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898 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
age at which babies first walk
|
10 to 14 months
|
|
age at which baby sits unsupported
|
6 months
|
|
a child will back away from a looming object at
|
3 months
|
|
age at which child has best VA based on behavioral methods
|
3 years
|
|
newborn visual response to a distant target
|
overaccomodation in newborns
|
|
color of newborn's eyes
|
blue eyes if other pigment hasn't developed yet
|
|
rate that accomodation diminishes at
|
0.15 diopters per year
|
|
accomodative latency
|
shows the smallest variation with age
|
|
age at which infants can use smooth pursuits for low velocity
|
2 months
|
|
age at which infants have bowel control
|
20 months
|
|
age infants have one minute of stereo
|
6 months
|
|
age at which lids will close in response to bright light
|
30 weeks gestation
|
|
infants have good stereopsis at
|
3 to 6 months
|
|
a 6 month old should have
|
20/40 on VER and VEP
|
|
average refractive error of a premature infant
|
0.50 myopia with SD of 2.8 D
|
|
average refractive error of a 1 to 3 year old
|
1.00D hyperopia
|
|
average size of the cornea at birth
|
9 to 10 mm
|
|
binocular fixation develops and convergence is demonstrated
|
by the 8th week of life
|
|
which forms first? cones or rods?
|
rods
|
|
horizontal conjugate gaze develops at birth
|
vertical conjugate gaze develops at around 2 months
|
|
age at which infants are startled by sound
|
1 month
|
|
amount by which infants have less sensitivity in short wavelengths compared to adults
|
1 log unit
|
|
infants have a lower range ofÖ
|
...lower range of spatial frequency than adults
|
|
infants lose step saccades at
|
4 to 5 months
|
|
infants pupils are smaller than adults but reach adult size by
|
6 months
|
|
infants saccades have
|
longer latency
|
|
amount of hyperopia seen in a newborn
|
less than 2.50D hyperopia
|
|
liquefaction of the vitreous begins at
|
age 40 years old
|
|
most premature babies are born
|
myopic
|
|
normal term babies are mostly born
|
hyperopic
|
|
ocular transmission decreases in which age range?
|
45 to 65 years old
|
|
older people have more trouble in which position of gaze
|
superior gaze
|
|
most common childhood defect regarding the lacrimal system
|
punctal stenosis
|
|
smooth pursuits appear at age
|
6 weeks
|
|
stereopsis develops at
|
5 to 6 months
|
|
less light reaches the retina of an
|
older person than a younger person
|
|
the amplitude of accommodation reaches adult levels by
|
4 to 6 months
|
|
the elderly have trouble distinguishing which colors
|
blues
|
|
age at which the lacrimal gland is fully developed
|
not until 3 to 4 years postnatally
|
|
anatomical point at which the sclera is most elastic in children
|
at the equator
|
|
grade at which the trend of increasing myopia in school children becomes most obvious
|
3rd grade
|
|
rate at which VA increases from 0 to 20 months
|
1 cycle per degree per month until 20 months
|
|
which type of acuity is last to develop
|
vernier acuity
|
|
width of visual field in newborns
|
40 degrees
|
|
vitreous is most liquid at which age
|
60 years
|
|
water soluble proteins will do what with age
|
increase
|
|
anisocoric pupils that are equally reactive to near stimuli could be a
|
preganglionic parasympathetic lesion
|
|
blood supply to the LGN is via
|
the anterior choroidal artery
|
|
CN 2 causes this reflex
|
Menace reflex
|
|
CN 4 is the only cranial nerve that exits
|
on the dorsal surface of the midbrain
|
|
CN 12 innervates
|
most of the tongue muscles
|
|
decussation of fibers occurs at the level of the
|
medulla
|
|
glycine and GABA are
|
inhibitory neurotransmitters
|
|
result of severing the right pyramids
|
ipsilateral paralysis
|
|
innervation to the parotid gland is via
|
the inferior salvatory nucleus and CN 9
|
|
innervation to the anterior 2/3 of the tongue is via
|
CN 7
|
|
Innervation to the posterior 1/3 of the tongue is via
|
CN 9
|
|
layer 4 of the cortex is allÖ
|
input (sensory)
|
|
layer 4 of the cortex is also called
|
the plexiform layer
|
|
what structure found in the endothelium of schlemm's canal pulls aqueous into themselves
|
macrovacuoles
|
|
main nerve supply to the cornea is
|
the nasociliary branch of CN 5 (trigeminal)
|
|
the meninges of the brain are in contact with
|
the lamina cribosa
|
|
meyer's loop is located in the
|
optic radiations
|
|
reflex blink occurs afferently via
|
CN 5
|
|
this function will cease with medullary destruction
|
respiratory function
|
|
resting membrane equilibrium is approximately the same as forÖ
|
potassium
|
|
time it takes for retrograde degeneration in the right striate cortex to show in the LGN
|
4 to 6 weeks after degeneration
|
|
stimulating area 8 will cause
|
both eyes to turn up
|
|
sympathetic preganglionic cell bodies to the dilator muscle lie in the
|
intermediolateral gray spinal column
|
|
the angular gyrus is principally concerned
|
with visual memory
|
|
corneal reflex involves which cranial nerves?
|
CN 5 trigeminal and CN 7 facial
|
|
the MLF connects
|
the motor nuclei of several cranial nerves
|
|
the MLF carries fibers of the
|
corticospinal tract
|
|
the stria of gennari is in
|
layer IV of the cortex
|
|
the occipital pole of the brain receives blood from
|
the MCA and PCA
|
|
the opthalmic and middle cerebral are branches of the ICA that do not
|
anastamose
|
|
the splenium of the corpus callosuum
|
connects one side of the cortex to another
|
|
unequal accomodation between the two eyes might indicate
|
a CN 3 problem
|
|
Ventral spinal nerve controls
|
cortical handmovements
|
|
how would you disrupt pupillary response without a loss of vision?
