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82 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
Choose hyperplasia or neoplasia...
...physiologically reversible condition. |
hyperplasia
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Choose hyperplasia or neoplasia...
...replication exceeds physiological need. |
neoplasia
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What is the fancy name for big synthetic chemicals?
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xenobiotics
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T or F:
Cancer is the leading cause of death in dogs and cats in the US. |
True!
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Living in urban areas is linked to _________ cancer in dogs.
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tonsillar
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Pesticide use is linked to ______________ cancer in dogs.
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bladder
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The point after which a cell must divide is the_____ point. Which phase occurs after this point?
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R point; followed by S phase
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Which proteins serve as check points for each phase in the cell cycle?
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CDKs (cyclin dependent kinases)
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What are the 3 steps required for carcinogenesis?
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Initiation
Promotion Progression |
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T or F:
An initiated cell is not a cancer cell. |
True!
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T or F:
Tumors cannot develop if the promotor is applied before the initiator. |
True
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What are the 6 characteristics of cancer cells?
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Sustaining proliferative signalling
Resistance to cell death Inducing angiogenesis Enabling replicative immortality Activating invasion and metastasis Evading growth suppressors |
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What are the 4 modes of signalling that cancer cells may use?
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Endocrine, paracrine, autocrine, juxtacrine
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Choose apoptosis or necrosis...
...loss of membrane integrity. |
Necrosis
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Choose apoptosis or necrosis...
...condensation of nucleus. |
Apoptosis
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Choose apoptosis or necrosis...
...swelling of cytoplasm. |
Necrosis
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Choose apoptosis or necrosis...
...fragmentation of cell into smaller bodies. |
Apoptosis
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Choose apoptosis or necrosis...
...ATP-independent. |
Necrosis
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Choose apoptosis or necrosis...
...involves at least 2 independent pathways. |
Apoptosis
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What are some examples of normal angiogenesis?
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Estrus/menstrual cycles
Inflammation Wound healing |
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What are three characteristics of blood vessels induced by cancerous angiogenesis?
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Less organized
May lack one or several layers Tortuous, dilated, and irregular Intermittent blood pressure; may be slow or stagnant |
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What aspect of cancerous angiogenesis may disrupt chemotherapy?
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Slow to stagnant or intermittent blood flow
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What cancer therapy directly impacts cancerous angiogenesis?
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Metronomic therapy
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What are the benefits of metronomic therapy?
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Normalize newly formed vessels (reduces hypoxia and improves drug delivery)
Works on tumors resistant to chemo Reduce growth factor production Lower toxicity |
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What enzyme in cancer cells is responsible for replicative immortality?
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Telomerase
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What are the two theories of metastatic disease?
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1) Seed and soil (cells "prefer" a certain organ)
2) Cells get lodged in capillary beds |
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Suppression of which two genes helps cancer cells to evade growth suppressors?
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Rb
P53 |
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What is the most common splenic tumor in the dog?
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HSA
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What is the signalment for cutaneous HSA?
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lightly pigmented breeds (beagles, white bulldogs, whippets...)
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What are the most common sites of PRIMARY HSA?
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Spleen > Liver > Right Atrium > Skin
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What are the two forms of hemangiosarcoma?
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Visceral
Cutaneous |
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What are the common sites of HSA metastasis and what are the percentages?
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Lungs (65%)
Spleen & Kidneys (55%) Liver (50%) |
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Approximately ______% of patients with a splenic mass will have a right atrial mass.
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25%
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What is a common acute presentation of HSA and why?
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Dead or in baaaaaad shape;
due to splenic rupture, hemoabdomen, and cardiac tamponade |
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What are three major signs of hypovolemic shock?
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Pale mucous membrane
Prolonged capillary refill Dyspnea |
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T or F:
2/3 of splenic masses are hemangiosarcoma in dogs. |
False!
It's technially 4/9! 2/3 of splenic masses are malignant and 2/3 of those are HSA. |
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Which of the following laboratory findings are congruent with visceral hemangiosarcoma?
a) Anemia b) Eosinophilia c) Thrombocytopenia d) Neutrophilia e) Increased nRBC |
a) Anemia
c) Thrombocytopenia d) Neutrophilia e) Increased nRBC |
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What are indications for biopsying a suspected splenic HSA?
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NOOOOOOOOOOOOO! Don't biopsy a HSA!!!
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What should be checked before performing a splenectomy in a HSA case?
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Check the right atrium for involvement!
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Predict the relative values of the following in a DIC case?
BMBT, FDP, Thrombocytes, PT, PTT |
BMBT, FDP, PT, PT (all increased)
Thrombocytes (decreased) |
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What should be looked-for 24 hours post splenectomy?
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VPCs
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T or F:
30-50% of canine HSA is in the right atrium. |
True!
Don't get confused with the stat that 25% of splenic HSA has R atrial involvement |
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What might be found in a cardiocentesis of a pericardial effusion in a dog with cardiac HSA?
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Troponin I (higher in HSA dogs than idiopathic effusion)
Malignant cells rarely seen |
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What are the signs of cardiac tamponade?
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Restricted ventricular filling
Venous congestion and ascites Muffled heart sounds Arrthymias |
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How is cardiac HSA treated?
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Pericardiocentesis + Doxorubicin
(maybe right atrial appendage resection) |
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T or F:
If you see two cutaneous hemangiosarcoma lesions, it may represent metastatic disease. |
True!
