happens to the energy that is absorbed by the turbine wheel?

Back 526

It is returned to the compressor.

Front 527

What is the required velocity for air and gases flowing through a jet engine?

Back 527

Greater velocity exiting than entering.

Front 528

The velocity of the stream of air that flows through a jet engine reaches its highest point atthe

Back 528

ejector nozzle.

Front 529

What is the general flow of gases from the combustion chamber?

Back 529

Parallel to the axis of the rotor shaft.

Front 530

Gases enter the jet-engine’s first-stage turbine wheel blades from the

Back 530

turbine stator.

Front 531

When two or more turbine wheels are used in a jet engine, which component is placeddirectly in front of each turbine wheel?

Back 531

Turbine stator (nozzle diaphragm).

Front 532

A jet engine derives its name from its design in that it uses

Back 532

an exhaust-gas-driven turbine wheel to drive its compressor.

Front 533

A turbo-supercharger is essentially a

Back 533

high-capacity air pump.

Front 534

The two forces that air is subjected to after it is drawn into the guide vanes of a centrifugalcompressor are

Back 534

rotational and centrifugal.

Front 535

A constructional feature of the centrifugal compressor is that the impeller

Back 535

is forged as a single unit.

Front 536

The jet engine compressor that is cheaper to manufacture is the

Back 536

centrifugal type, because of its fewer parts.

Front 537

Which is a constructional feature of an axial-flow compressor casing?

Back 537

Split along the horizontal centerline.

Front 538

The percentage of combustion efficiency of a gas turbine is usually between

Back 538

95 and 100.

Front 539

What is the most probable cause of a flameout of a jet engine flying at 40,000 feet with aconstant engine revolutions per minute (rpm) of 50 percent?

Back 539

The rpm is too low.

Front 540

The excess airflow that is not burned in the combustion section is used to

Back 540

mix with and cool the burned gases.

Front 541

The inner and outer surfaces of an annular-type combustion chamber are formed by

Back 541

interlocking stainless-steel bands.

Front 542

Fuel that accumulates after a failed start is

Back 542

drained overboard by a drain system.

Front 543

The parts on a can-annular combustion section must be removed in a specific order becauseof the

Back 543

combustion chamber crossover tubes.

Front 544

What is the most common type of fuel nozzle system?

Back 544

Pressure-atomizing.

Front 545

Three types of turbine and vane assemblies used in jet engines are impulse, reaction, and

Back 545

reaction-impulse.

Front 546

The “fir tree” method of attaching turbine blades (buckets) to the turbine rotor disc ispreferred because

Back 546

of the temperature differential between the turbine rotor disc and the blades.

Front 547

In a non-afterburning engine, the exhaust duct connects the turbine outlet and the

Back 547

jet nozzle.

Front 548

The purpose of the exhaust duct is to

Back 548

straighten exhaust gas-flow.

Front 549

What is one common type of variable-area orifice that is used on augmentors?

Back 549

Segmented-flap.

Front 550

The purpose of an augmentor (afterburner) in a jet engine is to

Back 550

augment the maximum thrust capability of the basic engine.

Front 551

How many different types of loads can be imposed on a jet engine bearing?

Back 551

Three.

Front 552

When you handle jet engine bearings, you must change cotton gloves frequently becausethey

Back 552

get soaked with sweat.

Front 553

Before inspecting new jet engine bearings, you should

Back 553

remove the preservative coating.

Front 554

Next to contamination and improper lubrication, what is the greatest enemy of antifrictionbearings?

Back 554

Improper removal.

Front 555

The most commonly used bearing removal tools include

Back 555

arbor presses and bearing pullers.

Front 556

Which type of defect appears on bearings as a result of bearing parts striking together?

Back 556

Nicks.

Front 557

Which type of defect appears on bearings as a result of small particles of foreign materialbecoming lodged between the rollers?

Back 557

Grooves.

Front 558

Excessive bearing wear can usually be detected by

Back 558

roughness of the metal.

Front 559

Before you install separable bearings, you must ensure the

Back 559

bearings are a matched set.

Front 560

Of the following, the recommended method of expanding a bearing race before installationis to use a

Back 560

hot-oil bath.

Front 561

The reduction gearbox on an F100–PW–220 engine reduces speed between the main fuelgear pump and the engine-driven main gearbox by

Back 561

52 percent.

