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145 Cards in this Set

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What are macronutrients?

Microbial nutrients needed in large quantities for metabolism and cell structures.
What are trace elements?
Micronutrients or microbial nutrients needed in small amounts for enzyme production and maintenance of functions.
What are organic nutrients?
Carbon and hydrogen based products of living things.
Define inorganic nutrients and give some examples.
Nutrients that do not contain carbon or hydrogen, such as metals, gases, oxygen, carbon dioxide and water.
What is a heterotroph?
An organism that relies upon organic compounds for its carbon and energy needs.
What is an autotroph?
A microorganism that requires only inorganic nutrients and whose sole source of carbon is carbon dioxide.
Define Chemotroph.
An organism that oxidizes compounds to feed on nutrients.
Define phototroph.
Microbes that use photosynthesis to feed.
Define Photoautotroph.
An organism that utilizes light for it's energy and carbon dioxide chiefly for it's carbon needs.
Define chemoautotroph.
An organism that relies on inorganic chemicals for its energy and carbon dioxide for its carbon.
Define chemoheterotroph.
Microorganisms that uses organic carbon sources and chemical compounds.
What types of chemoheterotrophs are there?
Two, Saprobes and parasites.
Define saprobe.
A microbe that decomposes organic remains from dead organisms.
Define parasite.
An organism that lives on or within another organism (host) from which is gets nutrients and protection.
What's a methanogen?
A chemoautotroph that produces methane gas under anaerobic conditions.
What kind of respiration do most chemoheterotrophs prefer?
Aerobic respiration.
Name the kinds of passive transport.
Osmosis of water, diffusion and facilitated diffusion that requires a special protein.
Name the kinds of active transport.
Requires energy. A pump, such as to spit out antibiotics, endocytosis and exocytosis (requires vesicles so doesn't refer to bacteria).
What are the environment factors that influence microbes?
Temperature, oxygen requirements, pH, osmotic pressure and barometric pressure.
(mnemonic: Tom Orders Pam One Bouquet)
What kind of temperature do psychrophiles like?
Cold. Prefer 15 degrees C and can grow at 0 degrees C.
What kind of temperature do mesophiles like?
20-40 degrees C or 68-104F
What kind of temperature do thermophiles like?
They like it warm, over 45C or over 113 degrees F
What is an obligate aerobe?
A microorganism that requires oxygen and cannot grow without it.
What is a facultative anaerobe?
An aerobe that prefers oxygen but will grow without it.
What is a microaerophilic aerobe?
An aerobe that prefers small amounts of oxygen and will not grow in normal oxygen.
What is an obligate anaerobe?
A microorganism that will not grow if oxygen is present.
What is an aerotolerant anaerobe?
A microorganism that prefers no oxygen but will tolerate it.
What are barophiles and are they pathogenic?
Microorganisms that live where this is high pressure like deep in the ocean. They are not pathogenic.
Define Symbiotic and name 3 different kinds.
Two organisms living together in a close relationship. There are three kinds: Mutualism, Commensalism and parasitism.
What is mutualism? Give an example.
Two organisms living together in a close relationship where both organisms benefit. E. coli
What is commensalism? Give an example.
Two organisms living together in a close relationship where one organism is benefitted but the other is unchanged. Staphylococcus aureus.
What is parasitism? Give an example.
Two organisms living together in a close relationship where one organism benefits but the other is harmed. MRSA.
What is a non-symbiotic relationship and name the kinds.
Organisms that are free living, having a relationship that is not required for survival. The two kinds are synergism and antagonism.
What is synergism?
Two organisms working together that results in greater activity, both are benefitted.
What is antagonism?
Two or more organisms competing for survival in a common environment. They often inhibit or destroy other organisms. Bacteria or fungus that produce antibiotics.
Define biofilm.
The result when organisms attach to a substrate by some form of extracellular matrix that binds them together in complex organized layers.
Define quorum-sensing.
A group communication among bacteria in a biofilm in which members signal each other and coordinate their functions.
How does microbial growth occur?
At two levels. Growth at a cellular level with an increase in size and an increase in population.
