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264 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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TOs provide all of the following except
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C. job control numbers
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Simply stated, a TO is considered to be
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D. a military order
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TOs are established, numbered, and issued in accordance with TO
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C. 00–5–1
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Which type of TO covers installation, operation, maintenance, and handling of Air Force military systems?
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A. Operations and maintenance TOs
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How are TCTOs used?
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D. Direct and provide instructions for modifying equipment.
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Which is not an authorized category of TCTOs?
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D. Emergency action.
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What type of TCTO is indicated by a border of alternating red diagonals and red Xs?
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A. Urgent action.
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The first two digits in a TO number indicates the
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C. major category in which the TO is grouped.
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To find the most current publication date of a TO, check
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B. the TO index.
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You can use the online TO index to do all of the following except
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D. identify NDI inspections applicable to your aircraft.
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The MIDAS is
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C. a six-digit numbering system expressed as three elements of two digits each.
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What information will the NDI GS manual provide?
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A. Inspections.
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What type of equipment manual would contain calibration requirements for the equipment?
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C. Operation and service manual.
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A group assembly parts list has several part numbers listed for a part you need. To determine which part number is right for your aircraft, you should refer to the
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D. Usable on Code column to find the correct part number for your equipment.
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Where would you find information for recording and reporting a NDI technique to inspect an F–16C aircraft speed brake?
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C. TO 33B–1–1.
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You are tasked to do an inspection; however you only know the name of the part you are to inspect. To locate the applicable paragraph and figure number for the inspection, you would check the TO’s
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C. alphabetical index.
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While doing a job you find a mistake in a TO. This will require initiation of a Technical Manual Change Recommendation and Reply form. Who is responsible for this action?
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A. You.
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What form do you use to submit a TO improvement?
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D. AFTO Form 22.
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Which change recommendation priority must be answered within 40 calendar days?
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A. Urgent.
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Which type change recommendation priority is used to recommend improvements to correct potential hazards?
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B. Routine.
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Which TO contains complete instructions for maintaining TOs?
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C. 00–5–1.
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Which form is used to label the binder edge of TO binders?
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D. AFTO Form 32.
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You need to order a new TO to be used by personnel on a regular basis? How would you go about this?
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D. Establish an ID requirement.
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The TO listing for your shop’s operational TO file will show you all of these except
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A. who currently has one signed out.
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Responsibility for consolidating all TO requests on an installation rests with the
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D. personnel in the TODO.
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With few exceptions, you must file TOs within a maximum of
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B. five workdays of receipt.
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To locate the effective date for a TO you are using, you check the
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B. title page.
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A TO effective date is
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A. later than the basic date.
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During periodic inventories, what do you use to ensure accountability of every TO page?
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D. LOEP.
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In which TO chapter would you find page 4–2?
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D. 4.
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File TO supplements in
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A. reverse numerical order in front of the basic TO.
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Air Force supplies and equipment are owned by the
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B. American taxpayer.
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The purpose of the Air Force supply system is to
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C. provide a means of purchasing, distributing, and controlling equipment/supplies used by the
Air Force. |
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The NCB code identifies the country
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D. that assigned the identification number.
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What system is the most complete and can provide you with cross-referenced information on part numbers, national stock numbers, manufacturers, and suppliers for items in the supply system?
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A. FEDLOG.
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What system is used to determine whether your NDI laboratory is authorized a piece of equipment?
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B. AFEMS.
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What form is used to request or turn-in property?
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C. AF Form 2005.
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What form is used to request an item not listed in the Federal Supply System?
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D. DD Form 1348–6.
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Which condition tag would be placed on a floor buffer to indicate that it is serviceable?
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C. Yellow DD Form 1574.
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Which condition tag would be used to indicate an x-ray unit has been condemned?
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B. Red DD Form 1577.
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Which condition tag would be placed on an eddy current unit being sent back to depot for repair?
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D. Green DD Form 1577–2.
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From the lowest to the highest, the three levels of maintenance capability are
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A. organizational, intermediate, depot.
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Which level of maintenance would include routine inspections and servicing with fuel or oil?
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D. Organizational.
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Which level of maintenance involves major repairs and overhaul?
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B. Depot.
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Which inspection involves a thorough and searching inspection of an entire weapon system?
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C. PE.
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Which inspection attempts to minimize the length of time an aircraft in down for inspection?
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B. PH.
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Which inspection is based on calendar days?
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C. ISO.