Front 562

Which turbine stages on an F100–PW–220 engine drive the front compressor?

Back 562

Third and fourth.

Front 563

What is one advantage of a modular engine?

Back 563

Entire engines are not withheld from service.

Front 564

One advantage of the modular engine concept is that it eliminates the need to

Back 564

return whole engines to depot for overhaul.

Front 565

On which module of an F100–PW–220 engine is the stator generator mounted?

Back 565

Gearbox.

Front 566

When discussing a jet engine and the location of its parts, you must always do so as if youwere standing at the

Back 566

rear of engine.

Front 567

External flanges on the F100 engine are referred to by

Back 567

letter designations.

Front 568

On an F100–PW–220 engine, the leading edge vanes are hollow

Back 568

so that anti-icing air can flow through them.

Front 569

On an F100–PW–220 engine, the total temperature (Tt2) sensor sends electronic signals tothe

Back 569

digital electronic engine control (DEEC).

Front 570

The F100–PW–220 core module proximate splitter, which divides airflow from the frontcompressor into fan airflow and primary airflow, is contained in the

Back 570

compressor intermediate case.

Front 571

On an F100–PW–220 engine, which stages of compressor stator vanes are variable?

Back 571

Fourth and fifth.

Front 572

On an F100–PW–220 engine, which stage of compression provides anti-icing air for theengine inlet?

Back 572

Thirteenth.

Front 573

On an F100–PW–220 engine, which devices attach the combustion chamber assembly tothe diffuser case?

Back 573

Eight mounting bolts.

Front 574

On an F100–PW–220 engine, the front compressor drive turbine shaft is connected to thefront compressor rotor by

Back 574

the turbine shaft nut coupling.

Front 575

On an F100–PW–220 engine, the augmentor spray rings are pressure sensitive and canadjust their fuel nozzle openings in response to

Back 575

fuel pressure.

Front 576

Which component on an F100–PW–220 engine sends a signal to drive the primary actuatorflexible shaft?

Back 576

Convergent exhaust nozzle control (CENC).

Front 577

On an F100–PW–220 engine, the gearbox module is driven by the rear compressor through

Back 577

a gearbox drive shaft.

Front 578

How many stages are in the inlet fan module of the F119–PW–100 engine?

Back 578

Three.

Front 579

Engine stations on the F119 engine are identified by

Back 579

numerical designations.

Front 580

In addition to the augmentor, what is the other major assembly on the F119–PW–100engine?

Back 580

Gearbox.

Front 581

Where is the No. 2 bearing located in the F119–PW–100 engine?

Back 581

Intermediate case.

Front 582

How many hollow inlet struts are contained within the inlet fan case of the F119 engine?

Back 582

21.

Front 583

What stage of compressor air provides anti-icing to the inlet guide vanes of the F119–PW–100 engine?

Back 583

9th.

Front 584

Where is the total temperature sensor (Tt2) located on a F119–PW–100 engine?

Back 584

Inside the fan inlet guide vane case at the 5:30 o’clock position.

Front 585

Where is the N1 sensor mounted on the F119–PW–100 engine?

Back 585

Intermediate case.

Front 586

How many stages are in the high pressure compressor (HPC) of a F119–PW–100 engine?

Back 586

6.

Front 587

On an F119–PW–100 engine, what function does the diffuser case serve other than housingthe combustor?

Back 587

Reduces the velocity of compressor discharge air.

Front 588

How many gas generator/core fuel nozzles are mounted on the diffuser case of the F119–PW–100 engine?

Back 588

24.

Front 589

What drives the inlet fan module (IFM) in the F119–PW–100 engine?

Back 589

Low-pressure turbine (LPT) module.

Front 590

Which bearing is located in the low-pressure turbine (LPT) module of the F119–PW–100engine?

Back 590

No. 5 bearing.

Front 591

On the F119–PW–100 engine, what connects the low-pressure turbine (LPT) to the inlet fanmodule?

Back 591

Tie-bolts.

Front 592

Where is the gearbox mounted on the F119–PW–100 engine and what drives it?

Back 592

6 o’clock position intermediate case; core module.

Front 593

How many liners are contained in the transition duct of the nozzle module on a F119–PW–100 engine?

Back 593

20.

Front 594

Which actuators position nozzle flaps to establish thrust vectoring angle on the F119–PW–100 engine?