What is binary fission?
Asexual reproduction of two new cells of approximately equal size as the result of parent cell division.
Define generation.
Time required for a complete fission cycle. Also called doubling time.
Define exponential growth.
Each new fission cycle increasing the population by a factor of 2.
What are the stages in the normal population growth curve?
1. Lag phase - no rapid increase in #s
2. Exponential growth phase
3. Stationary phase - dying at the same rate as growth curve. (space and nutrients may be a factor)
4. Death phase
(mnemonic - Liz Expects Steve's Dead-line)
What are the methods of analyzing population growth?
Turbidometry, the degree of cloudiness, or turbidity, reflects the relative population size and enumeration of bacteria. There is also a viable colony count and a direct cell count that can be automated or manual.
What is metabolism?
All the chemical and physical workings of a cell.
What is catabolism?
The breakdown of large macromolecules into smaller ones.
What is anabolism?
The building of larger molecules from smaller ones.
What are enzymes?
Biological catalysts that increase the rate of a chemical reaction by lowering the energy of activation (the resistance to the reaction). The enzyme is not permanently altered in the reaction.
What are simple enzymes?
Made of protein alone.
What are holoenzymes?
Conjugated enzymes made of protein and non-protein molecules.
What are apoenzymes?
The protein portion of a holoenzyme.
What are cofactors, or coenzymes?
The non-protein portion of holoenzymes.
Gives example of metallic cofactors.
Iron, copper, magnesium.
Give examples of coenzymes.
Organic molecules, vitamins.
What are exoenzymes?
Enzymes transported out of the cell.
What are endoenzymes?
Enzymes that are inside or part of the cell. They function inside the cell. Most enzymes are this kind. They are released when the cell dies.
What is an enzyme influenced by?
The cell's environment. It operates under the temperature, pH and osmotic pressure of a cell's habitat. If those things change, they can become unstable.
What is a chemically unstable enzyme called?
Labile.
When weak bonds that maintain the shape of the apoenzyme are broken, what is it called?
Denaturation.
What is an endergonic reaction?
It is an anabolic reaction within a cell that requires the use of energy.
What is an exergonic reaction?
It is a catabolic reaction within a cell that releases energy. The energy released is temporarily stored in high energy phosphate molecules. The energy of these molecules is used in endergonic cell reactions.
What is a redox reaction?
An electron donor gives an electron to an electron acceptor, always constituting a redox pair. The process salvages electrons and their energy. Released energy can be captured by an ADP or another compound.
What is bioenergetics?
The study of the mechanisms of cellular energy release, including catabolic and anabolic reactions.
Primary catabolism of glucose proceeds through a series of three coupled pathways. What are they?
Glycolosis, Kreb's cycle and the electron transport chain.
What are the three metabolic strategies?
Aerobic respiration, anaerobic respiration and fermentation.
What is aerobic respiration?
A series or enzyme catalyzed reactions in which electrons are transferred from fuel molecules to oxygen as a final electron acceptor.
Explain how oxidation of a substrate proceeds without oxygen.
The oxygen that gets used by some anaerobes is tied to sulfur, nitrogen, or carbon.
What is fermentation?
Incomplete oxidation of glucose or other carbohydrates in the absence of oxygen. Uses organic compounds as terminal electron acceptors. Yields a small amount of ATP. Formation of acid, gas, and other products by the action of various bacteria on pyruvic acid. Production of ethyl alcohol by yeasts acting on glucose.
Name some products of pyruvate fermentation.
Gas gangrene, swiss cheese, mixed acids.
What is genetics?
The study of heredity.
What does the science of genetics explore?
1. Transmission of biological traits from parent to offspring.
2. Expression and variation of those traits.
3. Structure and function of genetic material.
4. How this material changes
What is the genome?
The sum total of genetic material of a cell.
What's the formation of a bacterial chromosome?
A singular circular loop.
What's the formation of an eukaryotic chromosome?
They are multiple and linear.
What are the three basic categories of genes?
1. Genes that code for proteins - structural genes
2. Genes that code for RNA
3. Genes that control gene expression - regulatory genes.
What is a genotype?
