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167 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
Definition of Vyse
Best Single Engine Rate of Climb: airspeed which delivers greatest gain in altitude in shortest time; gear/flaps up
Prior to movement of flight control surface area what must you do
Prolonged use of the emergency lights will
discharge the battery pack
Why should the emergency exit keylock be removed before flight?
to allow removal of the door from the outside in event of emergency
Allowable reading when checking oil; what to do if >3 qts low
Dipstick may read between 1 to 2 quarts low; on a cold engine may indicate more than 2 quarts low; run engine 2 min, then recheck
Sound levels in cockpit area with engines running do or do not exceed hearing conservation levels?
Sound Levels DO exceed hearing conservation levels
On engine start, if no rise in TGT occurs within 10 seconds of introducing fuel..
Accomplish the ABORT START checklist (1. Cond. Levr - Fuel Cutoff 2. Ign & Eng Start Switch - As Required)
If nacelle/engine fire is suspected (fire light illuminated or high TGT), accomplish what checklist
The carrying of T.O 1C-12A-1 isn the aircraft is or is not optional
IS NOT optional
Do not turn the radar on within _____ft of ground personnel or containers holding flammable or exploseive material.
Prolonged use of the pitot and stall warning heat will or will not damage the heating elements
WILL damage the heating elements
How can you determine that an auxilary fuel tank is empty?
Fuel gages
T or F: Setting power in excess of charted max cruise power will not reduce engine life
Prop range that may cause ILS interference
To ensure constant reversing charactaristics, the prop controls must be in the _____ position
Utilization of the linear deviation mode in other than coupled approach may ____
result in excessive deviation from course centerline
During a go-around, raising the flaps from full down to up may ________.
cause the aircraft to stall
If sustained combustion is observed during engine shutdown....
proceed immediately to the NACELLE/ENGINE FIRE ON THE GROUND checklist
86 KIAS; min flight speed at which a/c is directionally controllable as determined in accordance with FARs.
If strong winds are anticipated, secure props in order to...
prevent windmilling with zero oil pressure
During engine restart during flight (no starter assist), periodically move the _______ to ________ as necessary to prevent
condition lever; fuel cutoff; 1000 deg C TGT
Can the ice vanes be retracted electrically after manual extension?
Prop overspeeds above ______ indicate failure of the ______. Torque is limited to ___ for sustained operation above _____.
2000-primary; 2080 both; 81%;2000
With loss of ____power, the aircraft will depressurize
T or F: Illumination of the FUEL PRESS warning light usually indicates an engine driven boost pump failure.
If an essential circuit breaker trips in flight; can you reset it?
Yes; one reset is permitted
If DC power is lost, what are the only electrical instruments available?
Prop RPM, N1 RPM, and TGT
After an emergency landing gear extension has been made, what should you do and not do?
DO NOT move any gear controls or reset any switches/CBs
DO pump until 3 green gear down lights illuminate and gear handle lights extinguish
If a main gear tire is flat which edge of the runway should you touch down on?
Opposite the flat tire
If runway distance permits, consideration should be made to making a no flap or an approach flap landing while flying one engine inop...why?
to improve performance capability in the event of a missed approach/go-around.
A go around may or may not be attempted after the flaps have been extended beyond approach during single engine operations
DO NOT attempt to go around after the flaps are extended beyond approach (during SE ops)
Min oil temp for engine start
Max reverse time is limited to _____
1 minute
Engine ice vanes shall be retracted at _____
15deg C and above
Operation on aviation gasoline is limited to ____feet altitude with one standby boost pump inoperative.
Max fuel imbalance between fuel systems
Can you fly the aircraft with fuel in aux tanks if main tanks are not full?
NO: DO NOT fly the a/c with fuel in aux tanks unless main tanks are full
T or F: Normally crossfeed only during single engine operations
Max extension speed for 40% flaps is
200 KIAS
With the loss of the left current limiter, what electrical equipment is inop if no other malfunction exists?
No. 1 avionics single fed bus (#1 VOR, ADF, VHF, DME,RMI,IFF, intphn)
(answer is none above)
What two things activate the emergency lights
inertia swithes at 2-3G shock or a switch in the cockpit
Max altitude with YAW DAMP inop
What items are on the hot battery bus?