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Who can sign off a Red X?
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D. Authorized personnel only.
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Which maintenance symbol would be used to indicate a scheduled PE inspection is overdue?
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B. Red dash.
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Which symbol signifies that a minor discrepancy exists?
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D. Red diagonal.
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Category I DRs are not used to report conditions
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C. resulting from nonconformance to specifications.
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What level of DR submission is responsible for securing and identifying a DR exhibit?
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A. Originator.
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What level of the DR submission process determines whether an investigation is required?
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B. Screening/action point.
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MDD is grouped into
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A. on- and off-equipment categories.
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You would not find MDD rules in
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D. TO 00–35D–54.
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Which is not a purpose for using codes in MDD?
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A. Security.
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What key data element used in the MDD system does not identify a specific piece of equipment?
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A. Workcenter code.
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Which MDD code is used as the primary method of sorting information?
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A. Work unit.
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The Air Force maintains a limited number of these MDD codes to simplify reporting?
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D. How malfunctioned.
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What form is used to track and process repair cycle assets and other parts?
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D. AFTO Form 350.
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Which is not a maintenance inspector function?
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C. Verify the quantity of modified parts is correct.
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All engine data can be found on AFTO Form
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C. 781J.
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What is the correct format for entering a date in the 781 series forms?
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C. YYYYMMDD.
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What 781 series form is used when you line through a current time or date due and enter a new date or time due?
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D. 781K.
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What automated MDD computer system uses over 25 COTS software products?
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C. IMDS.
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What computer software technology forms the base for the IMDS?
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B. Windows.
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What automated MDD system allows for point-of-maintenance input using portable maintenance aids?
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C. IMDS.
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Which MAJCOM developed the G081 automated MDD system?
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B. Air Mobility Command.
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Which programs are considered the heart of G081 and update the database?
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A. Input programs.
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The G081 computer system
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C. is not authorized to transmit classified data.
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Which is not one of the three methods of removing accident causes?
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C. Developing safe habits.
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The minimum temperature required for a substance to initiate self-sustained combustion is known as the
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C. ignition temperature.
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The danger from static electricity is highest during
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D. cold, dry weather.
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AFOSH standards provide guidance concerning occupational safety, occupational health, and
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A. fire prevention.
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What are the speed limits for general-purpose vehicles on the flightline and in parking areas respectively?
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B. 15 mph; 5 mph.
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Unless otherwise authorized, the distance restrictions for backing or parking vehicles on the flightline are
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A. 25 feet in front and 200 feet to the rear of aircraft.
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Unattended vehicles on the flightline must
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B. have keys left in the ignition.
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How big is the noise safety zone circle, depending on the type of aircraft and engine, which surrounds the aircraft?
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B. 300 to 400 feet.
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The general danger area from aircraft radar is a
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C. 50 foot radius in an arc of 100 degrees from the antenna.
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Which is not considered a main structural component of an aircraft?
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A. Doors.
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Engine position numbers on multiengine aircraft are assigned consecutively from the
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A. tip of the left wing to tip of the right wing.
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Where is an aircraft elevator located?
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C. On the empennage.
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The movable flight control surface on a fighter aircraft that acts as both a stabilizer and an elevator is called the
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D. stabilator.
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Waterlines are assigned along the
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C. horizontal plane.
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The tie-down rings on AGE are normally attached to the
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A. frame.
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AGE power system components are not made from
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B. copper.
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How are permanent joints on AGE enclosures normally attached?
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C. Riveted.
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How many standard markings are applied to all Air Force aircraft?
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C. Six.
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Where is the national star insignia applied to aircraft?
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A. Left and right fuselage, upper left and lower right wing.
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Where are station numbers located on fixed wing aircraft?
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B. Nose.
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Which is not an aircraft identification and safety marking?
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D. Crew marking.
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What symbol is used to indicate an installed ejection system?
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A. Triangle with apex pointed down.
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Even though this safety marking may be small and subdued, it will alert you about a hazardous condition.
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A. Warning text.
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What’s a TO?
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An official Air Force publication that provides technical information, instructions, and safety procedures pertaining to the inspection, operation, maintenance, and modification of Air Force equipment and material.
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What technical order directs how all TOs are established, numbered, and issued?
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TO 00–5–1.
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What’s the purpose of the TO system?
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To provide concise but clear instructions for safe and effective operation and maintenance of Air Force military systems.
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What one word best describes TO compliance?