|
by severing the mesencephalon
|
|
best way to diagnosis cancer
|
biopsy
|
|
which tumor is least likely to metastisize
|
a brain tumor
|
|
type 4 reactions (eg AIDS) show a decrease in
|
CD 4
|
|
a diabetic blood ph will be
|
lower blood pH
|
|
a thrombus is a clot on a vessel
|
an embolus is free floating
|
|
Addison's disease is
|
decreased cortisol
|
|
AIDS works by a
|
reverse transcriptase enzyme
|
|
aplastic anemia presents with
|
decreased WBC and RBC and platelet levels
|
|
beriberi
|
is a thiamine deficiency
|
|
fetal transmission is the most common method of contracting toxoplasmosis
|
other agesof toxoplasmosis contraction would indicate an immunocomprimised person
|
|
Burtonian gumline is
|
a classic sign of lead poisoning
|
|
Cushing's disease is
|
increased cortisol
|
|
CV collapse in anaphylactic shock results from
|
decreased circulating volume
|
|
Most common adult behavioral disorder
|
Depression
|
|
Diabetes would cause
|
decreased wound healing
|
|
endocarditis is a
|
bacterial infection of the heart valves
|
|
a Fetal Alcohol Syndrome baby would have
|
micro ophthalmia
|
|
Ghons tubercle would be found on
|
a chest Xray of a TB patient
|
|
Goodpastures is an autoimmune disease affecting the
|
basement membrane of the lung and kidney
|
|
granuloma is typical of
|
sarcoidosis
|
|
granulomas consist of
|
epitheliod cells which are macrophages with lymphocytes
|
|
HIV affects
|
T Helper cells (CD4) cells
|
|
an HIV vaccine is yet to be found because
|
HIV can rapidly change its coat antigen
|
|
HIV is an
|
ssRNA retrovirus
|
|
HLA causes rejection in a
|
type 2 reaction
|
|
Hodgkins disease is a
|
neoplastic disorder of the lymph nodes
|
|
Hyperpituitarism can result in
|
acromegaly
|
|
Hypothyroidism can result in
|
cretinism
|
|
Hypovolumic shock occurs
|
in burns
|
|
if CN 5 is affected by herpes zoster
|
you will have upper lid involvement
|
|
in AIDS patients the ratio of T4:T8
|
decreases
|
|
In rheumatic fever
|
anti`streptolysin`O titer will be elevated
|
|
lead poisoning should be treated with
|
calcium disodium EDTA
|
|
leukemia will show a decreased
|
WBC
|
|
leukemia is a proliferation of
|
abnormal WBC
|
|
lots of lymphocytes on a slide indicate
|
a viral infection
|
|
Mantoux reaction with TB is what type of reaction?
|
type 4 reaction
|
|
Mitral valve stenosis is seen with
|
pulmonary edema
|
|
opportunistic mycosis has causative agents which invade the
|
subepithelial tissue such as the dermis and deeper regions
|
|
parkinson's affects
|
the substantia nigra
|
|
pellagra is a niacin deficiency marked by the 3 D'sÖ
|
Dementia Diarrhea Dermatitis
|
|
Reed Steinberg giant cells would be present in
|
Hodgkin's disease
|
|
Rheumatic fever is considered to be a
|
pancarditis
|
|
rheumatoid arthritis is an example of
|
tissue degeneration
|
|
scurvy is a deficiency of
|
Vitamin C
|
|
Strep viridans is the most common bacterial cause of
|
subacute endocarditis
|
|
subcutaneous mycosis generally does not spread to
|
internal organs
|
|
most common genetic disorder in the US
|
Down's syndrome
|
|
most common site for colon carcinoma
|
the rectum
|
|
transient ischemic attack is reversible
|
CVA is not reversible
|
|
type 1 DM which is IDDM has
|
decreased insulin secretion from beta cells
|
|
type 2 DM which is NIDDM has
|
decreased insulin receptor function
|
|
vasodilation causes
|
headaches in migraines
|
|
Varicella zoster is the
|
virus of chicken pox
|
|
all layers of the cornea except Epi are from
|
neurocrest cells
|
|
anterior border of the iris is formed by
|
neural crest
|
|
these three are all from neural ectodermÖ
|
CB epi & Iris epi & the RPE
|
|
cerebral cisterns develop from
|
the subarachnoid space
|
|
corneal epithelium is derived from
|
ectoderm
|
|
the corpus callosum is derived from
|
telencephalon
|
|
during embryological development the ciliary muscles changes attachment
|
from TM to SS
|
|
the embryonic cornea is more hydrated than in adults and as a result the
|
embryonic cornea is less transparent
|
|
ganglion cells are the first to
|
differentiate
|
|
imcomplete closure of the fetal tissue would most like affect the
|
iris
|
|
order of development of the lacrimal system
|
1st lacrimal sac 2nd canaliculi 3rd nasolacrimal duct
|
|
lens placode develops first in the lens
|
lens vesicle develops last
|
|
when does the fovea centralis mature
|
at birth to postnatal four months
|
|
myelinization of the optic nerve usually reaches the lamina cribosa
|
by the 8th month
|
|
neural ectoderm gives rise to the
|
sensory retina
|
|
the optic stalk develops from
|
diencephalon
|
|
the sclera and choroid are derived
|
from neural crest cells
|
|
the proximal CRA is derived from the
|
fetal hyaloid artery
|
|
the first wave of neural crest cells forms the
|
corneal endothelium
|
|
the glial tissue forming the meniscus of Khunt is found in the
|
physiological cup
|
|
the lens placode comes from the
|
surface ectoderm
|
|
the muscles of the orbit are derived from
|
mesoderm
|
|
the neural groove becomes the neural tube which develops into the
|
prosencephalon and the mesencephalon and the rhombencephalon
|
|
the RPE develops from the pigmented layer of the
|
optic cup
|
|
the skin the glands and the conjunctiva are all derivatives of the