Cabin lights, stby boost pumps, fire extinguishers (squibs)& firewall shutoff valves.
T or F:Autopilot preflight check must be conducted and found satisfactory prior to each flight on which autopilot is to be used.
Min N1 during simultaneous use of brake deice and surface deice
Ice vanes shall be retracted for operations in ambient temps of _____
15 deg C or above
Operation of the surface deice boots in temperatures below ____ could result in....
-40; permanent damage to the boots (T/F with -30 is false)
Before towing, ensure control locks are _______ as serious damage could result in the ________.
removed, steering linkage
Ice vanes shall be retracted for operations in ambient temps of _____
15 deg C or above
Operation of the surface deice boots in temperatures below ____ could result in....
-40; permanent damage to the boots (T/F with -30 is false)
T or F: Do not operate the weather radar set in a confined space where the nearest metal wall is 18 feet or less from the antenna
False; (18 feet is right, but it's from personel)
T or F: It's safe to reset the landing gear relay CB after landing
T or F: stall warning system is reliable during icing conditions
T or F: Do not fill aux tanks unless mains are full
T or F: all icing detection lights must be operative prior to flight into icing conditions at night
Operation with the FUEL PRESSURE LIGHT illuminated is limited to ____ hours.
Min runway length for touch and go landings
5000 feet
Max crosswind for a wet runway (RCR 12)
25 knots
T or F: when IMC or night conditions, any approved instrument approach is recommended
Which are true re. Rudder Boost? a) not required for flight b)will apply rt rudder when L eng is at idle and rt engine is at TO pwr c) inop when either bleed air valve switch is in pneu and enviro off
All of the above
Max demonstrated X-wind
25 KTS
Required N1 to maintain pressurization
Prop RPM that may interfere with ILS glideslope
Complete loss of pneumatic pressure will cause loss of what
Surface de-ice
Pressurization control
(all of the above)
With both bleed air switches in ENVIRO OFF what will happen?
aircraft will depressurize and L BL AIR OFF and R BL AIR OFF lights will illuminate
W/ no other electrical system malfunction, failure of a 325a isolation limiter:
Reduces the capability for recharging the battery from one generator
Complete loss of DC power in flight will cause loss of...what?
pressurization; A.C. powered instruments; aux fuel transfer
The firewall mounted flow control units will do what if complete electical failure
stop the airflow into the pressure vessel if the a/c experiences complete electrical failure
The door seal (C model) is inflated by air from where? (a)left engine only (b)right engine only (c) either engine (d)ejector pump
c. either engine
Yaw damp is required for
all flights above 17,000
Overspeed gov check, RPM should stabilize at...
Engine operation with fuel pressure light illuminated is limited to...
10 hours until the engine fuel pump overhaul or replacement (not engine replacement)
Illumination of the battery charge light indicates
a normal condition after a battery start (that it is charging at 6AMPS over 7 seconds- not 6volts)
Normal operating range for pneumatic pressure is
12-20 PSI
NO FUEL TRANSFER lights should extinguish within ___to___ seconds after engine start.
Set the cabin pressurization controller to planned cruise altitude plus:
1000 feet
Prop PRIMARY GOV operating range and test range
1600-2000; 1830-1910 (fuel topping gov does NOT prevent prop RPM from exceeding 2080)
ALT WARNING light illuminates when cabin press exceeds
Pressurization controller is mechanically or electrically controlled? operated?
mechanically controlled; electrically operated
Pulling the pressurization control circuit breaker in flight will
Render the dump switch inop
If either BL AIR FAIL light illuminates in flight, what to do?
The respective bleed air valve switch must be placed in PNEU and ENVIRO OFF
The BL AIR FAIL warning light illuminates in flight: then the left bleed air valve switch is turned off, but the green advisory light does not illuminate. You must
Pull the left bleed air valve circuit breaker to close the flow control valve
If both BL AIR FAIL warning lights illuminate at approximately the same time
What could be the cause?
Rupture could be in the common ducting from the "T" fitting to the CP feet
When a red BL AIR FAIL light illuminates, (when will it extinguish)
It will be extinguished only when the defective poly-flow tubing is replaced
During level cruise flight at less than max differential pressure, selecting a lower cabin altitude will:
Cause a cabin descent
Moving the pressure switch up to the dump position in flight (does what)
opens the safety valve and dumps cabin pressure, but does not affect bleed air input
Moving the left bleed air valve switch to the PNEU and ENVIRO OFF position in flight will...