Back 594

Divergent actuators.

Front 595

What is the function of the fan bypass ducts on the F119–PW–100 engine?

Back 595

Directing fan bypass air into the turbine exhaust case and augmentor duct for cooling.

Front 596

What is the composition of JP–8 fuel?

Back 596

Gasoline and kerosene.

Front 597

At room temperature, how many times longer will it take water to settle out of JP–8 than outof gasoline?

Back 597

Four.

Front 598

Jet aircraft operating at moderately high altitudes increase the fuel system’s susceptibility toan icing condition, further aggravated by the

Back 598

higher viscosity of jet fuels.

Front 599

The main fuel control allows the jet engine to safely accelerate, reducing the possibility of

Back 599

flameout.

Front 600

During a visual inspection, how can you tell when a fuel filter is clogged?

Back 600

A differential pressure indicator is actuated.

Front 601

On a dual-spool, axial-flow engine, what controls thrust production of the engine?

Back 601

Controlling turbine inlet temperature.

Front 602

During jet engine deceleration, a hydromechanical fuel control schedules fuel flow as afunction of

Back 602

burner pressure.

Front 603

What type of fuel control uses items such as thermocouples, relays, amplifiers, and solenoidsto help control a jet engine?

Back 603

Electrohydromechanical.

Front 604

Which term describes a jet engine fuel metering device that is really two fuel controls in onecomponent?

Back 604

Unified.

Front 605

The F100 UFC senses certain variables from the engine through the use of

Back 605

a closed loop design.

Front 606

If the safety seals on a fuel system component are broken or removed, and you suspect thefactory adjustment was altered, you should

Back 606

forward the component to the authorized depot for reflow and resealing.

Front 607

Calibration and/or adjustment screws that require setting during an engine trim proceduremust be

Back 607

safety sealed and/or lockwired.

Front 608

When in the primary mode, what controls the operation of the F100-PW–220 engine?

Back 608

DEEC.

Front 609

On an F100-PW–220 engine, the DEEC is cooled by

Back 609

fuel.

Front 610

For actuation of the variable vane systems on an F100-PW–220 engine, the MFC providesboth the CIVV and

Back 610

rear compressor variable vane actuators with fuel pressure.

Front 611

Which F100-PW–220 engine fuel system component controls pressurization of the coreengine fuel system?

Back 611

P&D valve.

Front 612

Which stage of compressor air drives the augmenter fuel pump on an F100-PW–220engine?

Back 612

13th.

Front 613

On the F100-PW–220 engine, which component controls the augmentor fuel control?

Back 613

DEEC.

Front 614

Core engine fuel flow sequence on an F100-PW–220 engine starts at the main fuel pumpand then goes through the

Back 614

MFC, fuel/oil cooler, P&D, and fuel nozzles.

Front 615

When classified as to structure, which of the following is not a type of an oil pump?

Back 615

Rotogear.

Front 616

Which type of oil pump consists of a gear and rotor within a housing?

Back 616

Gerotor.

Front 617

One micron is a metric linear measurement that is equal to

Back 617

1/25,000 inch.

Front 618

Chip detectors have an electrical connection for making which type of check?

Back 618

Continuity.

Front 619

Which type of valve permits oil flow in only one direction?

Back 619

Check.

Front 620

Which type of oil cooler operates on the same principle as a radiator in an automobile?

Back 620

Air/oil.

Front 621

The purpose of an oil-temperature control valve used with air/oil coolers is to

Back 621

direct oil around or through the cooler.

Front 622

What type of oil seal has soft metal as its basic composition and allows a small amount ofairflow to prevent oil seepage?

Back 622

Labyrinth.

Front 623

Use extreme care when working with labyrinth seals because of their

Back 623

soft metal construction; these seals can be damaged easily.

Front 624

When an engine is not operating, static preload for a carbon oil seal is provided by

Back 624

spring pressure.

Front 625

Carbon seals should be cleaned by soaking them in clean, warm

Back 625

engine lubricating oil for 30 minutes.

Front 626

The F100-PW–100 engine oil pressure varies with N2, engine inlet oil temperature, and

Back 626

oil nozzle condition.

Front 627

What term is used to indicate that air is being mixed with the oil in the oil pump to createpockets of air?

Back 627

Aeration.

Front 628

The number1, 4, and 5 bearing compartments are capped on the F100-PW–100 engine oilsystem. Which oil subsystem (or subsystems) do these compartments breathe through?