|
ectoderm
|
|
the tarsal plate is derived from
|
mesenchyme
|
|
the epithelium of upper and lower eyelids develops from the
|
ectoderm
|
|
two myoblasts fuse in the fetus and form
|
striated muscle
|
|
a spirometer measure three types of volume
|
tidal and inspiratory and expiratory volume
|
|
aldosterone is NOT
|
anti-inflammatory
|
|
atrial natriuretic peptide causes
|
sodium and water excretion by the kidneys
|
|
bradykinin causes
|
vasodilation
|
|
CO equalsÖ
|
CO equals SV times HR
|
|
Cortisol causes
|
hypokalemia and hypercalciuria and hyperglycemia
|
|
depolarization is caused by influx of
|
Na
|
|
during prophase there is formation of
|
chromatids and spindles
|
|
during prometaphase the
|
nuclear envelop disappears
|
|
during metaphase the
|
chromatids line up to form the equatorial plate
|
|
during anaphase the
|
chromatids are pulled apart at the centromere
|
|
during telephase the
|
chromosomes are pulled completely apart
|
|
during isovolumetric contraction
|
all the valves are closed and the ventricular pressure is increasing
|
|
histamine triple response refers to the triad of
|
localized edema and flare and localized erythema
|
|
IL1 is an endogenous pyrogen that acts on
|
the hypothalamus to produce fever
|
|
inspiration is caused by the
|
contraction of the diaphragm
|
|
insulin is not required for glucose uptake in
|
neurons
|
|
K+ is coming in during the repolarization of an
|
action potential
|
|
mitral valve prolapse causes regurgitation into the
|
left atrium
|
|
neutrophils (PMN) are the first to
|
respond to damage
|
|
opsonization attracts bacteria to
|
phagocytes
|
|
passage of leukocytes through vessel walls is called
|
diapedesis
|
|
neutrophils (PMN) are the most abundant
|
phagocytes in the blood
|
|
P-R interval is
|
SA node conduction
|
|
resting membrane potential of cardiac muscle is
|
-55mV
|
|
the first and most rapid response in inflammation
|
is transient vasoconstriction
|
|
the first heart sound is the
|
atrioventricular valves closing
|
|
the QRS wave is
|
ventricular contraction
|
|
the liver is least affected by
|
ischemia
|
|
the lymph system prevents
|
edema
|
|
the resting membrane potential of tissue cells is
|
- 70 mV
|
|
a retinal triad consists of
|
one bipolar and two horizontal cells
|
|
amblyopia affects the
|
cortex
|
|
an Rx is written in
|
back vertex power
|
|
beta waves are present during
|
REM sleep
|
|
cortisol is from the
|
zona reticularis
|
|
dazzle reflex is
|
CN II
|
|
direct is the best method of
|
quantifying
|
|
dysplasia is
|
benign and irreversible
|
|
Herring effect is due to
|
lateral inhibitions
|
|
high spatial frequency is due to
|
optics
|
|
HLA recognizes the Ag for
|
lymphocytes
|
|
if a patient sees Moore's lighting streaks
|
you would do ophthalmodynometry or ophthalmoscopy
|
|
in the vasovagal reflex you have
|
tachycardia
|
|
leptokurtosis in the typical refractive error frequency distribution curve may be due to
|
covariation among ocular elements
|
|
liquefaction is a type of necrosis that is characteristic of an
|
abcess
|
|
meiasma is an increased pigment in
|
pregnant women
|
|
methotrexate is an
|
antimetabolite
|
|
a mirage can be
|
photographed
|
|
muscae volitantes are
|
floaters in the vetreous
|
|
mutations in future generations occurs in
|
DNA
|
|
one cycle of fatty acid oxidation uses
|
two carbons
|
|
overextension is when a word is used incorrectly to
|
describe a wider set of things
|
|
pseudotumor would be present in
|
obese females with papilledema
|
|
retinal afterimages get
|
smaller as you move closer to the retina
|
|
stroboscopic motion is due to
|
Phi motion
|
|
the cornea reflects about 2.5% of the
|
light incident on it
|
|
the gap size in a 20/200 Landolt C is
|
ten minutes
|
|
the JCC uses the
|
method of limits
|
|
the lens fiber cells are considered to be
|
immunologically foreign
|
|
the mean and median and mode are
|
expressions of central tendency
|
|
the median is less influenced by extremes than
|
the mean is
|
|
the rabbit lacks a
|
fovea
|
|
the RE curve is
|
leptokurtotic
|
|
there are 46 chromosomes in a
|
normal diploid cell
|
|
4% of blood that comes to the CB will form
|
aqueous
|
|
a 6mm pupil is 9x larger than a
|
2mm pupil
|
|
a higher myope will have more
|
vitreous liquefaction and higher incidence of PVD
|
|
a lesion to the innervation of the dilator muscle causes
|
hypersensitivity to NE
|
|
after a corneal abrasion
|
mitosis stops and migration occurs
|
|
all of the EOMs have the same anatomical and physiological origin except the
|
Superior Oblique SO
|
|
the IO is the only muscle that doesn't originate from the
|
Annulus of Zinn
|
|
amacrine cells and ganglion cells use
|
action potentials
|
|
anterior chamber depth decreases with
|
presbyopia
|
|
anterior ciliary artery supplies the
|
CB and Iris
|
|
the anterior iris is classified as
|
stroma
|
|
aqueous contains lots of
|
Vitamin C
|
|
average IOP is
|
15 mmHg
|
|
axial length of the eye is
|
24mm
|
|
basal cells of corneal epithelium are responsible for replacing
|
epithelial cells
|
|
blinking in response to an object approaching the eye is called the
|
menace reflex
|
|
blood supply to the optic tracts is via the
|
Anterior cerebral artery the posterior cerebral artery and the anterior communicating artery