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Mandatory.
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How many basic types of TOs are there? List them.
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Nine:
(1) O&M (2) Methods and procedures (3) Index (4) Abbreviated (5) TCTO (6) Supplemental manuals (7) Joint-use (8) COTS manuals (9) Preliminary |
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What type of TO is the 33B–1–1?
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Methods and procedures.
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What are the three authorized categories of TCTOs?
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Immediate action, urgent action, and routine action.
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How is an urgent action TCTO identified?
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The words URGENT ACTION printed in red at the top and there’s a border consisting of alternating red diagonals and red Xs.
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What type of TO is used to operate new equipment obtained from a commercial source?
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A COTS manual.
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What do the first two digits of a TO number designate?
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The major category under which the TO is grouped.
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What does the initial letter of an aircraft TO number designate?
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The type of aircraft.
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What’s the purpose of the dash number on a technical manual?
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Indicates the primary function of the manual.
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What’s the last set of digits of an F–15 NDI procedures TO?
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–36
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Where do Air Force personnel access TO index information?
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The Internet.
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How would you find the TO number for a new x-ray unit, part number ZD400?
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Enter part number into search box.
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Describe each part of the MIDAS code.
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The first two digits indicate the major system, the second two digits indicate subsystem and sub-subsystem, and the last two digits indicate the function number tied to the job guides.
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Where do you look first for a brief description of the F–16 systems?
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In the GV manual.
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In what section of the GV manual will you find the definition of a warning, caution or note?
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The introduction.
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What TO do you use for installing components and operational checks?
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JGs.
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What are the three common dash numbered manuals for shop equipment?
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Operation and service manuals, overhaul manuals, and IPBs.
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Which shop equipment manual contains step-by-step instructions for equipment disassembly?
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Overhaul manual.
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What’s the purpose of an IPB TO?
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It’s the official catalog of replacement parts for equipment covered by the manual.
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The group assembly parts list in an IPB provides what information?
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Part number, description, units per assembly and usable on code.
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Once you find the part in the picture and identify the index number associated with it, which column of the group assembly parts list do you go to first to find information about your part?
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Figure & index number column.
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If you know a part number, what section of the IPB will tell you the figure and index?
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The Numerical Index.
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Where is the first place to look for information in an NDI manual?
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The table of contents.
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You’re tasked to develop an NDI magnetic particle technique for a new part. Which TO and chapter will provide detailed information to assist you in this project?
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TO 33B–1–1; Chapter 3, Magnetic Particle Inspection.
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Which TO and chapter provide instructions for recording an inspection technique you have just developed?
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TO 33B–1–1, Chapter 1.
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What form would you use to record new NDI techniques?
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AFTO Form 242.
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What three ways can you locate a specific inspection procedure for a particular aircraft part?
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Workcards, part number indexes, and alphabetical indexes.
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Describe two ways you can find the inspection procedures for a main landing gear shock strut.
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(1) Use the alphabetical index to find the figure and paragraph, or
(2) Use the master table of contents or major structural group illustration to find the applicable section and the section table of contents to find the figure and paragraph number. |
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What NDI method is required by the TO?
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Ultrasonic.
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The nose landing gear shock strut piston assembly is made from what type material?
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300M CVAR steel forging.
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What equipment and materials will be required?
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Ultrasonic flaw detector, inspection kit number UK–NLGF16, couplant, and a 10X magnifier.
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For what defects are you looking?
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Stress corrosion/cracking.
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Who is responsible for initiating an AFTO Form 22?
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The person who finds the discrepancy.
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After you document a new NDI technique on an AFTO Form 242, why do you complete and submit an AFTO Form 22 along with it?
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To get the new inspection technique published in the applicable TO for the benefit of everyone.
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What are the three recommendation priorities?
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(1) Emergency
(2) Urgent (3) Routine |
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What’s the time limit for an emergency priority change request to be approved and published or disapproved/downgraded?
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48 hours.
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Which priority of recommended changes must be approved and published within 40 calendar days or disapproved/downgraded within 15 calendar days?
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Urgent report.
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What publication contains specific details for maintaining an operational TO file?
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TO 00–5–1.
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What TOs should only be included in an operational file?
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Only those TOs required in the shop to accomplish day-to-day operations and maintenance.
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In what sequence are TOs filed?
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Alphanumeric.
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What’s the minimum information required on an AFTO Form 32?