Back 628

Scavenge only.

Front 629

Which type of oil system stores the oil in a tank fitted to the side of the engine?

Back 629

Dry sump.

Front 630

Which type of oil system design places the oil cooler in the pressure subsystem?

Back 630

Hot tank.

Front 631

Which type of oil tank design do most fighter aircraft engines incorporate to help withweight savings?

Back 631

Hot tank.

Front 632

On an F100 engine, the breather pressurizing valve is internally mounted in the

Back 632

gearbox.

Front 633

If the red button on an F100-PW–220 engine oil filter pops out and remains extended, the

Back 633

design pressure differential has been exceeded.

Front 634

On an F100-PW–220 engine, the air/oil coolers are mounted on the fan duct and use

Back 634

secondary fan airflow as a coolant.

Front 635

On an F100-PW–220 engine, what component permits oil to bypass the oil filter during coldweather starts?

Back 635

Filter assembly bypass valve.

Front 636

On an F100-PW–220 engine, which bearing compartments drain into the gearbox by thetower shaft cavity?

Back 636

2 and 3.

Front 637

How does the AFTLA obtain oil samples for analysis?

Back 637

Automatically from the manufacturer.

Front 638

The hazardous property of modern jet engine oil the journeyman must be aware of is

Back 638

corrosiveness.

Front 639

Which action concerning open oil containers is correct?

Back 639

Dispose of any portion not immediately used.

Front 640

Through the use of spectrometric oil analysis, aircraft will have a higher in-commission ratebecause there will be

Back 640

less unnecessary maintenance.

Front 641

For bases that do not have an OAP laboratory, who designates the facility to which oilsamples are sent?

Back 641

Program manager.

Front 642

Who is responsible for ensuring that the OAP operates properly?

Back 642

Project monitor.

Front 643

What are microscopic metallic particles in the oil system called?

Back 643

Wear metals.

Front 644

Increased friction between moving parts in the oil system

Back 644

accelerates the rate of wear, increasing the production of wear metal particles.

Front 645

During an OAP sample collection, using your mouth to draw oil up into the plastic tubecould result in

Back 645

paralysis or death.

Front 646

Before taking an oil sample from a drain, drain enough fluid into a container in order to

Back 646

drain off water and sludge.

Front 647

Oil sampling intervals should not vary by more than

Back 647

10 percent.

Front 648

The SEM/EDX analysis process differs from conventional oil analysis in that theSEM/EDX

Back 648

particles must be oil free for analysis to take place.

Front 649

What is the term for the process of producing voltage in a conductor when it passes througha magnetic field?

Back 649

Electromagnetic induction.

Front 650

The difference between DC and AC is that DC

Back 650

has a constant polarity; AC changes direction at regular intervals.

Front 651

On a simple AC generator, which item takes the current from the slip rings to operate theelectrical device?

Back 651

Brushes.

Front 652

Which part of a generator acts as an automatic switching device, changing alternatingcurrent to direct current?

Back 652

Commutator.

Front 653

One function of the CSD governor system is to

Back 653

equalize the load between generators operating in parallel.

Front 654

Which component ensures the CSD output speed is always at the desired RPM to adjust andmaintain the desired 400 Hz?

Back 654

Frequency and load controller.

Front 655

What provides the PTO shaft that is used to drive the CSD?

Back 655

Engine adapter.

Front 656

How are the thermocouples connected in an averaging type of EGT circuit?

Back 656

Parallel.

Front 657

The slide-type resistor in the EGT circuit is used to

Back 657

calibrate the EGT indicator in the flight station.

Front 658

What is the primary input power to the main ignition system?

Back 658

28 VDC.

Front 659

How many sets of imbedded magnets does the rotor contain?

Back 659

Three.

Front 660

What does the EGT/T5.6 thermocouple consist of?

Back 660

Both alumel and chromel.

Front 661

Which unit of an AC ignition system develops 20,000 volts?

Back 661

Transformer.

Front 662

A simple DC ignition system consists of vibrator,

Back 662

igniter plugs, and transformer.

Front 663

How many independent circuits are within an F100-PW–100 engine ignition system?

Back 663

Three.

Front 664

(415) An F100-PW–100 engine augmentor igniter plug ionizes at a minimum rate of how manysparks per second?