|
|
blood vessels that supply the optic nerve are from the
|
ophthalmic artery
|
|
bruch's membrane is
|
avascular
|
|
capillary nets are located in
|
layers 6 and 8 of the retina
|
|
caruncle is skin and
|
plica semilunaris is conjunctiva
|
|
CB contraction causes zonule relaxation and
|
peripheral retinal pulls forward
|
|
CB produces
|
3 microliters of aqueous per minute
|
|
CN VII paralysis can cause
|
ectropion
|
|
cornea gets the majority of its glucose from
|
the aqueous
|
|
corneal dehydration is due to
|
chloride ion (Cl-)
|
|
corneal stroma is continuous with
|
sclera
|
|
corneal stroma is
|
type II collagen
|
|
distance from the cornea to the lens is
|
3.6 mm
|
|
drusen are most often located on the
|
RPE
|
|
episcleral veins have less pressure than
|
normal IOP
|
|
excess CO2 in retinal arterioles causes
|
dilation
|
|
fingerlike projections outside the limbus are called the
|
palisades of Vogt
|
|
first response of the corneal epithelium to abrasion is
|
migration
|
|
flare is associated with
|
increased aqueous protein content
|
|
flourescein passes easily through everything except
|
RPE
|
|
free nerve endings are most numerous in the
|
corneal epithelium
|
|
glands of Zeis keep
|
the eyelashes flexible and the hair follicles moist
|
|
glutathione is important for
|
lens transparency
|
|
glycolysis detoxifies
|
vitamin A before it enters the retina
|
|
greater superficial petrosal nerve eventually innervates the
|
lacrimal gland (parasympathetics)
|
|
Hassle-Henle bodies form in the
|
Descemet's layer
|
|
Henle's fiber layer is a
|
thickened outer plexiform layer around the macula
|
|
hexokinase is a
|
glycolytic enzyme in the cornea
|
|
horizontal cells are lateral inhibitors working to enhance
|
visual contrast
|
|
if CN II is cut you will have
|
ipsilateral loss of direct and consensual pupillary light response
|
|
if the crystalline lens was shifted forward and everything else stayed the same
|
you would get a shift towards myopia
|
|
if you sever the optic tract just behind the chiasm you will see
|
retrograde degeneration towards the retina
|
|
increased blood osmolarity would decrease
|
IOP
|
|
the index of refraction of the lens is
|
greatest in the center
|
|
IO originates on the
|
maxilla
|
|
IOP is highest in the
|
morning
|
|
Aniridia is associated with
|
Wilm's tumor
|
|
iris capillaries most closely resemble retinal capillaries
|
they are both non fenestrated
|
|
the glands of Krause and Wolfring are in the
|
upper fornix
|
|
the glands of Krause and Wolfring produce the
|
majority of the normal tear aqueous layer
|
|
lacrimal gland acini do contain
|
basement membrane
|
|
laminar part of the optic nerve is supplied by the
|
pial artery plexus
|
|
lens cortex has the
|
highest protein content in the body
|
|
levator palpebrae muscle is not involved with the
|
eyebrows
|
|
low water concentration in the lens is due to the
|
Na/K pump
|
|
lymph channels are most plentiful in the
|
conjunctival stroma
|
|
lymph from the lateral canthus drains into the
|
preauricular lymph nodes
|
|
meibomiam glands produce the
|
layer of the tear film that prevents evaporation (oil)
|
|
more pigment is present over the ciliary processes in the
|
CB epithelium
|
|
most of the aqueous is produced in the
|
pars plicata
|
|
most of the blood in the eye is located in the
|
choroid
|
|
movement of tears through the lacrimal drainage system is aided by
|
Horner's muscle
|
|
mueller cells are not found in the
|
photoreceptor layer
|
|
mueller cells are the
|
support cells of the retina
|
|
mueller cells of the retina supply glucose to the
|
nerve cells of the retina
|
|
non pigment epithelium of the CB makes
|
zonules
|
|
nuclei of mueller cells are located in the
|
inner nuclear layer
|
|
ocular media absorbs more
|
short wavelengths
|
|
ocular torticollis is associated with
|
trochlear nerve damage
|
|
outer choroid stroma is Haller's
|
inner choroid stroma is Settler's
|
|
pachymetry measures the
|
corneal thickness
|
|
pars plicata is synonymous with the
|
corona ciliaris
|
|
photoreceptor cells only hyperpolarize in
|
the light
|
|
these three cells use graded potentials
|
photoreceptor cells and horizontal cells and bipolar cells
|
|
posterior epi of the iris is continuous with the
|
non pigmented epi of CB and sensory retina
|
|
proper water equilibrium of the cornea depends on the
|
endothelial pump
|
|
protein is more in the blood than the
|
aqueous
|
|
the pupil can range in diameter from
|
1 to 8 mm
|
|
pupil is displaced
|
nasal and down
|
|
pupils are mioticÖ
|
when sleeping
|
|
purkinje image 4 hasÖ
|
against motion
|
|
purkinje images from largest to smallest Ö
|
3 then 1 then 2 then 4 (4 is inverted)
|
|
reflex tearing is stimulated by the
|
CN V
|
|
removing the lens from a 50 year old would increase the
|
amount of short wavelength light incident on the retina
|
|
retinal detachment is most likely to occur between
|
the photoreceptor and the RPE
|
|
rhodopsin is found in the
|
rod outer segment
|
|
rouget cells surround the vessels of the choriocapillaris thus
|
regulating foveal blood flow
|
|
schlemm's canal is surrounded by
|
fenestrated endothelium
|
|
scleral spur is made of
|
collagen
|
|
sodium chloride is considered to be an
