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360 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
Owner feeds the cat a high fat fish diet. What is a common sequelae?
steatitis
When do you start using artificial lighting in CA regarding horse reproduction?
December 1
Where in the coelomic cavity of birds are the gonads located?
cranial pole of the kidney (only on the left in females)
80 out of 500 cows on a farm have died suddenly, or are recumbent and unable to stand within the past hour, tongues hanging out. What do you advise the farmer to do in the meantime you’re enroute?
Remove all cows from feed and water (?)
Pregnant owner has a cat with high toxoplasmosis titer. How do you interpret the results?
The cat has been exposed
(high IgM = recent infection, high IgG = has been exposed but is probably not actively shedding)
Horse with lesions on the dorsum near the withers. Etiologic agent?
Brucella
Mare exhibiting stallion-like behavior. Has viable fetus and bilaterally enlarged ovaries. What is most likely?
Granulosa cell tumor = stallion-like behavior
Biltateral = CL or Cyst
(?)
After an employee is no longer employed, how long do you have to keep the radiation exposure records?
Don't know but 30 years seems like best answer
Which vaccines should a pet raccoon receive?
Killed vaccines only: rabies, canine distemper, feline panleuk
BUT: it is illegal to have wildlife as pets in California
What nutritional recommendations do you have for a large breed puppy?
do not supplement with extra calcium
Diagnostic test for Anaplasma in cattle?
RBC smear
Goats with Caseous lymphadenitis? What husbandry method should be utilized?
cull all goats that were exposed to the discharge
Mares giving birth to foals with Osteochondrosis dissecans. What should be supplemented to prevent?
Copper
Person bit by an opossum. What do you tell her?
a physician may recommend prophylaxis because opposums may harbor rabies
kids born with varus/valgus and wide costochondral junctions. What do you need to supplement with prior to birth?
vitamin D
What clinical signs are associated with HYPP?
muscle fasiculations and weakness
What feeding situation makes animals more susceptible to polioencephalomalacia?
irrigated pasture with supplemented alfalfa, high sulfur content in water/sulfates added to feed, slightly higher risk if fed concentrates
which approach to use to fix a tibial fracture?
cranial medial
How would you repair an oblique long fracture of the tibia in a 3 year old Poodle?
plate with screws is probably best choice (?)
anesthesia to dehorn 16 month old heifers
cornual branch of the lacrimal nerve blocked with 2% lidocaine
pigs on pasture should be monitored for which GI parasites?
Ascaris suum
Trichuirs suis
signs of DIC
3 of the 4:
increased PT
increased PTT
decreased platelets
increased FDPs
You do an abdominocentesis on ventral midline of a horse and get frank blood that has a PCV greater then plasma. What did you puncture?
spleen--you should perform the tap to the right of midline
What organism(s) is ubiquitous in a 4 month old calf?
-pastuerella multocida
-manheimma hemolytica
(?)
To maintain a Vet/client/relationship a veterinarian must have had to visit a farm within?
1 year
To diagnose pancreatitis in a cat which test is most accurate?
fPLI (boards stuff I have has TLI as a choice, not PLI)
Budgies die suddenly; ascites, feather malformations. Intranuclear inclusions. What is the cause?
polyomavirus (Budgie fledgling disease)
Injection of Amikacin in a turtle should be given where?
IM in the front legs
What do you do with a horse you are treating with TMS and becomes anorexic, lethargy, diarrhea?
Stop TMS, CBC, evaluate immediately (life-threatening diarrhea), banamine
older cat with cranial mammary enlargement. What was not performed?
ovariohisterectomy
Dog diagnosed with heartworm (antigen positive); pulmonary infiltrates on radiographs. What is your treatment in what order?
melarsomine (Immiticide), ivermectin
(other past boards source has IM melarsomine twice, 24 hours apart. if very severe disease, give one injection then wait a few months before giving the other 2 doses)
Dog with enlarged retinal vessels, hyphema. What is your next diagnostic step?
systemic blood pressure
How is Chlamydophila manifested in humans?
pneumonia, respiratory distress
Sweet potato poisoning in cattle causes what clinical signs?
respiratory distress (fog fever, 4-Ipomeanol is the toxic compound)
At what PCV is a blood transfusion warranted in a horse?
below 12%
An abscessed tooth in a horse will likely manifest as?
sinusitis
What is least effective in treating ocular squamous cell carcinoma?
radiation (?)