All the genetic material.
What is a phenotype?
The observable traits such as, for bacteria, shape, flagella, pilus, slime layer, etc.
What is the basic unit of DNA?
A nucleotide.
Each nucleotide consists of 3 parts - what are they?
1. A 5 carbon sugar
2. A phosphate group
3. A nitrogenous base such as adenine, guanine, thymine or cytosine.
Nucleotides bond to form a sugar-phosphate backbone. What does each sugar attach to?
Two phosphates - a 5' carbon and a 3' carbon
What does adenine bind to in the DNA?
Thymine with two hydrogen bonds.
What does guanine bind to?
Cytosine with two hydrogen bonds.
What is the significance of the DNA structure?
Maintenance of the code during reproduction and providing variety and new qualities.
What happens during the replication process of DNA?
It creates two complementary strands simultaneously.
What is transcription?
The creation of mRNA, made from the DNA template.
What is translation?
Protein synthesis, decoding the mRNA into a protein. The tRNA use their anticodon to interpret the mRNA codons and bring in the amino acids.
What is a codon?
A triplet of adjacent nucleotides in the messenger RNA chain that codes for a specific amino acid in the synthesis of a protein molecule.
In the Gene-protein connection, what does the protein determine?
Phenotype.
What is DNA mainly a blueprint for?
To tell the cell which kinds of protein to make and how to make them.
What is RNA?
A single-stranded molecule made of nucleotides.
What is the 5 carbon sugar called in RNA?
Ribose
What are the 4 nitrogen bases in RNA?
Adenine, guanine, cytosine, and uracil.
What is the function of mRNA in a cell?
To carry the DNA master code to the ribosome.
What is rRNA and what is it's function in the cell?
Ribosomal RNA. It forms the major part of the ribosome and participates in protein synthesis.
What is an anti-codon?
A sequence of three nucleotides in a region of transfer RNA that recognizes a complementary coding triplet of nucleotides in messenger RNA during translation by the ribosomes in protein biosynthesis.
What are the stop, or termination, codons?
UAA, UAG and UGA
What happens when the stop codon is reached?
There is no anti-codon for the stop codons and when they are reached, the ribosome falls off and the last tRNA is removed from the polypeptide.
What is the start codon?
AUG
Where does transcription and translation occur in the eukaryotic cell?
Transcription takes place in the nucleus and translation occurs in the cytoplasm.
What is an operon?
A set of genes in prokaryotes that regulate protein synthesis and metabolism.
What types of operons are there?
Two types: inducible and repressible.
What are inducible operons?
Operons that are usually turned off and are turned on by the presence of a substrate.
What are repressible operons?
Operons that are always turned on but are turned off by the buildup of the product being synthesized.
What is a promoter?
The DNA segment that is recognized as the starting site for transcription.
What is the operator?
The DNA segment where transcription begins.
What kind of operon is a Lactose operon?
An inducible operon.
What are the three segments that the Lac operon is made of?
1. Regulator (the presence of Lactose)
2. Control locus (the promoter and operator)
3. Structural locus - the three genes each coding for an enzyme needed to catabolize lactose.
With an inducible operon like the Lac operon, what happens in the absence of the substrate, like lactose?
The repressor binds with the operator locus and blocks transcription of downstream structural genes.
With an induble operon like the Lac operon, what happens when lactose does appear?
The lactose binds with the repressor protein changing it's shape and causing it to fall off. The RNA polymerase can now bind to the promoter and structural genes are now transcribed.
What happens with a repressible operon like arginine when there's too much argenine?
It binds to the repressor and changes it. Then the repressor binds to the operator and blocks arginine synthesis. Arginine is the corepressor.
What is a mutation?
A change in phenotype due to a change in genotype.
What is a wild strain of DNA?
A natural, nonmutated characteristic.
What is a mutant strain?
An organism that has a mutation is a mutant strain, showing variance in morphology, nutritional characteristics, genetic control mechanisms, resistance to chemicals, etc.
Define Spontaneous mutations.
Random change in the DNA due to errors in replication that occur without known cause
Define Induced mutations.