|
ocular hyperosmotic
|
|
staining of the corneal nerves can be seen with
|
methylene blue
|
|
the tear film is
|
7 to 10 microns thick
|
|
tears drain from the
|
canaliculi into the lacrimal sac
|
|
tertiary vitreous originates in the
|
zonular fibers
|
|
the blink rate is
|
about 15 times per minute
|
|
the canal of Hanover is
|
the space between the anterior and posterior zonular layers
|
|
the canal of Schlemm is
|
lined by endothelium
|
|
the check ligaments of the IR attaches to the
|
suspensory ligament of lockwood
|
|
the choroid is thickest at
|
the macula
|
|
the ciliary muscle is described as
|
multi unit smooth
|
|
the circular muscle fibers of the CB are called
|
Mueller's muscle
|
|
the cornea is sensitive to
|
pain and touch and temperature
|
|
the corneal epithelium has
|
zonula occludens
|
|
the mucous layer of the tear film makes
|
the cornea more hydrophilic
|
|
the depth of the physiologic cup is dependent on the
|
thickness of the sclera
|
|
the diameter of the pupil is
|
usually larger in myopes than hyperopes
|
|
the eyeball normally lies nearer to
|
the lateral wall and roof than to the medial wall and floor
|
|
the fibers of Landolt are found
|
in the retina
|
|
the first cells to have orientation selectivity are in
|
Area 17
|
|
the front surface of a lens changes curvature the most during
|
accomodation
|
|
the greatest density of ganglion cells is in the
|
parafoveal area
|
|
the hyaloidean vitreous has the
|
lowest viscosity
|
|
the imbibition pressure is the
|
negative pressure that keeps the corneal water content fixed
|
|
the inferior nasal fibers (contralateral superior temporal field) form
|
the Knee of Willebrand
|
|
the inner molecular layer contains
|
bipolar cells
|
|
the innermost extensions of Mueller's cells are called
|
fiber baskets
|
|
there is convection current in the aqueous that moves up
|
when close to the iris
|
|
the lacrimal gland is separated into orbital and palpebral portions by the
|
levator aponeurosis
|
|
the layers of the choroid from external to internal are:
|
epichoiroid ' hallers ' sattlers' choriocapillaris ' bruch's
|
|
the lens capsule is thinnest at the
|
posterior pole
|
|
the lens has more potassium and less sodium than
|
the aqueous and vitreous
|
|
the macula fibers are located centrally in the
|
chiasm
|
|
the macula lutea occupies about
|
1/20 of the retina
|
|
the major blood supply to the choroid is via the
|
SPCA's
|
|
the major source of oxygen to the corneal epithelium is the
|
atmosphere
|
|
the medial canthus drains to the
|
submandibular nodes
|
|
the medial root of the optic tract is named the
|
commisure of Gudden
|
|
the most anterior portion of the iris is the
|
collarette
|
|
the most posterior structure in the angle is the
|
ciliary body
|
|
the most superficial portion of the CB muscle is formed by
|
longitudinal smooth muscle
|
|
most mitochondria are located in the
|
photoreceptor inner segment
|
|
the optic canal is formed by the greater and lesser wings of the
|
sphenoid bone
|
|
the optic nerve is a projection of the
|
diencephalon
|
|
the orbit is protected from inflammation by the
|
orbital septum
|
|
the pain of conjunctivitis is carried along the
|
infratrochlear and supratrochlear nerves
|
|
the postganglionic neurons involved in the lacrimal reflex are in
|
the sphenopalatine ganglion
|
|
the production rate of aqueous is about
|
1% per minute
|
|
the pupil may dilate if the IOP is
|
markedly increased
|
|
the recti muscles most closely associated with the ON sheath are
|
SR and MR
|
|
the retinal circulation (not the choroidal circulation) exhibits
|
autoregulation
|
|
the retinal layer that gets blood from both the CRA and the choriocapillaris is the
|
outer plexiform layer
|
|
the RPE is absent from the
|
fovea centralis
|
|
the sclera is thinnest at the
|
insertion points of the EOMs
|
|
the stria gennari is made of fibers of the
|
optic radiations
|
|
the trabecular meshwork begins to develop in the
|
third trimester
|
|
the valve of hassner is associated with the
|
lacrimal system
|
|
the yellow pigment found within the macula is
|
xanthophyll
|
|
there are ?# rods and ?#cones in each eye
|
120 million rods and 6 million cones
|
|
there are schwann cells in the
|
corneal stroma
|
|
Tissue of Elsching separates sclera and choroid from the
|
optic nerve
|
|
total water content of the corneal stroma is
|
75-80 %
|
|
Troxler's phenomenon occurs with the
|
retinal vessels
|
|
type I collagen holds cells together in
|
the cornea
|
|
type IV collagen is found in
|
the lens
|
|
Verhoeff's membrane is located in the
|
retinal pigment epithelium
|
|
vitreous base is the strongest attachment of the
|
vitreous
|
|
volume of vitreous is
|
4.5 mL
|
|
when episcleral venous pressure increases the IOP also
|
increases
|
|
when glucose presence is more than 20% in the lens the
|
sorbitol pathway begins
|
|
with age the water content of the lens
|
decreases
|
|
X cells are the
|
slowest
|
|
Y sutures are most evident in the
|
fetal nucleus
|
|
Zonular area of the posterior chamber is the
|
Canal of Hanover
|
|
4 symptoms of inflammation
|
redness ' swelling' heat' pain
|
|
acanthamoeba is associated with
|
extended CL wear
|
|
acanthomoeba is a
|
protozoan
|
|
actinomycetes is an
|