What is ineffective in diagnosing sand colic in a horse?
analysis of reflux
Enteroliths in horses often occur in which part of the GIT?
transverse colon (colon order: ileocecocolic junction-->RV colon-->sternal flexure-->LV colon-->pelvic flexure-->LD colon-->diaphragmatic flexure-->RD colon-->transverse colon-->rectum)
Fractious 9 year old painful paraparetic cat. What organ system should you focus on?
cardiovascular
How long from mosquito bite to adult heartworm infection?
6 months
What can cause polyarthritis in a dog?
coccidiodes
What is a safe/effective oral analgesia in a cat?
buprenorphine
Dalmatian with dessicated corneas and thick ocular discharge. Which is important historical detail?
use of antimicrobials (especially sulfas)
You have a client who reports her dog has skin allergies, and the dog receives medications, sometimes orally, sometimes by injection. The dog has truncal alopecia, and a pot belly. What has the dog been receiving?
corticosteroids
Dog being treated for pulmonary edema with furosemide. What other drug is contraindicated?
epinephrine (increases heart rate)
How do you confirm a diagnosis of FIP in a cat?
biopsy and histopathology of enteric tissue
How do you surgically correct an LDA?
Left paralumbar fossa abomesopexy or right paralumbar fossa omentopexy
How do you treat a BAR cow in parturition diagnosed with emphysematous schistosomus reflexus?
fetotomy
How do you diagnose parasitic lungworm?
Baermann (Funnel with feces strained through a cloth)
Reversal for oxymorphone
naloxone
\When would placement of a fentanyl patch be useful?
12-24 hours prior to surgery
Best method to submit rabies-suspect tissue?
refrigerated in airtight container
What is the minimum legal age in ca for rabies vaccine in a dog?
4months
Cat comes in with pruritic lesions on the ears, neck, face
Notoedris cati
What clinical sign would you expect to see in a dog with pleural effusion?
dyspnea
Toxoplasmosis is associated with which clinical signs?
anterior uveitis (from chorioretinitis), fever
Clinical pathology changes seen with ethylene glycol toxicity
increased osmolar gap with titrational metabolic acidosis
What information must be on the label of a non-controlled drug?
name and address of prescribing vet
Puppy for vaccination with temp 102.5, P 150, RR 48. What is the cause?
normal, healthy puppy
What is not indicated in a dog with tick paralysis?
vitamin K
You think a dog has nasal aspergillosis. To make this diagnosis...
radiograph before biopsy or flush
Which clinical signs would you expect to see in a dog with digitalis toxicity?
Decreased appetite (GI signs--anorexia, vomiting, diarrhea, abdominal pain)
To differentiate pituitary dependent hyperadrenocorticism from an adrenal tumor, what test should you use?
high dose dexamethasone suppression test
Ivermectin is contraindicated in which species?
California desert tortoise (and any other chelonian, as well as collies)
To perform an emergency tracheotomy in a horse you should
Make a horizontal incision between annular rings
Corneal ulcer in cats most likely due to
herpes
Persian cat with bilaterally enlarged kidneys, no signs of uroliths
polycystic kidney disease
What is a potential complication of heat stroke?
DIC
Treatment for coccidia (poultry/cattle)?
Amprolium
(Albon--sulfa in dogs/cats)
Facial nerve paralysis, circling to one side in a goat or cow
Listeriosis
Which anesthetic protocol would be contraindicated in a dog undergoing treatment of glaucoma?
ace/atropine, ketamine/diazepam, isoflurane
Rhodococcus equi infection in a foal may be due to...
dry/dusty environment/ 1-6 mo old
What can you feel on normal palpation of a horse with abdominal discomfort?
urinary bladder, spleen, cecum
A 13 year old horse is blind. What is the most likely cause?
Recurrent uveitis
What disease must be tested prior to interstate travel in CA for a horse?
EIA (Coggin's, caused by a lentivirus)
How do you terminate pregnancy in a bitch?
prostaglandin
Which drug will decrease effect of fentanyl?
butorphanol (partial Mu antagonist)
A cat with otodectes cyanotis. What do you treat with?
Selamectin (Revolution)
What lab finding is most consistent with E. canis?
thrombocytopenia
A cow has laminitis. It is usually the sequelae to what disease?
rumen acidosis
What should be done to diagnose an LDA?
auscultate/percuss
What can you do to decrease incidence of polyarthritis in kids?
Vx dams 1 month and 2 weeks prior to kidding (not sure what you vax them for, maybe CAEV)
A puppy has parvo. What is important to ask the owner?