Back 664

30.

Front 665

Which statement best describes the air turbine (impingement) starter?

Back 665

Has the advantages of less weight and fewer moving parts than other starters.

Front 666

The two air source requirements for a pneumatic starter to operate properly are sufficient

Back 666

volume and pressure.

Front 667

The JFS is basically a

Back 667

small gas turbine engine.

Front 668

Which item initially rotates the JFS?

Back 668

Hydraulic motor.

Front 669

Which type of combustion chamber does the JFS use?

Back 669

Annular.

Front 670

What engine section houses the JFS combustion section?

Back 670

Turbine plenum.

Front 671

Which item on the JFS provides pads for mounting the fuel atomizer assembly?

Back 671

Turbine plenum.

Front 672

The F-15 secondary power system does not include the

Back 672

CSD.

Front 673

Which component provides an electrical safety cutoff for the JFS if the power turbineaccelerates to a 110 percent overspeed condition?

Back 673

Power turbine overspeed switch.

Front 674

On the F-15 secondary power system CGB, how are the isolation decouplers extended?

Back 674

Hydraulically.

Front 675

Oil is supplied to the F-15 JFS through the

Back 675

CGB oil system.

Front 676

On an F-15, the power to start the engines begins with the JFS and continues through theCGB to the

Back 676

AMAD.

Front 677

On the F-15 secondary power system, what is used to stop the JFS starting cycle when theaircraft engine has accelerated to starter cutout speed?

Back 677

50-percent engine cutout switch assembly.

Front 678

Discharge air used for aircraft engine anti-icing to heat-critical areas is taken from whichengine area?

Back 678

Compressor.

Front 679

What is one of the first indications of ice formation at aircraft engine inlets?

Back 679

Compressor stall.

Front 680

On an F110-GE–129 engine, the anti-icing system prevents detrimental formation andaccumulation of ice on front frame struts, forward centerbody, and

Back 680

fan inlet guide vane flaps.

Front 681

On an F110-GE–129 engine, compressor bleed air is used for anti-icing, customer bleed,and

Back 681

low-pressure turbine cooling functions.

Front 682

What law does the C-D supersonic inlet use to slow down the airflow?

Back 682

Bernoulli’s law.

Front 683

The bleed air system is different from the variable vane system in that it

Back 683

bleeds off air after it has entered the engine.

Front 684

The compressor bleed system reduces the probability of compressor stall in a dual-rotorengine by

Back 684

reducing the amount of air available to the N2 compressor.

Front 685

The cooling air for turbine nozzle vanes comes from

Back 685

the last few stages of the compressor.

Front 686

Once the cooling airflow has done its job of cooling the turbine section, where does it go?

Back 686

Into the gas stream to exit the engine.

Front 687

The F110-GE–129 engine controls airflow through the engine with the

Back 687

IGVs and VSVs.

Front 688

Below what percentage of core engine speed are the VSV fully closed (cambered) on anF110-GE–129 engine?

Back 688

45 percent.

Front 689

On an F110-GE–129 engine, the MEC schedules the variable vane positions by the

Back 689

fan discharge temperature and core engine speed.

Front 690

What is the function of the flexible feedback cable on the F110-GE–129 engine variablevane system?

Back 690

Transmit a mechanical feedback signal to the main engine control.

Front 691

What component in the F100 monitoring system provides the operator informationconcerning how much (in percentage) the augmentor nozzle is opened or closed?

Back 691

Augmentor Nozzle positioning indicator.

Front 692

Where is the fuel flow transmitter located in the F-15?

Back 692

In the engine bay.

Front 693

What component in the F110 monitoring system performs diagnostics and fault isolates toline replaceable units?

Back 693

Engine Monitoring System Computer.

Front 694

What component or components make up the engine monitoring system on the F119 engineitself?

Back 694

CEDU and FADEC.

Front 695

What component in the F119 engine monitoring system processes and stores vibrationsignals, oil debris signals, oil level signals, condition monitoring and fault information data inresident memory?

Back 695

CEDU.

Front 696

What is the basic function of an augmentor (afterburner) when it is not operating?

Back 696

Act as the basic engine tailpipe.

Front 697

What is used to open and close flap-type and iris-type variable-exhaust nozzle systems?

Back 697

Air pressure for both types.

Front 698

The most important advantage of using a C-D nozzle system is the

Back 698

life expectancies of the engine and augmentor are increased.