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Book number, number of the first TO in the binder, and number of the last TO in the binder.
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You’ve just received a 5 × 8-inch commercial manual along with a TO identifying title page. You want to keep the manual with the specified equipment. What actions should you take to accomplish this?
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File the title page in the TO file and make a notation on it indicating the location of the manual.
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What does the shop TO monitor use to maintain and order TOs?
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Military internet website.
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When should your shop TO monitor establish an ID requirement for a new TO instead of a onetime requisition?
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When a TO will be used regularly by assigned personnel.
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Why would you have an ID requirement for more than one copy of a TO?
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To allow personnel to perform multiple tasks in different locations at the same time.
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How should you order a TO if you need it for short-term research only?
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Make a one-time requisition.
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You receive a TO on 3 February with a basic date of 1 January. When should you place the TO in the file?
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No later than five duty days after 3 February.
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What’s the purpose of a supersede notice on a TO title page?
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It tells whether any previous TO supplements have been incorporated into the change and are no longer needed.
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What’s an “A” page?
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An LOEP is often referred to as the A page because it is the first page after the title page and is designated page A. It also contains a complete list of every TO page.
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Name the three ways TOs are updated?
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Changes, supplements, and revisions.
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How do you file a TO change?
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Remove each page with a number corresponding to a page in the change and replace it with the new page.
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How do you indicate a TO has been supplemented?
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Make a notation for each active supplement on the title page of the basic manual.
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How are TO supplements filed?
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In reverse numerical sequence in front of the basic TO title page.
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What’s a TO revision?
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A complete new edition of a technical order.
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Who actually owns the equipment you use in the NDI shop?
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The American taxpayer.
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What’s the purpose of the Air Force supply system?
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To purchase, distribute, and control equipment and supplies used by the Air Force.
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Where can you locate information on parts listed in the federal supply system?
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FEDLOG.
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For what does the acronym AFEMS stand?
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Air Force Equipment Management System.
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What information does AS 455 provide?
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Lists equipment authorizations for NDI laboratories.
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Which form is used to request or turn in a supply item?
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AF Form 2005.
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Which form do you use when there isn’t an established NSN for the item?
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DD Form 1348–6.
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What’s the purpose of the equipment action request?
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To request that a piece of equipment be added to your AS.
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What’s an AF Form 1297 commonly called?
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Hand receipt.
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What’s the cardinal rule for equipment that leaves your lab?
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Make sure to get a signed hand receipt or one issued by the shop TAS.
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Name the three levels of maintenance in order from the lowest to the highest.
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Organizational level, intermediate level, and depot level.
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What level of maintenance is generally performed in an NDI laboratory?
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Intermediate level.
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What workcenters are affected by 2LM?
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Avionics and engine workcenters.
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What are the five authorized scheduled inspection concepts used by the Air Force?
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(1) Periodic
(2) Phased (3) Isochronal (4) Programmed depot maintenance (5) Airline manufacturer maintenance |
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What publication outlines all inspection requirements for a weapon system?
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–6 Inspection TO.
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When are HPO inspections accomplished?
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After a specified number of accumulated flying hours.
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What’s a PE inspection?
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A thorough and searching inspection of the entire weapon system.
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What are combined HPO and PE inspections called?
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Phased inspections.
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What’s the main objective of the PH inspection concept?
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Minimize the length of time an aircraft is out of commission.
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What periods are used for isochronal inspections?
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Calendar periods.
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What isochronal inspections will normally involve NDI?
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HSCs, minor and major inspections.
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Which isochronal inspection is similar to a PE?
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Major.
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What’s the purpose of maintenance symbols?
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Make important information instantly apparent.
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When can you erase maintenance symbols?
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Never.
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What TO contains DR procedures?
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TO 00–35D–54.
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What category DR is submitted for poor workmanship which won’t harm anyone?
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Category II.
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What are the four levels of the DR reporting process?
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(1) Originator
(2) Originating point (3) Screening/action point (4) Support point |
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Personnel in what point act to correct DR deficiencies (if appropriate)?
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Action point.
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What’s the objective of MDD?
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Provide a means of collecting, storing, and retrieving base, depot, and contractor maintenance data.
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Who uses collected MDD process data?
|
Personnel at the site where the data is collected as well as the Air Force management and engineering agency, MAJCOMs, and DOD.
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What are the two categories of MDD?
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On-equipment and off-equipment.
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What category of MDD is used for NDI of aircraft wheel bolts that are brought into the shop for inspection?
|
Off-equipment.