What is the vaccine history
To provide short acting sedation and muscle relaxation in a horse what should you use?
xylazine/ketamine/guanifesin
9 month old Filly with mandibular swelling, stridor, respiratory distress. What do you do?
Perform tracheostomy and treat with penicillin (strangles)
How do you treat a rabbit with perineal myiasis?
mechanical removal
Area of ping for LDA?
Left paralumbar fossa from tuber coxae cranial to 13th rib
Area of lesions on necropsy of horse that died of sand colic?
large colon
Hound gets attacked by a bear one week prior to presentation with generalized muscle rigidity, lips pulled back and ears erect?
Tetanus
What is the only legal course of action for a dairy cow that has fractured its metacarpus, is down and the owner doesn’t want to treat it?
Euthanize and dispose of carcass according to state and county regs
Cat in carrier sitting quietly, then attacks the front of the carrier. What group of diseases should be considered?
rabies, tetanus, lead poisoning
Kitten presents with obtundation, ventrolateral strabismus, a noticeable fontanelle. What do you suspect?
hydrocephalus
10 yo schnauzer presents for hind leg weakness and has diffuse edema of pelvic limbs. What diagnostic steps should you take?
Palpate LN, cardiac auscultation, abdominal rads
Horse has been treated and is ready to go. Client refuses to pay bill as he is going bankrupt. What can you legally do?
Hold horse and charge for board (Lien laws)
Cat in a shelter, has a positive ELISA for FeLV. What do you do next?
Isolate positive animals and perform IFA in a few months
How long after 1st rabies vaccination before animal is considered vaccinated?
28 days
Who is vet responsible for with radiographs?
People under 18 yo (?), owner, pregnant women, responsible for making sure employees have on radiation detection badges
What by law is DVM required to post on their door?
Name, Telephone #, hours and emergency clinic location/phone #, emergency #
What is the primary environmental pathogen that increases Somatic Cell Count?
E. coli (coloforms)
What is incubation period for strangles (Strep equi equi)?
3-10days
Goat has polyarthritis with white chalky material coming from joints. What is it?
CAEV ( causes polyarthritis with calcification)
Which animals are induced ovulators?
Rabbits are induced ovulators (along with ferrets and cats, camelids)
Horse has hooks on premolars and molars. What causes this?
Jaw grown wrong
A horse with sarcoids (tumors of eye, skin, genitals). What is NOT a treatment?
vaccine
Horse with Anaplasma (Equine Granulocytic Ehrlichiosis). How do you dx?
Buffy coat smear (found in neutrophil cytoplasm)
Anaplasma in cattle is in RBCs
Rabbit has head tilt. What infectious disease causes this?
P. multocida
E. cuniculi
Horse with anterior uveitis. What are signs of anterior uveitis?
Miosis, blepharospasm, low intraocular pressure, hyperemia
Cat with ethylene glycol poisoning. How do you treat?
ethanol (4-MP is not effective in cats)
Dog with hip problems. Has hyperreflexia of patella and pelvic limb propreception abnormalities, other abnormalities. Where do you localize the lesion to?
T3-L3
Cow with Strep agalactia (contagious mastitis). How do you treat it?
Quarantine, intramammary cefa during lactation, post-dip teats and cull if chronic
Pleuritis in a horse. How do you dx?
thoracic ultrasound
Farm with multiple species. All animals have vesicles. What is it?
Vesicular stomatitis
Cow with ulcers in mouth and lame. What is it?
FMD or VS
How do you prevent lungworms in large animals?
Move to dry pasture
Cows, late march, snow storm, ½ dead. What plant would have killed them?
Larkspur
Cows with abortions and calves 2-3 month old with diarrhea. What is it?
BVD
Dog with isothenuria, blood in urine, vomiting. What caused it?
Ethylene glycol
What causes diarrhea in horses?
sand colic
Sheep have pregnancy toxemia (ketosis). How do you avoid it?
Increase Energy in diet
Animal in ARF. What drug does not cause diuresis?
Epinephrine
Ultrasound therapy. What injury do you use it on?
An animal that had muscular and tendon repair on the thigh
Toxoplasma in a cat. How do you test for it?
Serology (paired IgG serum titers, look for 4x increase in IgG in convalescent sample)
Raw milk from a farm. What are you worried about catching?
Salmonella
2 yo dog with draining tract in butt at 11 o’clock but is not responsive to antibiotics. What is it?
fox tail
Cow with hypoderma. What is biggest economic loss?
damage to the hide
What is desired side effect of acepromazine?