Closes both the environmental flow control unit and the pneumatic instrument air valve
During landing gear manual extension which are true? a)gear handle should be down b) gear relay CB should be pulled (c) red lights in gear handle will extinguish when all three green have illuminated
Is there an alternate air source for both CP and P instruments?
NO, only Pilot's
The C-12 shall not be operated when ambient temperature is ____.
ISA + 37C (SL-25,000ft)
ISA + 31C (above 25,000ft)
How can you determine if vacuum is available?
Scheduled pressurization is being maintained
If the #1 nav set becomes inop, the pilot may set #2 nav set with the VOR select switch how will that affect the CDI?
Course changes on the co-pilot's CDI will have no effect on the pilot's course deviation indicator
With autopilot and flight director engaged, activation of the turn control knob on the autopilot pitch-turn panel will/or will not remove the flight director's crossed-needles from view
WILL (except when APPR captured or GA mode is released)
With the autopilot engaged, activation of the electric pitch trim switches on the yoke causes:
autopilot to disengage and AP TRIM FAIL light to illuminate
If #2 NO FUEL XFR light illuminates in flight when fuel in rt aux tnk, and pilot places rt AUX trnsfr switch to override...
The #2 NO FUEL XFR light will extinguish if motive flow valve has opened and no other fault exists
Engine air inlet lips are heated by...
exhaust gases whenever the engine is operating
If the battery charge light illuminates in flight, note loadmeter readings then...
Turn battery switch off then check loadmeters for a 2.5% max change
What is the rating for the battery?
24v, 34 amp-hr
When a generator is off line, what indication is present?
A yellow DC GEN light is on
Where is the external power connector located?
Under the right wing, outboard of the engine nacelle
What is the individual generator rating?
28v; 250 amp
What is the rating of each inverter?
115v; 26v, 400Hz
After starting the rt eng. and turn the rt gen on, what should the loadmeter reading decrease to before turning generator off?
Why should the battery switch be left on during use of external power?
to protect against excessive current
What BUS powers the airstair light?
Hot battery bus
Where is the cabin light switch located
just inside the airstair door frame
How is the switch that controls the fluorescent cabin lights labeled?
INTR lights
What is the switch labeled "Master panel lights" used for?
To control power for all cockpit panel lights
A red annunciator light will extinguish
when the indicator fault is corrected
Fuel is heated prior to entering the fuel control unit by
engine oil, through an oil-to-fuel heat exchanger
Which is not affected when the crossfeed switch is moved to the right or left?
The override function for
Which is electrically powered? a)Eng Drvn Boost Pump (b) Stby boost pump (c) engine fuel pump (d) fuel manifold pump
Standby boost pump
What are three functions of the electric standby boost pump?
backup for primary boost pump, with avgas above 20k ft, crossfeed operation
hot battery bus check tests electrical continuity to which fuel system items
firewall valves and standby boost pumps
what is the max altitude and limitations for ops w/avgas
max alt 20,000ft with one standby boost pump inop and 150 hours between overhauls
Operation of the engine with the fuel press lt illum is limited to what?
10 hrs of eng ops between eng fuel pump overhauls or replacement
function of reduction gear system is to provide gear reduction for what?
for the propeller
In reverse, the max limit for N2 RPM is a function of the
Power turbine governor
What is the most accurate definition of engine torque readout
Power delivered to the propeller
During a ground start of the right engine the IGNITION ON light should illuminate
When the start switch is moved to the ignition and engine start position
Approximately what temperature will cause the plastic pneumatic tubing of the bleed air warning system to fail?
204 degrees F
A bleed air leak could result in a decrease in ___ and an increase in ___-
Engine torque; TGT
What are the eng insts monitored after a bld air warning lt and the respective bleed air valve is placed in PNEU & ENVIRO OFF?
Increase in Torque, decrease in TGT
What lts illuminate whenever there is a break in the pneumatic air line?
Either L BL AIR FAIL or R BL AIR FAIL or both
What is the normal operating pressure limit of the pneumatic system?
