Bontrager Chapter 2

Front 1

The correct term for the 7th cervical vertebra is:
a. xiphoid process
b. jugular notch
c. axis
d. vertebra prominens

Back 1

D
Vertebra prominens

Front 2

The trachea bifurcates to form the:
a. right and left bronchi
b. right an left hikum
c. costophrenic angles
d. pulmonary arteries

Back 2

A
right and left bronchi

Front 3

The point where the internal distal trachea divides is called the:
a. hilum
b. carina
c. epiglottis
d. alveoli

Back 3

B
Carina

Front 4

The area of each lung where the bronchi and blood vessels enter and leave is called the:
a. caring
b. apex
c. base
d. hilum

Back 4

D
Hilum

Front 5

The structures within the lung where oxygen and carbon dioxide gas exchange occurs is called the:
a. carina
b. alveoli
c. hilum
d. bronchi

Back 5

B
Alveoli

Front 6

Which of the following is NOT an aspect of the pleura?
a. Parietal pleura
b. Hilar Pleura
c. Pleural cavity
d. Pulmonary pleura

Back 6

B
Hilar pleura

Front 7

The condition in which blood fills the space between the layers of the pleura is called:
a. pneumothorax
b. hemothorax
c. atelectasis
d. empyema

Back 7

B
Hemothorax

Front 8

The extreme, outermost lower corner of each lung is called the:
a. costophrenic angle
b. apex
c. base
d. hilar region

Back 8

A
Costophrenic angle

Front 9

Which of the following structures is NOT found in the mediastinum?
a. Thymus gland
b. Heart and great vessels
c. Epiglottis
d. Trachea

Back 9

C
Epiglottis

Front 10

A narrow thorax that is shallow from the front to back, but very long in the vertical dimension is characteristic of an:
a. hypersthenic body habitus
b. sthenic body habitus
c. hyposthenic body habitus
d. asthenic body habitus

Back 10

C
Hyposthenic

Front 11

The best kV level for adult chest radiography is:
a. 85 kV, 40" SID
b. 110 kV, 40" SID
c. 120 kV, 60" SID
d. 120 kV, 72" SID

Back 11

D
120 kV, 72" SID

Front 12

What is the name of the special immobilization device used for pediatric chest studies?
a. Pigg-O-Stat
b. Restraining chair
c. Chest immobilizer
d. Franklin unit

Back 12

A
Pigg-O-Stat

Front 13

Which of the following is recommended for a chest study of a young pediatric patient?
a. 110 - 125 kV, short exposure time
b. 90 - 105 kV, mediumexposure time
c. 75 - 85 kV, short exposure time
d. 76 - 75 kV, long exposure time

Back 13

C
75 - 85 kv, short exposure time

Front 14

Which of the following is NOT a valid reason to perform chest projections with the patient in the erect position?
a. To reduce patient dose
b. To demonstrate air-fluid levels
c. To allow the diaphragm to move downward
d. To prevent hyperemia of the pulmonary vessels

Back 14

A
To reduce patient dose

Front 15

Why are the shoulders pressed downward and toward the IR for a PA of the chest?
a. To remove the scapulae from the lung fields
b. To prevent hyperemia of the pulmonary vessels
c. To allow the diaphragm to move downward
d. To reduce chest rotation

Back 15

A
To remove the scapulae from the lung fields

Front 16

Where is the CR placed for an AP supine projection of the chest?
a. 7 - 8" below C7
b. 1 - 2" below jugular notch
c. 3 - 4" below jugular notch
d. 3 - 4" below thyroid cartilage

Back 16

C
3 - 4" below jugular notch

Front 17

Which of the following terms is defined as shortness of breath?
a. Dyspnea
b. Pleurisy
c. Bronchiectasis
d. Atelectasis

Back 17

A
Dyspnea

Front 18

A condition in which all or a portion of the lung is collapsed is:
a. atlectasis
b. pleural effusion
c. pneumothorax
d. pneumoconiosis

Back 18

A
Atlectasis

Front 19

A condition in which excess fluid builds in the lungs as a result of obstruction of the pulmonary circulation is termed:
a. pulmonary emboli
b. pneumothorax
c. pulmonary edema
d. bronchopneumonia

Back 19

C
Pulmonary edema

Front 20

A sudden blockage of an artery in the lung is called:
a. pleurisy
b. pulmonary emboli
c. adult respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)
d. chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)

Back 20

B
Pulmonary emboli

Front 21

Which of the following is NOT a form of occupational lung disease?
a. Asbestosis
b. Silicosis
c. Anthracosis
d. Tuberculosis

Back 21

D
Tuberculosis

Front 22

Manual exposure factors for a patient with a large pneumothorax should be:
a. reduced
b. kept the same
c. increased
d. changed from automatic exposure to manual

Back 22

B
Kept the same

Front 23

(T/F)
A PA chest demonstrating 10 posterior ribs above the diaphragm is considered acceptable.