Potentiates anesthetic drugs
Pregnant mare vaccination schedule:
Vaccinate for EHV-1/EHV-4 at 5, 7, 9 months
Animal is in left lateral see an opacity in lungs, when in right lateral mass is not visualized. Where is the mass?
Tumor is in right lung lobe
Alopecia in young horse
dermatophytosis (?)
How to diagnose coccidia in neonatal piglets?
fecal sedimentation
How to diagnose BRSV?
antigen detection enzyme immunoassay, transtracheal wash
GDV- 180 degree rotation clockwise. What expect to see in surgery?
pylorus craniodorsal to the fundus
Cow with acute death and splenomegaly?
Anthrax
Goose with flaccid paralysis of the neck?
Botulism
Zoonotic disease spread to humans by macaques?
Herpes- B
Clostridium that can cause disease in cattle after liver biopsy?
C. novyi
A vaccinated bobcat bites a person. How do you treat it?
As an unvaccinated animal
A dog in california is seizing unrelentingly. The seizures are not associated with environmental triggers:
Metaldehyde (snail bait)
You are acquiring your neighbors dairy herd, how do you economically check for mycoplasma mastitis in the herd?
CMT on every cow (gives SCC approximation)
Cow has a sore that is super painful in its heel area, and there is hair growing in it
Digital dermatitis (Hairy heel wart, papilloma)
How to you treat salmon poisoning?
IV fluids, tetracycline, praziquantel
brachycephalic dog of some sort comes in post trauma. Its eye is hanging out of its socket, the eye is hemorrhagic, and its cornea is ripped open and the iris has prolapsed through. What is the treatment?
Enucleate the eye and place on systemic Abx
A horse comes in with a wedge shaped corneal tear near the medial canthus, what is the most important next step?
Fluorescine stain and digital palpation of the conjunctival sac
5 dairy cows out of 200 show mandibular edema and watery diarrhea. They are happy and afebrile. What is the most likely cause?
Johne's
What is contraindicated when removing a foxtail?
Suturing the hole closed (?)
What toxicity do birds get from galvanized cages?
zinc
Which is not indicated in treating glaucoma?
loop diuretics
mydriatics
Which anesthetic drug is contraindicated for an animal with increased intracranial pressure?
Ketamine
You are performing surgery on the distal extremity of a cow. What anesthetic technique is most appropriate?
IV local block
2 year old cat with nasal discharge and head shaking
nasopharyngeal polyp
Dog post-cystotomy is ill. What diagnostic test to perform?
compare Creatinine in abdomen fluid > serum (2x greater in abdomen)
Ceftiofur withdrawl time?
4 days (96 hours) according to Plumb for meat, no time for milk
Boards answer is probably looking for no withdrawal time
A cow with urolithasis. What do you do?
Add NaCl 12-16% to the top of the feed (encourages them to drink more)
A dog has a swelling under his right eye that is painful. Most likely
Periapical abscess of PM4
how do you anesthetize a cow to put it all the way out?
xylazine and ketamine
what drug do you use to put a cow into lateral recumbancy?
xylazine
how do you anesthetize a bovine digit for amputation?
tourniquet with 2% lidocaine infusion
the best anesthesia for teat amputation is...
ring block at the base, then infuse lidocaine into the teat
which spinal nerves do you block for a rumenotomy?
T13-L2
What is a complication for use of xylazine in a pregnant cow?
premature separation of placentomes
what is the safest and most humane anesthesia for disbudding kids?
10mg/kg of 2% lidocaine in ring block, manual restraint (chemical restraint is more stressful)
what is the biggest problem with endotracheal tubes in cattle?
aspiration of rumen contents
where is the proper placement of a needle for anesthetizing the cornea of a cow?
block lacrimal nerve via the zygomatic temporal nerve
goat C-section: what do you give with lidocaine?
diazepam
how to Sx correct LDA?
left sided abomasopexy, right sided omentopexy
a 1-2 week old calf has diarrhea. What is the most likely cause?
rotavirus
where is the ping from LDA best ausculted?
between ribs 9-13 along a line drawn from the tuber coxae to the elbow on the left side
what can infect cows after liver biopsy?
Clostridium novyi
large holstein dairy herd, 10 day old calves w diarrhea, 100% morbidity, 0% mortality. FPT tests are positive (no FPT). What is the next Dx step?
ELISA for cryptosporidium
one day post-partum cow is recumbent with decreased rumen contractions. What is the most likely cause?
ketosis
What GI problem is considered an emergency in cattle?
abomasal volvulus
when is a cow most prone to LDA?