aerobic gram positive fungus like bacteria that produces some of the antibiotics
|
|
aerobic metabolism is
|
18 times more effective (than what? But alas it doesn't say on the fact sheet)
|
|
an obligate aerobe can only use
|
oxygen
|
|
aspergilus is a filamentous fungi that can be treated with
|
amphotericin B
|
|
autoclaving consists of 121*C heat and steam for a period of
|
15 minutes
|
|
autoclaving is the
|
best means of disinfection
|
|
bacteria are in the kingdom
|
monera
|
|
bacterial cell walls are made of
|
peptidoglycan
|
|
candida albicans can be cultured on
|
Sabaraud's agar at room temperature
|
|
capsule is used for
|
virulence in bacteria
|
|
clostridium perfringens is
|
gas gangrene
|
|
cornyebacterium diphtheria is a non spore forming Ö
|
gram positive bacilli
|
|
corneal ulcers are mostly caused by pseudomonas which is a
|
motile anaerobic rod
|
|
cornyebacterium and E. coli are
|
club shaped and commonly found in normal flora
|
|
endotoxins are found
|
only in gram negative organisms
|
|
filamentous fungi have
|
spores and hyphae
|
|
floroquinolones are good against
|
pseudomonas
|
|
fungal identification is made on the basis of
|
presence of hyphae and spores in culture
|
|
common fungal infections like jock itch or athlete's foot or ringworm begin with
|
Tinea
|
|
fungi have cell walls made of
|
chitin
|
|
neisseria' haemophilus' and moraxella will only grow on
|
chocolate agar
|
|
gram positive lance shaped dipplococcus is
|
strep pneumoniae
|
|
haemophilus is not transmitted at birth
|
however' neisseria and chlamydia and treponema are transmitted at birth
|
|
haemophilus is a non motileÖ
|
gram negative rod coccobaccilus
|
|
herpes virus is an
|
enveloped virus
|
|
heterotrophs get energy from
|
organic sources
|
|
histoplasmosis is
|
a fungal infection that resembles TB
|
|
Kochs-Weeks bacillus is
|
haemophilus aegyptius and is associated with conjunctivitis
|
|
molds reproduce via
|
spores
|
|
moraxella commonly cause problems in the
|
elderly
|
|
mycobacterium is an
|
acid fast stain
|
|
mycoplasma are
|
facultative aerobes
|
|
mycoplasma lack cell walls so PCN isn't affective butÖ
|
antibiotics that attack membranes or protein synthesis are useful for mycoplasma
|
|
neisseria gonorrhea is a
|
gram negative aerobic diplococcus
|
|
onchocheriasis causes
|
river blindness
|
|
strep. Pneumoniae is the
|
most common cause of bacterial conjunctivitis
|
|
protozoa are
|
unicellular heterotrophic
|
|
pseudomembranous colitis is caused by
|
clostridiumm difficil
|
|
pseudomonas aeruginosa is a
|
gram negative rod
|
|
rickettsia is an intracellular parasite that causes
|
rocky mountain spotted fever
|
|
spirochetes are
|
helical gram negative bacteria
|
|
spore forming bacteria are
|
bacillus (aerobic) and clostridium (anerobic)
|
|
staph and strep both will grow on
|
blood agar
|
|
staph aureus causes
|
abcessess ' boils ' and toxic shock syndrome (TSS)
|
|
staph epidermidis is
|
catalase'+ coagulase'- and gram'+
|
|
staph epidermidis is considered to be
|
normal flora
|
|
staphylococcus aureus is a
|
coagulase positive bacteria
|
|
streptomycetes produce
|
antibiotics
|
|
syphilis is caused by
|
treponema pallidium
|
|
the log phase of bacterial growth is
|
the best time to use drugs
|
|
toxocariasis is carried by
|
dogs
|
|
toxoplasmosis is an
|
obligate parasite carried by cats
|
|
transformation is taking up naked DNA
|
Ö
|
|
conjugation is via
|
cell to cell contact
|
|
transduction is via viruses
|
Ö
|
|
varicella zoster causes
|
chicken pox
|
|
yeasts are unicellular and molds are multicellular and
|
both molds and yeast are non photosynthetic
|
|
yeast infections are mostly caused by
|
candida albicans
|
|
our sexy buddy yeast propagates via
|
budding and sexual reproduction
|
|
going from near to far is 0.38 seconds
|
going from far to near is 0.56 seconds
|
|
latency of accommodation is
|
300 msec
|
|
maximum horizontal eye rotation is
|
70 degrees
|
|
reading is considered to be a
|
microsaccade
|
|
the stimulus for accommodation is a
|
blurry retinal media
|
|
the stimulus for pursuit is velocity
|
the stimulus for saccade is position
|
|
SR and IO are
|
synergistic EOMs
|
|
inability to elevate OD while in the adducted position is due to action of the
|
Inferior Oblique (IO)
|
|
The IO originates in the
|
maxilla
|
|
IO originates farthest from the
|
optic foramen
|
|
according to Listing a person exhibits false tortion when the eye is in the
|
tertiary position
|
|
botulinum toxin is used to treat
|
strabismus
|
|
CN III palsy manifests as
|
down and out of the eye
|
|
eye movements in REM are
|
saccadic
|
|
larger saccades are
|
faster
|
|
pursuits have the
|
shortest latency
|
|
the fronto mesencephalic pathway controls
|
saccades
|
|
the medial rectus depresses the globe when
|
the line of sight is below the horizontal plane
|
|
the orbicularis oculi is antagonistic to
|
the levator
|
|
with the eye abducted 39 degrees which muscle is an intorter?
|
the SO (Superior Oblique)
|
|
if a Canadian figure skater spins to the right and then stopsÖ
|
the nystagmus will be fast phase to the right
|
|
a patient with different distance and near cyl is not due to axial length
|
Ö (that's all it says)
|
|
1 degree is equal to how many prism diopters?