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Describe the level of infiltration for stage 1 cutaneous HSA. What is the treatment?
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Stage 1 - skin only
WIDE surgical excision |
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Describe the level of infiltration for stages 2 and 3 cutaneous HSA? How are these treated?
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Stage 2 (hypodermal)
Stage 3 (muscle) Sx excision + doxorubicin |
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What are the four classifications of cancers involving histiocytes?
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Cutaneous histiocytosis
Cutaneous histiocytoma Systemic histiocytosis Histiocytic sarcoma |
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Which of the four classes of histiocytic cancer is characterized by...
...spontaneous regression. |
Cutaneous histiocytoma and histiocytosis
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Which of the four classes of histiocytic cancer is characterized by...
...lymphadenopathies. |
Systemic histiocytosis
Histiocytic sarcoma |
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Which of the four classes of histiocytic cancer is characterized by...
...good response to immunosuppression. |
Cutaneous histiocytosis
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Which of the four classes of histiocytic cancer is characterized by...
...systemic involvement. |
Systemic histiocytosis
Histiocytic sarcoma |
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Which of the four classes of histiocytic cancer is characterized by...
...overrepresentation of Bernese Mountain Dogs. |
Systemic histiocytosis
Histiocytic sarcoma |
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Which of the four classes of histiocytic cancer is characterized by...
...most cases <2 years. |
Cutaneous histiocytoma
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What IHC tests can be diagnostic for histiocytic sarcoma?
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CD1, CD11, CD18
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Which of the four classes of histiocytic cancer is characterized by...
...rapid fatality. |
Histiocytic sarcoma
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Which of the classes of histiocytic cancer is characterized by...
...erythrophagocytosis. |
Splenic histiocytic sarcoma
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What are the types of soft tissue sarcomas?
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Liposarcoma
Rhabdomyosarcoma Fibrosarcoma Histiocytic sarcoma Myxosarcoma Peripheral nerve sheath tumor Undifferentiated sarcoma |
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T or F:
Most soft tissue sarcomas are encapsulated and locally invasive. |
False!
While they are locally invasive, they are PSEUDOENCAPSULATED |
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Which dogs are predisposed to soft tissue sarcomas (large or small)?
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Large
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Hypoglycemia is a paraneoplastic syndrome involved with which soft tissue sarcomas?
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Leiomyoma
Leiomyosarcoma |
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What does an FNA tell you about a soft tissue sarcoma?
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Not diagnostic; helps to rule-out lipoma or abscess.
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What are the rules for surgical excision of a soft tissue sarcoma?
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3 cm margins and 1-2 fascial planes deep!
Maybe 5cm margins in vaccine associated sarcomas! |
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Which chemotherapeutic is most effective in post-op treatment of soft tissue sarcomas?
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None! Chemo doesn't increase survival! Use radiotherapy if you don't think you got it all.
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Which soft tissue sarcoma is the least responsive to radiotherapy?
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fibrosarcoma
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What is a common signalment and location for low/high soft tissue sarcomas?
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In the maxilla of goldens. (low grade benign tumors but highly aggressive biological behavior)
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What is a common signalment for osteosarcoma?
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Older (7yo), large to giant-breed, intact dogs OR young, female, spayed rottie
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Where are the 4 major places to find OSA on the appendicular skeleton? Which is most/least common?
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Distal radius (1st), proximal humerus (4th)
Proximal tibia, distal femur (Tied for 2nd) "from the elbow, towards the knee" - for some reason this always makes me think of the "Get Low" Li'l Jon song... |
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T or F:
OSA is found 4x more often in the front limbs than in the rear. |
False!
I'm gettin y'all Dr. Schlipf style! It's actually only 2x more prevalent in the front! |
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Where is OSA most commonly found?
a) Epiphysis b) Metaphysis c) Diaphysis |
b) Metaphysis
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If OSA isn't in the limbs, where is it?
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the mouth! (27% mandible, 22% maxilla) or the spine (15%)
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If you see OSA in the diaphysis of the femur, what is the likely etiology?
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Fracture-associated
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Which of the following clinical signs can be associated with OSA?
a) chronic lameness b) acute lameness c) localized swelling d) facial deformity with lack of pain |
a) chronic lameness
b) acute lameness (pathological fracture) c) localized swelling note - facial deformity is associated but its painful |
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With appendicular OSA, how often will mets in the thorax be seen?
a) 10-15% b) 25-40% c) 75% d) 95% |
a) 10-15%
(only 10-15% have detectable metastasis; almost ALL have micrometastasis and 75-95% will eventually develop mets to the lungs within 1 yr) |
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What is the most accurate technique for OSA biopsy?
a) FNA b) Bone aspirate c) Jamshidi d) Michele trephine |
d) Michele trephine
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What is the gold standard treatment for appendicular OSA?
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Amputation
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What is probably the BEST treatment regimen for appendicular OSA? What is the MST in this case?
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Amputation + Chemotherapy (Carboplatin)
MST = 321 d |
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Which radiotherapeutic technique can minimize soft tissue damage when treating OSA?
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Stereotactic radiation
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Which non-chemo pharmaceutical can have some positive effect on OSA?
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Bisphosphonates
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What are good prognostic indicators for OSA survival?
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Low initial total ALP
Increased tumor necrosis |
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What value is highly predictive of the eventual development of pulmonary metastases in OSA?
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intra-tumoral ALP
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