3-6 weeks post-partum
cattle herd with an outbreak of diarrhea. Scruffy hair coat with alopecia. What is your top differential?
Johne's disease
what is the holding layer when suturing a paramedian incision in a cow?
external rectus fascia
what is not an appropriate approach to Sx repair of LDA?
Ventral midline
a cow with rumen pH of 5 most likely has....
grain overload
a cow that is 5 months into lactation has diarrhea with melena. What is your top differential?
abomasal ulcers (stressful event)
cow with linear lesions in the esophagus and hemorrhagic Peyer's patches. top differential?
BVD (think of mucosal disease complex)
several cows in a herd have died. On necropsy you find rumenal sloughing, rumen fluid pH of 5, focal liver lesions. top DDx?
lactic acidosis
8% of cattle herd have diarrhea. What is the most likely Dx?
Johne's (low morbidity and mortality)
What is the appropriate treatment of frothy bloat?
DSS
When is the appropriate time to repair a perineal laceration?
within 10 days
SCC of 800,000 in the bulk tank. What do you do now?
culture individual cows
do not use a live agent for vaccination with which agent in cattle?
leptospirosis
how does milk get contaminated with Salmonella dublin?
from carrier cows
herd of sheep sent to market were found to have over the fence contact with a Scrapie infected herd. What do you do now?
contact the authorities.
which cattle disease is NOT reportable to the state within 24 hours?
anaplasmosis
what does a 24 month old beef bull need to be tested for before travel to CA?
Trichomonas (also Brucella, TB)
which ruminant disease must be reported within 24 hours?
Foot and mouth disease
a 10 month old bull is tested for Trichomonas. There are some microscopic flagellated organisms. What do you do?
Cull (will be persistently infected, will pass to females from natural breeding or AI, causes EED)
How long are health certificates for cows good for?
30 days from the PE
The best post-milking teat dip is...
20,000 ppm iodinated solution
CMT is an indirect measure of ....
milk leukocytes (SCC)
SCC of less than 100,000 indicate...
increased chance of E. coli growth
the leptospirosis vaccine in cattle is good for... (time period)
less than 1 year of protection
if fresh cow's milk looks like red tomato soup...
don't do anything (not sure what this clinical sign is referring to, google just gives me recipes for creamy tomato soup)
Which cattle disease does not have a vaccine?
EBA (epizootic bovine abortion/foothill abortion)
what is the treatment for parakeratosis in cows?
zinc oxide (nutritional deficiency that causes abnormal keratinization of epidermis)
how do you treat foot rot in cattle?
systemic antibiotics (penicillin G from Merck Manual)
what is the most important treatment for interdigital phelgmon in cattle?
systemic antibiotics (this is another name for foot rot)
5yo registered cow w 1cm mass near the limbus of the eye. Best Tx?
scalpel excision then repeated cryotherapy
February, cows have matted hair on dorsum with crusty bumps. DDx?
Dermatophilus congolenses
which mineral deficiency would cause paresis in lambs?
copper (enzootic ataxia "swayback")
cattle herd fed alfalfa hay is having a large number of fractures. What is the likely mineral imbalance?
copper deficiency, molybdenum excess (nutritional osteodystrophy)
cows fed only oat hay and barley are most likely deficient in...
calcium
decreased fat in the milk yield is most likely due to what dietary problem?
decreased fiber
calves on high grain and low fiber diet are susceptible to....
vagal indigestion
cows grazed in fields in California are predisposed to copper deficiency due to ...
high molybdenum content of soil
which clin path enzyme is elevated in vitamin E/selenium deficiency?
CPK
laminitis in a cow is usually a sequela of....
rumenal acidosis
what happens after a 4 point retrobulbar block in a cow for enucleation?
exophthalmus and mydriasis
there is an outbreak of moraxella bovis in a free-range herd. What is the best Tx option?
IM injection of long lasting oxytetracycline
a calf has belpharospasm, discharge and dye uptake. What do you do next?
check for foreign body such as foxtail
how is moraxella bovis transmitted?
face fly, direct contact, fomites
exophthalmia in a cow with no other signs. What is a top differential?
leukosis
what do you treat cattle fluke with?
albendazole
what is the economic impact from hypoderma bovis?
damage to the hide
suspect calf has cryptosporidiosis. How do you differentiate from other coccidia?
extracellular location (?)
cattle in november with green diarrhea, poor condition, no oral ulcers, sudden onset. Top differential?