Front 699

What component heats augmentor fuel to provide better vaporization and combustion?

Back 699

Fuel/oil cooler.

Front 700

Which system employs a small combustion chamber to ignite the fuel in the augmentor(afterburner) duct?

Back 700

Torch igniter.

Front 701

What are the two main types of augmentor (afterburner) ignition systems?

Back 701

Torch igniter and pilot burner ring.

Front 702

On the F100 engine augmentor, the divergent

Back 702

Aj.

Front 703

The F100 engine augmentor’s primary nozzle actuator is driven by cables from the

Back 703

CENC.

Front 704

The F100 engine augmentor’s exhaust nozzle is variable to control engine

Back 704

thrust and fan stall margin.

Front 705

What component in the electronic/mechanical controls is a fuel cooled digital computerthat provides signals to the MFC for control of the front compressor speed (N1), rearcompressor speed (N2), engine airflow, combustion chamber pressure (Pb4) and FTIT.

Back 705

DEEC.

Front 706

Where should you begin troubleshooting after reviewing the aircraft/engine forms?

Back 706

Observe gauge indications.

Front 707

Which of the following is not a proper troubleshooting practice?

Back 707

Inspecting other areas after isolating trouble between points.

Front 708

The troubleshooting information contained in aircraft power plant and engine intermediatemaintenance TO is presented in the form of

Back 708

troubleshooting charts.

Front 709

To become an expert troubleshooter, you must

Back 709

understand the function of each unit within each system.

Front 710

What F100-PW–220 engine monitoring system component acquires fault data from theDEEC and logs the faults with the time of their occurrence?

Back 710

EDU.

Front 711

Which F100-PW–220 engine monitoring system component transfers information from theEDU to the GSU?

Back 711

DCU.

Front 712

(603) To be considered effective tools for aviators, aircraft instruments must be light weight, easyto read, and

Back 712

be small in size.

Front 713

Understanding the operating principles of engine instruments help you decide

Back 713

the meaning of the instrument readings.

Front 714

Most engine-monitoring gauges and instruments require some type of

Back 714

transmitter and indicator.

Front 715

Which jet engine temperature is not measured?

Back 715

Combustion inlet.

Front 716

A typical jet engine EGT indicating system contains thermocouples, leads, an indicator, and

Back 716

a resistor.

Front 717

Which metals are used in the EGT indicating system thermocouples?

Back 717

Alumel and chromel.

Front 718

Most jet-powered aircraft engine fuel-flow indicating systems contain a fuel-flow

Back 718

transmitter and a fuel-flow indicator.

Front 719

The fuel-flow indicator indicates the rate of fuel flow as

Back 719

pounds per hour.

Front 720

The oil pressure indicator receives an electrical signal from the

Back 720

transmitter.

Front 721

The tachometer indicating system’s two primary units are the tachometer generator andtachometer

Back 721

indicator.

Front 722

The N2 tachometer generator is usually driven from the tachometer drive located on the

Back 722

engine accessory section.

Front 723

The tachometer generator’s frequency is proportional to the

Back 723

engine speed.

Front 724

What converts the exhaust nozzle’s position on engines with afterburners into an electricalsignal?

Back 724

Transducer.

Front 725

One type of overheat detector unit used on aircraft engines consists of a hollow stainless-steel tube that covers

Back 725

two silver contacts.

Front 726

For an operational check of the fire warning system, you press

Back 726

only the TEST switch.

Front 727

What indicates the amount of thrust a dual-compressor engine is producing?

Back 727

EPR.

Front 728

The term Pt2 means the

Back 728

total (t) pressure (P) at station 2 (2).

Front 729

How is inlet Pt2 transmitted from its sensing point?

Back 729

Through tubing.

Front 730

When connected to an engine oil pressure line the direct oil pressure gauge on a test cellindicates oil pressure without using wiring, indicator, or

Back 730

aircraft transmitter.

Front 731

The test cell’s EGT selector allows selecting

Back 731

individual thermocouple inputs or an average of these inputs.

Front 732

The test cell fuel-flow rate indicator automatically controls the fuel module’s solenoidvalves in order to divert fuel flow through the

Back 732

flow turbines.

Front 733

The display range of the test cell IC temperature indicator is

Back 733

–50 to +1,600 °F.