|
1.745 prism diopters
|
|
a person looking at 250mm with 0.125D depth of focus can move the object 8mm beforeÖ
|
it gets blurred
|
|
a real image can be created in a convex mirror by
|
a virtual object inside the focal point
|
|
an absolute presbyope has a range of accomodation because of
|
depth of focus
|
|
an optical system that is corrected for both spherical aberration and coma is called
|
aplanatic
|
|
angle lambda is between the
|
pupillary axis and line of sight
|
|
as the wavelength increases the
|
power decreases
|
|
center of rotation is defined as the
|
point of zero velocity during rotation
|
|
depth of field is inversely proportional to
|
pupillary size
|
|
dispersion is when light slows down in mediaÖ
|
other than a vacuum
|
|
diverging light comes from
|
real objects
|
|
the doctor's Rx plus the patient's Rx is equal to
|
the amount of power in the ophthalmascope
|
|
drop ball test is a 5/8th inch ball dropped from 50 inches
|
for safety test it is 1 inch at 50 inches
|
|
focal length of concave mirror is
|
independent of the medium
|
|
galilean telescope is a
|
terrestrial telescope
|
|
image displacement in a prism increases asÖ
|
apical angle increases in a prism
|
|
in a spherical mirror the focal power is
|
directly proportional to the radius of curvature
|
|
increasing vertex distance of a plus lensÖ
|
increases effective power
|
|
internal reflections occur most in
|
low minus lenses
|
|
keratometer uses doubling prism to move theÖ
|
image in relation to observed cornea
|
|
laser works byÖ
|
coherence
|
|
light in air will dimish in wavelength uponÖ
|
entering the eye
|
|
microwaves have a wavelength of
|
?? Meters
|
|
mirrors do not change focal distance in different media
|
oblique light rays cause marginal aberration
|
|
oblique light that hits a clear glass surface isÖ
|
reflected with 180 degrees out of phase
|
|
peripheral flattening of cornea compensates for
|
spherical aberration
|
|
peripheral rays forming in front of paraxial rays give
|
positive spherical aberration
|
|
refractive ametrope correct by
|
contact lenses
|
|
reverse slab off is
|
PDP (plastic ' base down' more plus)
|
|
shade #5 is the correct shade tint for
|
electric spot welding
|
|
for slab off you can remember GUMÖ
|
glass' base up' more minus lens
|
|
spherical aberrations increase withÖ
|
plus power and pupil size
|
|
the energy of a quantum is
|
inversely proportional to the wavelength
|
|
the entrance pupil is the image ofÖ
|
the aperture stop in object space
|
|
the far point of the hyperopic eye is behind the eye
|
and for the myope the far point is in front of the eye
|
|
the Gullstrand simplified schematic eye has
|
three refracting surfaces
|
|
the largest refracting angle that a prism can have so that light can pass through is
|
twice the critical angle
|
|
the lens has an
|
anterior radius of curvature of 10 mm
|
|
the nodal points of the eye
|
lie at equal distances from the respective principle points
|
|
the optical axis of the eye typically intersects the
|
retina nasal to the macula
|
|
the orientation of the first line of focus in the interval of sturm is
|
the same as the meridian of minimum power
|
|
the pupillary axis passes throughÖ
|
normal to the cornea and through the center of the entrance pupil
|
|
the retinal image size of an uncorrected axial myope isÖ
|
larger than an uncorrected refractive myope
|
|
the speed of light in air is
|
186'000 miles/sec (3e^8 m/s)
|
|
with thin prisms divergent light shifts image toward the apex
|
with a thin prism convergent light shifts the image to the base
|
|
to use an astronomical (Keplerian) telescopeÖ
|
an uncorrected myope must move the eyepiece towards the objective
|
|
up to 4 D of ametropia are probably due to
|
axial length (Srosby's study)
|
|
Wave theory does not explain
|
photoelectric emission
|
|
when accomodation is relaxed
|
the line of sight falls at the far point
|
|
when viewed through cross polaroidsÖ
|
a heat tempered lens will show a maltese cross pattern
|
|
when you accommodateÖ
|
the exit pupil and the retinal image size both get smaller
|
|
colors focus in this order with chromatic aberration
|
blue then yellow then red
|
|
you would decenter an XP (exophore) at near because of
|
accomodation
|
|
you would place a +10D lens at 35 cm to correct aÖ
|
4D myope
|
|
the frame material called Zyl has Ö
|
total memory and is hypoallergenic
|
|
a Fresnel double mirror is used to demonstrate
|
interference
|
|
Autoimmunity is via
|
MHC gene
|
|
the hypervariable region recognizes
|
antigen
|
|
antibody levels in secondary immune respose are Ö
|
higher and persist longer than primary immune response
|
|
macrophage initiates the
|
primary immune response
|
|
the rheumatoid factor is
|
an IgM type immunoglobulin
|
|
non specific immunity is
|
natural killer cells
|
|
cytotoxic T cells (CD8) areÖ
|
active against parasites
|
|
Type II reactions are
|
autoimmune
|
|
IgA is found
|
in the tears
|
|
IgA is present
|
in the GI tract
|
|
IgE has the greatest affinity for
|
mast cells
|
|
IgG crosses
|
the placenta
|
|
IgE is
|
involved in allergy
|
|
IgM is formed during the
|
primary response to an antigen
|
|
Histamine triple response refers toÖ
|
localized edema and flare and localized erythema
|
|
a transplant is most likely to be rejected ifÖ
|