Ostertagia type 1 (in summer and early fall in cool climates)
(type II is in late winter and early spring in cool climates)
which cattle intestinal parasite feeds on blood?
Haemonchus
at 60 days of pregnancy in a cow, what can you feel on palpation?
membrane slip
what are the clinical signs in an aborted fetus due to EBA?
hepatomegaly, splenomegaly with generalized granulomatous nodular areas, lymphomegaly, non-autolyzed
how can you prevent EBA in a cattle herd?
expose heifers to the area prior to breeding age (Sacramento, San Joaquin, Sierra Nevada foothills)
what is the most common agent in cattle endometritis?
Arcanobacterium pyogenes
how do you best control contagious mastitis?
post-milking teat dip
what is the best method for restraint for preg check on a large, nervous herd of cattle?
squeeze chute
what treatment is contraindicated for retained placenta in a cow?
manual removal
which drug has no milk/meat withdrawal time?
IM ceftiofur (varies based on species, but Plumb and FARAD lists a 4 day withdrawal for meat, no period for milk)
what is not a good Tx option for environmental mastitis?
intramammary antibiotics (but you should seal the teat during dry period)
which pathogen can be well treated with intramammary antibiotics?
S. agalactiae
Trichomonas fetus is NOT associated with....
late term abortions (does cause EED and infertility, post-coital pyometra)
what would you use to treat a cow with repeated heat cycles in a short time period?
GnRH
an asymptomatic cat test positive for heartworm. What do you do?
no treatment needed
the heartworm antigen test detects what?
female worm infection
an 8yo boxer has tachycardia, pulse defecits and a cough. top DDx?
atrial fibrillation
what are common PE findings of mitral valve disease?
cough, systolic murmur
what is a treatment option for refractory ascites/edema in CHF?
lasix (furosemide)
What ECG changes are seen with pulmonic stenosis?
Deep S wave, tall P wave
dog with PCV 20% and spherocytes. top DDx?
IMHA
what is seen in low output heart failure?
jugular venous distention
what is the treatment of choice for V-tach?
procanimide
What drug is contraindicated with VPC's?
Isoproternol
what position should you use for canine ECG?
right lateral recumbancy
what do you treat atrial premature contractions with?
propanolol
heartworm disease does not cause what cardiovascular problem?
systemic hypertension
heartworm disease causes enlargement of what vessel?
pulmonary artery
a toy breed dog presents with periodontal disease. What is the most likely underlying problem?
retained deciduous teeth
a cat has severe stomatitis. what is the most likely underlying disease?
FIV
what breeding recommendation do you have for a dog whose mandibular canines occlude caudal to the maxillary canines?
abnormal, genetic, do not breed
what treatment do you send home for a dog with uncomplicated diabetes mellitus?
SQ insulin BID
cat has trouble jumping on furniture and plantigrade stance. What is your first diagnostic test?
CBC/chem
dermatologic manifestations of hypothyroidism in the dog include:
seborrhea, alopecia, non-pruritic
what is the most threatening post-op complication for thyroidectomy in a cat?
hypoparathyroidism
what would be a poor response to treatment in a dog with EPI?
increased appetite (they are already polyphagic at onset, so Tx should improve this)
clin path changes seen with lymphangectasia
decreased lymphocytes, decreased protein, decreased cholesterol
the most common cause of hepatic encephalopathy in a dog is...
vascular anomaly
what is the most common nasal fungus in cats? dogs?
cats: cryptococcus
dogs: aspergillus
what fungal disease can cause polyarthritis?
coccidioides
how do you treat conjunctivitis in a cat caused by Chlamydia?
tetracycline
what is the most frequent cause of corneal ulcers in a cat?
herpes virus
5 yo lab with ocular discharge, 105F, lymphadenopathy, vomiting, diarrhea. Top DDx?
distemper
feline panleukopenia virus environmental concern
can live in the soil for up to 1 year
what is the etiology of lymphocytic-plasmacytic ulcers in cats?
unknown
kitten with fever, lethargy, diarrhea. What is your top DDx?
panleukopenia
people are most likely to get Chlamydia from which species?
birds and cats
the vector of Erlichia canis is:
Rhipicephalus
1 yo dog with cough and lymphadenopathy. Top DDx?
coccidiomycosis
treatment for cryptococcus in a cat?
radiation therapy and ketoconazole
the causative agent of cat scratch fever is:
Bartonella (gram negative rod)
6 month old lab comes back from the woods with symmetrically swollen face, lips and eyes. What is your top DDx and how do you treat?
allergic reaction. Tx with steroids, antihistamine
what shampoo should you never use in cats?
tar shampoo
5yo doberman with solitary, pruritic, ulcerated lesion on the craniolateral tarsus. Top DDx?
acral lick granuloma
what is the most common ulcerative lesion on a dog's nose?
discoid lupus
a boxer presents with a single, nodular lesion on the dorsum which has been growing for 6 weeks. FNA is non-diagnostic. What do you do next?