Back 23

True

Front 24

The double-walled membrand containg the lungs is called the:
a. peritoneum
b. alveolar membrane
c. bronchial mucosa
d. pleura

Back 24

D
Pleura

Front 25

The bone seen in the anterior portion of the neck just below the tongue is the:
a. thyroid bone
b. hyoid bone
c. cricoid bone
d. tracheal bone

Back 25

B
Hyoid bone

Front 26

Which of the following is NOT a part of the aorta?
a. Ascending aorta
b. Aortic arch
c. Transverse aorta
d. Descending aorta

Back 26

C
Transverse aorta

Front 27

To ensure better lung inspiration during chest radiography, exposure should be made during:
a. the first inspiration
b. the second inspiration,
c. full exhalation
d. normal breathing

Back 27

B
Second inspiration

Front 28

Which body type is associated with a broad and deep thorax?
a. asthenic
b. hyposthenic
c. asthenic
d. hypersthenic

Back 28

D
Hyperthenic

Front 29

What is the minimum number of ribs that should be demonstrated above the diaphragm on a PA radiograph of an average adult on inspiration?
a. 8
b. 10
c. 12
d. 14

Back 29

B
10

Front 30

(T/F)
Chest radiography is the most commonly repeated procedure because of poor positioning or exposure errors.

Back 30

True

Front 31

(T/F)
Because the heart is always located on the left, the use of anatomic side markers on the PA chest projection is not necessary.

Back 31

False
Situs inversus may be present

Front 32

Name 4 conditions that suggest the need for both inspiration and expiration chest radiographs.

Back 32

Pneumothorax
Fixed hemidiaphragm
Foreign body
Distinguishing a mass from rib

Front 33

What is a common radiographic sign seen on a chest radiograph for a patient with respiratory distress syndrome (RDS)?
a. Heart enlargement
b. Fluid in apices
c. Elevated diaphragms
d. Air bronchogram

Back 33

D
Air bronchogram

Front 34

For which of the following conditions is an increase in exposure factors indicated: (select all that apply)
a. atlectasis
b. neoplasm
c. severe pulmonary edema
d. RDS
e. emphysema
f. pneumothorax

Back 34

Atlectasis
Pulmonary edema
RDS

Front 35

Which of the following projections is recommended to detect calcifications in the upper lung region?
a. Left lateral decubitus
b. PA
c. RPO or LPO
d. AP lordotic

Back 35

D
AP Lordotic

Front 36

What position is used in a patient too ill to stand for an AP lordotic projection?
a. PA
b. AP semiaxial
c. RAO
d. LPO

Back 36

C
AP semiaxial

Front 37

The correct anatomic term for the Adam's apple is:
a. thyroid cartilage
b. larynx
c. hyoid bone
d. cricoid cartilage

Back 37

A
Thyroid cartilage

Front 38

The correct anatomic term for the shoulder blade is:
a. cervical rib
b. thoracic cage
c. scapula
d. transverse process

Back 38

C
Scapula

Front 39

The point of bifurcation of the trachea is called the:
a. main stem bronchus
b. primary bronchus
c. carina
d. costophrenic angle

Back 39

C
Carina

Front 40

A common genetic disease of the lung is:
a. pneumoconiosis
b. cystic fibrosis
c. emphysema
d. pleurisy

Back 40

B
Cystic fibrosis

Front 41

Permanent breakdown and enlargement of the bronchi is called:
a. atelectasis
b. bronchiectasis
c. hilar collapse
d. pneumoconiosis

Back 41

B
Bronchiectasis

Front 42

Name 3 reasons to have the patient erect for a PA of the chest.

Back 42

Better diaphragm lowering
Better demonstration of air-fluid levels
Decreased engorgement (hyperemia) of the pulmonary vessels.