Front 734

What engine vibration usually causes the most concern?

Back 734

Forced.

Front 735

What type of vibration causes unnecessary engine removals and unwarranted repairs?

Back 735

Externally excited.

Front 736

What engine vibration does not persist, but comes and goes?

Back 736

Transient.

Front 737

In vibration analysis, frequency is usually measured in

Back 737

cycles per second.

Front 738

Which type of vibration transducer is made of certain ceramic compounds and naturalcrystals?

Back 738

Piezoelectric accelerometer.

Front 739

Where do you find the instructions for installing vibration pickups at the test cell?

Back 739

Intermediate maintenance manual.

Front 740

When using a vibration analyzer how are you notified when a preset signal has beenexceeded?

Back 740

A flashing channel indicator LED.

Front 741

What supports the fan and low-pressure turbine?

Back 741

Bearings.

Front 742

What procedure ensures that the fan and low-pressure turbine are correctly balanced?

Back 742

Fan rotor trim balance.

Front 743

You can find written instructions for safe flight-line vehicle operations in

Back 743

AFOSH STD 91-100.

Front 744

Trim means to adjust the engine systems for optimum performance according to the TO’slimits. The two methods used to trim an engine are

Back 744

manual and electronic.

Front 745

The pressure gauges used for an oil system pressure checks are connected at the

Back 745

output side of the main oil pump and the vent system.

Front 746

When checking the turbine section, you do not measure

Back 746

IGT.

Front 747

When doing an anti-ice valve operational check on an F-16C/D before starting the engineyou place the anti-ice engine switch to

Back 747

OFF.

Front 748

Aircraft noise suppressors have how many primary air silencers to help reduce turbinewhine?

Back 748

2.

Front 749

The aircraft noise suppressor shutdown procedure is important because it

Back 749

ensures the noise suppressor will be operational for the next aircraft.

Front 750

The sidewalls of the hush house test bay is constructed of

Back 750

air inlet modules.

Front 751

The hush house exhaust deflector is constructed of

Back 751

small panel modules filled with noise reduction material.

Front 752

Before moving an aircraft into the hush house, you must inspect the aircraft

Back 752

and its forms.

Front 753

What hush house feature allows flexibility when running an engine that has been removedfrom the airframe?

Back 753

The thrust stand slides into position on tracks.

Front 754

When inspecting the hush house, you are not required to check the

Back 754

engine being tested.

Front 755

In addition to determining the condition of a repaired or overhauled engine, you also testengines

Back 755

that have been involved in an incident or a mishap.

Front 756

When testing a TF34 engine at test cell, which test ensures that all operating limits andschedules from idle to maximum power are within limits?

Back 756

Transient check.

Front 757

Which testing engine is equipped with a QEC kit?

Back 757

TF39-1C.

Front 758

What two types of test cells does the Air Force currently use?

Back 758

Fixed and portable.

Front 759

Which test cell noise suppressors use water to cool the exhaust gases?

Back 759

Both fixed and portable.

Front 760

In a fixed test cell, the test bay access doors are sealed to

Back 760

prevent unwanted noise from getting into the control room.

Front 761

The vertical baffles in the fixed test cell’s exhaust stack are designed to remove

Back 761

low-frequency sound.

Front 762

The portable test cell is not equipped with a

Back 762

model 3000 trailer.

Front 763

The basic portable test cell’s thrust trailer rails adjust to a height of

Back 763

40 inches.

Front 764

The swivel pads at the bottom of the leveling jacks on the engine thrust trailer of theportable test cell provide all of the following except

Back 764

supporting the thrust trailer at a height of 80 inches.

Front 765

The portable test cell’s vibration pickups are cooled by the

Back 765

pneumatic system.

Front 766

The portable test cell’s noise suppressor is not equipped with

Back 766

a fuel trailer.

Front 767

When an engine arrives for a test run at the test cell, it must

Back 767

be operable with all known discrepancies corrected.

Front 768

Immediately prior to an engine test cell run, you check the engine and QEC kit (ifapplicable) for loose nuts, bolts, lock wire, tools, or any other material in order to

Back 768

eliminate items that could possibly cause FOD.

Front 769

Which of these is not considered a cause of FOD?

Back 769

Failure of internal parts.

Front 770

Improperly rigged throttle linkage during a test cell run can cause

Back 770

engine overspeed.