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Why are there MDD rules?
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To ensure documentation is accomplished consistently.
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What are the three key data elements used in MDD?
|
(1) JCNs
(2) Workcenter codes (3) IDs |
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|
Write the JCN for the 134th job on 4 January 2014.
|
140040134
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What does a letter in the sixth position of a JCN indicate?
|
The JCN is for an hourly or calendar phased inspection.
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What four types of workcenters use MDD?
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(1) Owning
(2) Performing (3) Reporting (4) Non-reporting |
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How many characters make up a workcenter code?
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Five.
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In what publications are MDD codes normally listed?
|
00–20 series TOs and –06 aircraft manuals.
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|
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What’s the purpose of a WUC?
|
Serves as a quick reference to identify a primary system, subsystem, and component on an end-item.
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What’s a basic Air Force concept concerning repair?
|
Perform repairs at the lowest level of maintenance, to the greatest extent possible, consistent with good management practices.
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What’s a repair cycle asset?
|
An item requiring a one-for-one swap before being issued from supply due to their critical nature.
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What form is used to track and identify repair cycle assets?
|
AFTO Form 350.
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What’s your primary job, as an NDI technician, regarding repair cycle assets?
|
Inspect the asset as quickly as possible and properly document your actions in the applicable MDD system.
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Who determines the final condition of repaired assets?
|
Designated maintenance inspectors.
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What’s the series number of aircraft maintenance forms?
|
781.
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Who removes forms from an aircraft’s binder?
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Aircraft crew chief.
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Which AFTO Form 781 is used to document open aircraft discrepancies?
|
781A.
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Who can clear a red X?
|
Only designated and authorized personnel.
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When a symbol is entered in error, what’s entered in the AFTO Form 781A CORRECTIVE ACTION block?
|
“Symbol entered in error; discrepancy and correct symbol entered below” or “Symbol entered in error no discrepancy exists.”
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What’s the format for entering a date on an aircraft form?
|
YYYYMMDD.
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When signing off a routine inspection on a red dash, in which AFTO Form 781A block would you sign your minimum signature?
|
INSPECTED BY block.
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Which AFTO Form 781 will show an NDI technician the current airframe time?
|
781H.
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How do you update the next due time on the AFTO Form 781K?
|
Line through the current due time (hours or date) and enter the new due time in the adjacent NEXT DUE block.
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What COTS software technology is used as the basis for IMDS?
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Windows.
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What’s a PMA?
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A portable maintenance aid that is a wireless laptop computer used for point-of-maintenance data inputs.
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How does an IMDS JCN identify all the different shops working on the same job?
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IMDS adds a three-digit WCE to the end of a standard JCN.
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Which MAJCOM uses G081?
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AMC.
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What three types of programs make up the G081 system?
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(1) Input
(2) Output (3) Batch/VIRP |
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How are G081 batch reports typically used?
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To review status, manage assets, allocate resources, and assist in management decisions.
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What’s required to logon to the G081 system?
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A password and a user ID.
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What’s the foundation of accident prevention?
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Identifying and eliminating accident causes.
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Name three methods of accident prevention.
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(1) Safety engineering
(2) Education and training (3) Enforcement of safety standards |
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Who is responsible for good housekeeping?
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Everyone.
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When should you clean up a spill?
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Immediately.
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What is fire?
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The rapid oxidation of a combustible material, producing light and heat.
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What three things are necessary to have a fire?
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Fuel, heat, and oxygen.
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What normally has a flashpoint below 100°F?
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A flammable liquid.
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How may a normally safe cleaning solvent produce flammable vapors?
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By vigorous agitation.
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What two measures are used to prevent fires involving solvents?
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Remove all sources of ignition and provide adequate ventilation.
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Where should you dispose of oily rags?
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In a self-closing, metal container clearly marked, “Oily Waste Only.”
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Name five sources of ignition that may cause accidental fires and explosions.
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(1) Smoking materials
(2) Space heaters (3) Non explosion-proof electrical equipment (4) Improperly fused electrical equipment of any kind (5) Tools that produce sparks mechanically and static electricity |
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What are some rules to follow to aid in preventing ignition of flammable liquids?
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Don’t light up or carry smoking materials into an area with flammable liquids. Wear only approved clothing. Bleed off any static charge before you enter the area.
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Where may you smoke in an industrial environment?
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In a designated smoking area.