Surgical excision with wide margins (or wide biopsy with histopath)
which bacteria is spread by plant awns?
Actinomyces
best way to culture an abscess?
FNA of the center, submit for aerobic and anaerobic
17 yo FS mixed breed dog with PU/PD, lethargy, anorexia, USG 1.018, hypercalcemia. What is next exam step?
rectal exam
puppy diet analysis of 8% protein, 0.6% calcium, 0.1% phos. What do you tell the owner?
protein level is low (should be 22-25% DM)
Ca and P levels are too low (should be 1.5:1 ratio; 0.7-1.2% Ca DM basis)
a cat is only fed liver for their diet. What is the main nutritional problem?
hypervitaminosis A (will cause joint/bone issues)
taurine deficiency in cats causes:
retinal degeneration and DILATED cardiomypathy
fatty acid that is required in the cat diet but not in the dog diet:
Aracadonic acid
cat was given phosphate enema 45 minutes ago and is now seizuring. What is the treatment?
IV calcium gluconate
what is the most common cause of hypercalcemia in dogs/cats?
non-parathyroid malignancy (paraneoplastic syndrome)
when feeding a puppy a milk replacer, what do you need to supplement to prevent cataracts?
arginine and methionine
what is the best fluid to administer to a patient in a hypercalcemic crisis?
0.9% NaCl
which food has the highest level of taurine?
shellfish
hyperphosphatemia in dog/cats causes....
demineralization
in dogs, hypophosphatemia causes....
hemolytic anemia
to avoid sciatic nerve damage when placing a femoral IM pin, how should it be placed?
normograde from the trochanter
a tension band is used for treatment of what kind of fracture?
avulsion of the greater trochanter
shoulder OCD lesions in dogs typically appear at what age?
4-8 months
OCD in dogs has the best prognosis when it occurs in which location?
caudal humeral head
what species is the major carrier animal for rabies in california?
skunks
what drug should you not give with head trauma?
ketamine (increases intracranial pressure)
what drug should not be given to a 6yo dog with a history of seizures?
chlorpromazine, acepromazine
rabies has never been known to be transmitted via which route?
IV (has been reported as IM, SQ, intranasal/aerosol)
what are the clinical signs of horner's?
enophthalmia, ptosis, miosis, 3rd eyelid protrusion, anhydrosis (horses)
what is the most common neoplasia in cat mouth? dogs? (name 2 for dogs)
cat: SCC
dog: melanoma, SCC
what is the prognosis for a dog with pancreatic cancer and why?
poor because they metastasize quickly
which mites are zoonotic?
Cheyletiella
Sarcoptes
Notoedres
a positive Toxoplasma titer means...
active or very recent infection (you need to measure IgM)
A cat comes in with severely pruritic ears, face and neck. top DDx?
Notoedres cati
demodex infection can be treated with what drugs?
amitraz
lime-sulfur dip
cephalosporin if there is a secondary skin infection
how do you treat a dog with ocular Thelazia?
surgical removal
treatment of otodectes in a cat?
ivermectin PO
selamectin topical (Revolution)
what is the stain for giardia?
trichrome
piperazine is used to treat what parasite?
roundworms
treatment of choice for cat bite abscess?
amoxicillin
which anesthetic drug should be avoided in a dog with glaucoma?
ketamine (increases intracranial pressure)
the use of nitrous oxide would be contraindicated for which type of surgical procedure?
intestinal anastamosis, GDV, pneumothorax, cases of gas embolism
hydralzine has what side effects?
Hydralzine: smooth muscle relaxant for high blood pressure
side effects: vomiting, diarrhea, hypotension
of these antibiotics, which has the longest half-life? chephalosporins, aminoglycosides, macrolides, penicillins
macrolides
digoxin is used to treat...
supraventricular tachycardia
which anesthetic reduces catecholamine induced arrhythmias?
acepromazine
ketamine is excreted by which organ system?
kidney
which antibiotics are effective against pyoderma?
oxicillin, enrofloxacin, lincomycin (I think this card is wrong because cephalosporins are usually the first choice)
which anesthetic agent has the least effect on GI motility?
pentobarbital
what is an advantage of isofluorane over halothane?
isofluorane is not metabolized by the body (faster recovery)
phenylpropanolamine is used for what treatment?
incontinence in dogs and cats due to urethral sphincter hypotonis
what is true about aspirin and phenylbutazone in regards to platelet function?
both inhibit platelet function (decreased clotting)
why is it not recommended to give modified live virus vaccine to pregnant animals?
may cause fetal deformation and/or death
what is the most common bacteria involved with prostatitis in dogs?