20 PSI
If the boots are held inflated too long they may
form the foundation for a new unremovable layer of ice
If the airplane is flying through icing conditions, what is min speed necessary to keep bottom of wings ice-free?
140 KTS
wing and horizontal stablizer leading edges are de-iced by:
Pneumatically inflated boots
When deice boots are automatically cycled, timer sequence is as followed...
Wings, 6 seconds; horizontal stabilizers, 4 seconds
windshield temperature is regulated and affected by:
heat sensors which sense glass temperature
electical current requirmnts of prop boots must be monitored because:
defective boots can cause uneven deicing and serious vibrations
During icing conditions in flight, is the stall warning
Is unreliable (not even if wing boots and warning vane heat is on)
Engine compressor inlet screen is protected from ice particles by:
An inertial ice vane system
mechanical backup operation of engine ice vanes in case of electromechanical failure
must be used to the exclusion of the electrical system for the flight's duration
In case of bleed air failure from either source... which system should not be used
only the brake deice system should not be used
When the prop deice system is operated manually, the prop ammeter reads...
0 amperes
The loss of one heating element on a prop is indicated by...
prop ammeter reading of approximately 10 amps
When the N1 falls below 65%, the compressor clutch disengages and what light illuminates?
How much of the recirculated cabin air is routed through the ceiling outlet ducts?
How does the pilot ensure that the air-to-air heat exchanger valves are in the max cool position?
Select Man Cool, then hold the manual temp switch in DECR position for one minute
What is the source of fresh air during unpressurized flight with the press switch in the dump position?
Ram air
What is avoided by opening the flow control units ambient air valves one at a time?
Excessive pressure bumps during takeoff
rate of change selected on the rate control knob may be from approximately ___ to ____.
200 - 2000 FPM
What indicator indicates the rate of cabin pressure altitude change
cabin climb (vertical speed) indicator
what limits landing gear travel when full up or down position of the gear has been achieved?
limit switches and dynamic brake relay
How is the electric motor torque transmitted to the gear actuators?
By torque tubes to the main gear actuators and by a chain to the nose gear actuators
In the event of electrical failure, how is the landing gear extended?
by using the emergency engage handle and the extension handle, located on the floor to the left of the pedestal
What is the max allowable altitude with yaw damp inoperative?
What happens when the flap handle is moved from the down to the approach position?
flaps will not retractBy
How is the stall warning system normally tested prior to flight?
By placing the stall warn test switch in the test position
When does the diluter-demand, quick-donning mask deliver oxygen?
Upon inhalation
Why must the oxygen pull on-system ready handle be pulled out, prior to flight, arming the system?
In case of oxygen bottle linkage freeze-up
At what cabin pressure altitude does the barometric pressure switch automatically open the pax O2 valve (D model)
T or F: Touch and go landings are authorized with passengers on board
What is the maximum flight duty period for training missions?
(Not 12)
What is the max crew duty time for a basic crew?
16 hours
Are passengers allowed in either pilot seat while in flight?
What nontransmitting devices are permitted above 10,000ft with authorization from PIC
Audio and video recorders and playback devices; computer,peripherals, and electronic entertainment devices, radio receivers (all above)
Mandatory altitude calls for pnf are (non precision)
100 above MDA
Runway in sight
Go around
(all of above)
Mandatory altitude calls for PNF are (precision)
100 above DH
Land or Go Around at DH
(all above)
T or F: One pilot should record and will acknowledge all ATC clearances
T or F: One pilot will normally monitor UHF and VHF guard emergency frequency regardless of the primary radio
The use of "Time Out" will:
provide a clear warning sign of a deviation or loss of SA, (b)opportunity to break error change (c)notify all crewmembers that someone sees the aircraft or crew deviating from established guidelines (all above)
Airfields will be considered below minimums for takeoff and landing when the winds (including gusts) are greater than the following:
a) max operating wind 50 kts (b)max tailwind comp. 10 kts (c)max t/o and land comp for dry rwy (RCR35) is 25kts (d) all above
Minimum runway length for touch and go
5000 (not 4000ft)
T or F: Do not attempt to takeoff of runway available less than accel stop adjusted for RCR
T or F: Both approach and departure end overruns may be used if stressed and authorized