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What are two hazards of wearing jewelry on the job?
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Electrical burns and possible amputation of a limb (finger or hand).
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Describe an approved extension cord used with portable equipment.
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It must be a three-wire cord with three prong plugs/receptacles and be of sufficient size to prevent overheating.
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What personnel protective equipment is normally used in the NDI lab?
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Face shields, goggles/safety glasses, rubber gloves, rubber apron, safety-toe boots, and ear protection.
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What are the primary causes of vehicle accidents on the flightline?
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Carelessness, haste, and disregard of existing standards.
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Who is responsible for performing daily vehicle inspections and checking for defects that affect vehicle safety?
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The vehicle operator.
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What’s the flightline speed limit for general-purpose vehicles?
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15 mph.
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What are the distance restrictions for parking near an aircraft?
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No closer than 25 feet in front, 200 feet to the rear.
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What distance limitations apply to operating a vehicle around aircraft with engines running?
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Vehicles won’t be parked or operated closer than 25 feet in front, 200 feet behind. It must be clear of wing tips and visible from the cockpit when it’s beside an aircraft with the engines running.
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What must be turned on when a vehicle is temporarily parked at night?
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Emergency flashers.
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What are the two major dangers to personnel from running engines?
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Personnel may be pulled into the intake or blown by the exhaust.
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What actions are used to ensure it’s safe to work in a cockpit?
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Ensure all safety pins are properly installed.
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What precautions should you take before you perform an inspection on movable surfaces?
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Install safety locks or pins and follow local lock out/tag out procedures.
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What protection is required when working around noise hazards?
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Ear muffs, earplugs, or both.
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What’s the minimum safe distance in front of aircraft radar operating on the ground?
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A 50-foot radius in a 100 degree arc in front of the operating radar.
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Name the three crosswise structural members in a monocoque fuselage.
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Rings, formers, and bulkheads.
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What two lengthwise structural members are designed to provide strength and rigidity to the monocoque fuselage?
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Longerons and stringers.
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What’s the purpose of stringers?
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To give shape and provide a means for attaching the skin.
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What are the main lengthwise members that give wings most of their strength?
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Spars.
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What’s the purpose of wing ribs?
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To give contour or shape and add rigidity to the wing structure.
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Which structure houses and streamlines the engines on multiengine aircraft?
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Nacelle.
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What’s the purpose of the fixed surfaces in the empennage group?
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They stabilize the aircraft in flight.
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Name the three primary aircraft flight control surfaces.
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Ailerons, rudder, and elevator.
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Brakes and shock-absorbing and steering mechanisms are part of what major system?
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Landing gear.
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Name two publications besides the NDI inspection TOs that you can use to help locate reference points.
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The –3 structural repair and GV manual.
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What’s the purpose of station numbers?
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To locate specific areas on the aircraft.
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Who establishes station numbers?
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Each aircraft manufacturer determines its own system.
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On the F–16A aircraft, what’s another name for the horizontal reference line?
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Waterline.
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What’s the primary function of the AGE frame?
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To provide a platform for mounting system components, engine, battery, accessories, fuel tank, and enclosure.
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Name three common metals used in the manufacture of AGE power system components.
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Steel, aluminum, and magnesium.
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What’s the purpose of an AGE enclosure?
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It protects the power system from the weather.
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Name two common construction methods used in manufacturing panels for AGE enclosures.
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Riveted aluminum and welded steel assemblies.
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What are the six standard markings applied to all USAF aircraft?
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(1) National star insignia
(2) USAF (3) U.S. AIR FORCE (4) Serial number (5) Data legend (6) Radio call number |
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What’s the oldest marking currently used?
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National star insignia.
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Which marking identifies the type of fuel used by the aircraft?
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Data legend.
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When is the aircraft radio call number not required?
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On camouflaged aircraft authorized a distinctive tail marking.
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In most cases, when must this special purpose marking be removed?
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When the aircraft is transferred or reassigned.
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What’s the purpose of an aircraft tail stripe?
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To assist in visual identification of an aircraft’s unit.
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What are the four types of identification and safety markings?
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(1) Identification of servicing points
(2) Type of ground servicing required (3) Hazard warning or safety precaution (4) Emergency entry or exit points |
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What do you call the area extending from the ends of propeller or turbine blades?
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Plane of rotation
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Even though this safety marking may be small or subdued, it will still warn you about a potentially hazardous condition.
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Warning text.
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