Result from exposure to known mutagens, physical (primarily radiation) or chemical agents that interact with DNA in a disruptive manner.
Define Point mutation
one or few bases, addition, deletion or substitution
Define Missense mutation
causes a change in a single amino acid
Define Nonsense mutation
changes a normal codon to a stop codon
Define Silent mutation
alters base but not the amino acid
Define Back-mutation
mutant bacteria changes back.
What is Genetic recombination?
Occurs when an organism acquires and expresses genes that originated in another organism.
What are the 3 means for genetic recombination in bacteria?
1. Conjugation
2. Transformation
3. Transduction
What is conjugation?
Transfer of a plasmid or chromosomal fragment from a donor cell to a recipient cell via a direct connection.
What is transformation?
Chromosome fragments are accepted by a recipient cell. Donor and recipient cells can be unrelated. The DNA strand is incorporated into the
recipient chromosome.
What is transduction?
Bacteriophage serves as a carrier of DNA from a donor cell to a recipient cell. There are two types.
What are the two types of transduction?
Generalized and specialized.
Define generalized transduction.
Random fragments of disintegrating host DNA are picked up by the phage during assembly; any gene can be transmitted this way.
Define specialized transduction.
A highly specific part of the host genome is regularly incorporated into the virus.
What are transposons?
Special DNA segments that have the capability of moving from one location in the genome to another – “jumping genes”. May be beneficial or harmful.
What is recombination?
A type of genetic transfer in which DNA from one organism is donated to another. The recipient cell is called the recombinant.
What is the disease caused by clostridium difficile and what are the symptoms?
Colitis. Diarrhea & cramping for mild infection. Diarrhea, cramping, pain, fever, blood and/ or pus in stool, nausea, loss of appetite, weight loss, swollen abdomen, kidney failure and increased WBC count for severe infection.
What is caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa and what are the symptoms?
Infections. UTI, fever, chills, fatigue, vomiting, sepsis, inflammation.
What disease is caused by Vibrio cholerae and what are the symptoms?
Cholera. Watery diarrhea, dehydration, vomiting, tachycardia, low BP, muscle cramps, acute renal failure, coma, possible death. Occasionally asymptomatic.
What disease is caused by Chlamydia trachomatis and what are the symptoms?
Chlamydia. Testicular pain, painful intercourse, discharge from vagina or penis, burning while peeing. Can also affect the eye and cause blindness in an infant born of an infected mother.
What is caused by Bacillus anthracus and what symptoms does it cause?
Anthrax. Raised bumps that develop into black centered sores, flu-like symptoms, high fever, trouble breathing, shock, meningitis.
What is caused by Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus and what are the symptoms?
MRSA. Infections, pneumonia, red bumps on skin that are red, swollen, pus, shortness of breath, chest pain, infected wounds.
What is caused by Haemophilus influenzae and what are the symptoms?
Meningitis or pneumonia. Fever, shortness of breath, chills, headache, nausea.
What is caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae and what are the symptoms?
Gonorrhea or "the clap". Painful urination, vaginal discharge, penile discharge, sometimes no symptoms, bleeding between periods.
Of the bacterias we studied for this exam, what are you more capable of picking up during a stay in the hospital?
Infections from pseudomonas or MRSA and Clostridium difficile.
Of the bacterias we studied for this exam, what bacterial infection would you likely pick up from a trip to Haiti?
Vibrio cholerae.
Of the bacterias we studied for this exam, what bacterial infections would cause burning during urination?
Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
Of the bacterias we studied for this exam, what bacterial infections would cause diarrhea?
Clostridium difficile and Vibrio Cholerae.
Of the bacterias we studied for this exam, what bacterial infections would cause a fever?
pseudomonas aeruginosa, Bacillus anthracus, Haemophilus influenzae and Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus
Of the bacterias we studied for this exam, which ones are typically transmitted sexually?
Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
Of the bacterias we studied for this exam, what bacterial infections would affect the skin?
Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Bacillus anthracus and Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus
Of the bacterias we studied for this exam, what bacterial infections would cause meningitis?
Bacillus anthracus and Haemophilus influenzae.