E. coli
vaginal hyperplasia in dogs occurs when and how is it treated?
occurs during proestrus and estrus
treated with OVH
what is the most common cause of pneumothorax in a dog?
trauma
how should you treat a dog with respiratory distress and flail chest?
intubate and place on positive pressure ventilation
what are the most important causes of URI in cats?
Rhinotracheitis and calicivirus
mushrooms eaten by a dog leads to disease of what organ system?
liver toxicosis
what type of crystals are seen with ethylene glycol toxicosis?
calcium oxalate
which coagulation test would not be affected by rodenticide toxicity?
fibrinogen
what kind of rattlesnake bite scenario would be the worst?
small snake, spring, bite on torso/abdomen
what clinical signs would you see with digitalis toxicity?
anorexia, diarrhea, vomiting
what is the daily water requirement for an animal? (ml/kg/day)
40-60 ml/kg/day (go with the high end for the Ca boards test)
what breed of dog has renal dysgenesis resulting in PU/PD and decreased USG?
doberman
what is an important treatment for a dog that has been electrocuted?
furosemide (non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema)
what is the most common cause of feline cataracts?
anterior uveitis (same in horses)
how long does it take for a ruptured tympanic membrane to heal?
1-3 weeks
what is most likely with unilateral epiphora, blepharspasm and swelling of the adnexa?
corneal ulcer
Sabaroud's agar is used for growing what type of organisms?
fungi or yeast
what is the incubation period of Chlamydia in a bird?
14 days from past boards material
3-10 days up to 2 months in Merck manual
how do you diagnose Trichomonas in a bird?
wet mount of crop/esophagus mucus or fluid
which psitticine is predisposed to problems with hypocalcemia, weakness and seizures?
African gray parrot
which avian disease is not immediately reportable in california?
Fowl Cholera (P. multocida)
this disease is reported on a monthly basis by diagnostic labs
infectious bronchitis in chickens is caused by which agent?
viral--Infectious bronchitis virus
when collecting blood from a bird via nail trim, which value will be falsely elevated?
uric acid (?)
what are some rule outs for a Psitticine with oral lesions?
Candida
Vitamin A deficiency
Avian pox
what are the clinical signs of a birds with lead poisoning? What is unique about the method of poisoning?
vomiting, diarrhea, weakness, seizures
The lead must be ingested. Will not show signs from being shot in muscle
on an x-ray of a bird, there is increased opacity between the heads of the femur. What is most likely?
grit in ventriculus
what disease is caused by vitamin E deficiency in birds?
encephalomalacia
which fungal organism commonly overgrows in birds and how is it treated?
yeast (Candida, crop mycosis, sour crop, thrush)
treated with Nystatin
which lab value in blood is often higher in birds than in other animals?
glucose
what is the likely Dx of a baby rabbit with diarrhea and how do you treat it?
Tyzzer's (Clostridium piliformis)
Tetracycline
what is important to remember about rabbit castration?
increased risk of herniation due to open inguinal rings
what is the most appropriate post-surgical pain control for a rabbit?
buprenorphine
A rabbit has ataxia and a head tilt. What are the most likely pathogens?
Psoroptes cuniculi
Encephalitozoan cuniculi
(CAPC also has Baylisascaris listed for this)
what is the gestation period of a guinea pig?
60-65 days
what is the most common type of tumor in rabbits?
uterine adenocarcinoma
what is the most common pathogen in mouse lungs?
Mycoplasma pulmonis
Red leg, blister disease and mouth rot in herps are caused by which pathogen?
Aeromonas
what drugs are prohibited from use in food-producing animals?
antivirals in poultry
Clenbuterol
chloramphenicol
DES (diethylsibestrol)
Dipyrone (NSAID)
Gentian violet (antifungal)
Glycopeptides (Vancomycin)
Nitroimidazoles (metronidazole)
Nitrofurans
phenylbutazone in adult (lactating) dairy cattle
fluoroquinolones (not for extra-label use)
sulfonamides (not for extra-label use)