Front 771

What should you do with the engine model and serial number when making general entrieson the test cell engine log sheet?

Back 771

Verify these numbers on the engine data plate.

Front 772

Before installing an engine on the test cell thrust stand, make sure the

Back 772

engine rail adapters and stand are compatible.

Front 773

When preparing to install the miscellaneous kit prior to a test cell run, you inspect allindicators and controls for

Back 773

possible damage.

Front 774

Where would you begin your investigation of an engine with a possible oil consumptionproblem?

Back 774

Review AFTO Form 781H.

Front 775

Observing oil on the turbine wheel or oil smoke at or near the turbine section during a testcell run is a good indication of

Back 775

a damaged aft bearing oil seal.

Front 776

You can get information such as temperature and barometric pressure from equipment at thetest cell site or from

Back 776

the control tower.

Front 777

The steps in removing the engine and test equipment from the test cell are

Back 777

the reverse of the installation sequence.

Front 778

What information is used as an aid in test facility inspections?

Back 778

Periodic inspection checklists.

Front 779

What inspection and maintenance concept provides a method for performing requiredinspections on a scheduled and controlled basis?

Back 779

Planned.

Front 780

Primary aids that outline minimum inspection requirements are called

Back 780

inspection work cards.

Front 781

Which of the following is not an inspection phase?

Back 781

HSC.

Front 782

Which of these inspections is a flight preparedness check?

Back 782

Preflight.

Front 783

A BPO is done

Back 783

after the last flight of the flying period.

Front 784

Which inspection is a combination of the BPO/hourly post-flight and periodic inspection(PE) requirements?

Back 784

Phased.

Front 785

What inspection is given to all newly assigned aircraft?

Back 785

Acceptance.

Front 786

A cold compressor stall occurring at low RPM accompanied by a slight over temperature iscalled

Back 786

an incipient.

Front 787

Careless operation of the throttle during emergency system operation could cause acompressor stall due to

Back 787

rapid throttle movement.

Front 788

What is the probable cause of compressor rotor shift?

Back 788

Thrust bearing failure.

Front 789

What causes over-temperature damage to the combustion chamber from a stall condition?

Back 789

An interruption of cooling airflow.

Front 790

What condition describes turbine nozzles that are burned out uniformly around the wholeannulus from an over-temperature condition?

Back 790

Severe stall condition with disrupted cooling airflow.

Front 791

Turbine blade fatigue failure does not result from

Back 791

blends.

Front 792

Galling of bearing rolling elements and races is characterized by

Back 792

transfer of metal.

Front 793

The pneumatic air bled from the small gas turbine engine cannot be used to

Back 793

inflate aircraft tires.

Front 794

When used for ground operation, the SGT engine can be installed on

Back 794

a four-wheel trailer.

Front 795

The impeller wheel and two turbine wheels in the turbine section of the GTCP 165 engineare connected by

Back 795

couplings on a common shaft.

Front 796

What controls turbine discharge temperature on a GTCP 165 engine?

Back 796

Pneumatic thermostat.

Front 797

The accessory drive section forward housing on a GTCP 165 engine provides mounts forcomponents, including the fuel control unit, oil pump assembly, oil filter element, vane-axial fanassembly, and

Back 797

air/oil cooler.

Front 798

The accessory drive section aft housing on a GTCP 165 engine contains the

Back 798

compressor front shaft bearing.

Front 799

Which signals are used by the fuel control unit to control engine operation on a GTCP 165engine?

Back 799

Engine speed and pneumatic thermostat (load control) air pressure.

Front 800

For engine shutdown on the GTCP 165 engine, what valve closes to ensure that fuel-flow isterminated?

Back 800

Fuel shutoff solenoid.

Front 801

Which component on a GTCP 165 engine shuts the engine down if the oil pressure dropsbelow the safe minimum operating limit?

Back 801

Oil pressure switch.

Front 802

During a normal start on a GTCP 165 engine, the igniter plug continues firing until engine’sRPM reaches

Back 802

95 percent.

Front 803

What circuit trips to stop the engine during normal GTCP 165 engine shutdown?

Back 803

110-percent circuit.

Front 804

The modulating and shutoff valve on a GTCP 165 engine will be fully open at what percentRPM?

Back 804

90.

Front 805

Air for the load control system on a GTCP 165 engine is extracted from the

Back 805

turbine plenum.