it is from a cousin
|
|
acute inflammation involves four thingsÖ
|
transient constrictions ' arteriolar dilation ' and capillary & venule dilation
|
|
0.1% epi or 2.5% phenyl would
|
elevate lids in a patient with sudden ptosis and miosis (hypersensitivity)
|
|
a toxicity of NE is
|
increased BP
|
|
ADH acts on the
|
collecting tubule
|
|
adrenergic drugs do not affect
|
accomodation much
|
|
albumin is not involved in the
|
detoxification of drugs
|
|
amiodarone is an anti arrhythmic drug which causes
|
whorl like corneal deposits
|
|
an alpha blocker followed by epinephrine causes
|
vasodilation
|
|
antazoline phosphate is an
|
H1 blocker that is used in type I allergic reactions
|
|
anticholinesterase can cause
|
hyperemia ' excess tearing ' accomodative spasm
|
|
atropine causes
|
dry skin and tachycardia
|
|
bacitracin and gramicidin are effective against both
|
gram positive and gram negative
|
|
bacitracin is good against
|
gram positive in pus and blood
|
|
bacitracin is the first drug used to treat
|
staph blepharitis
|
|
BAK isÖ
|
a cytotoxic preservative
|
|
beta 2 agonists such as aminophylline can be used to
|
treat bronchospasm
|
|
betaxolol does not cause
|
bronchoconstriction
|
|
bioavailability is best defined as the amount of
|
drug present at the desired receptor level
|
|
BZD's can cause abnormal
|
EOM versions
|
|
Cephalosporins are associated with
|
hypersensitivity
|
|
chloramphenicol is known to cause
|
blood dyscrasia
|
|
chloroquine is an antimalarial drug that causes
|
bulls eye retinopathy
|
|
chloroquine accumulates in the
|
RPE and choroid
|
|
chlorphinaramine blocks
|
H1
|
|
cholinergic drugs decrease the
|
AC/A ratio
|
|
cimetidine is an
|
H2 antagonist
|
|
cimetidine is
|
prescribed as a prophylactic
|
|
cocaine acts as a
|
vasoconstrictor
|
|
cocaine blocks
|
reuptake of NE
|
|
cooperativity is
|
binding one substrate which increases another site's affinity for another substrate
|
|
corneal toxicity of epi is
|
adenochrome deposition
|
|
cyclopentolate can cause
|
hallucinations in children
|
|
cyclosporin is used to
|
prevent graft rejection
|
|
diazepam enhances
|
GABA
|
|
digoxin increases
|
contractile force
|
|
The OTC drug diphenhydramine causes
|
CNS depressant effects
|
|
doubling the dose of a drug usually increases its duration of action by
|
one half life
|
|
drugs excreted in breast milk may be dangerous to the baby due to
|
lack of metabolic enzymes
|
|
echothiphate and isothiphate are
|
irreversible
|
|
epi decreases
|
systemic absorption of local anesthetics
|
|
epinephrine is used to test for
|
supersensitivity dennervation
|
|
erythromycin is
|
broad spectrum and active against neisseria
|
|
esters are
|
short acting local anesthetics
|
|
furosemide is the best
|
diuretic
|
|
gramicidin is similar to
|
bacitracin
|
|
H1 blocker will
|
decrease accommodation with long term use
|
|
high T1 means
|
the drug is safer
|
|
hydroxyamphetamines increase
|
NE and epi
|
|
hypnotic drugs are
|
commonly used to calm anxious patients
|
|
ibuprofen was introduced as a treatment for rheumatoid arthritis but is now used as
|
an analgesic
|
|
if a patient is in anaphylactic shock you should give them
|
epinephrine
|
|
if you give a patient an MAO inhibitor with a TCA you will get
|
a hypertensive crisis
|
|
isoproterenol stimulates
|
beta 1 and 2 receptors
|
|
isosorbide is
|
an osmotic diuretic
|
|
ketanserin is a
|
serotonin antagonist used in the treatment of hypertension
|
|
labetalol blocks
|
adrenergic receptors alpha 1 ' beta 1' and beta 2
|
|
large doses of aspirin may be useful in
|
promoting uric acid excretion
|
|
lidocaine is used for
|
ventricular arrythmias
|
|
local anesthetics act to block
|
sodium channels
|
|
lomustine and carmustine are used
|
to treat brain tumors
|
|
loop diuretics act at the
|
thick ascending loop
|
|
mannitol (osmotic diuretics) work at the
|
proximal tubule
|
|
methacholine is used to diagnose
|
Adie's tonic pupil
|
|
methazolamide is an
|
CAI
|
|
methicillin is to be used sparingly because it is
|
beta lactamase resistant
|
|
neomycin is
|
an antibacterial commonly used in the eye in conjunction with steroids
|
|
neomycin is
|
bactericidal
|
|
neomycin is known to cause
|
hypersensitivity reactions
|
|
nicotine causes
|
clonic spasm of the EOMs
|
|
nitroglycerine is
|
a treatment for hypertension
|
|
nitroglycerine is
|
most often prescribed for angina
|
|
NSAID's are
|
contraindicated in peptic ulcer disease
|
|
nystatin is good against
|
fungal infections of the skin
|
|
nystatin is
|
too toxic to be used systemically
|
|
ocuserts follow
|
zero order kinetics
|
|
opiates may cause death via
|
respiratory depression
|
|
parasympathetic stimulation will
|
decrease AV conduction
|
|
parathyroid hormone works by
|
bone resorption
|
|
phenylephrine should not be given to a patient on
|
amitriptylline
|
|
flucytosin is used to treat
|
Candida infection
|
|
polymyxin B is not affective against
|
gram positive staph aureus
|
|
povidone is
|
a germicide
|
|
prolonged use of corticosteroids can cause
|
HTN (hypertension)
|
|
propantheline is
|
a synthetic antimuscarinic agent
|
|
proparacaine has duration of action of
|
fifteen minutes
|
|
propranalol is
|
a negative ionotrope
|
|
quinidine is used to treat
|
arrythmias
|
|
SE of chlorpromazine (anti psychotic) is
|
dry mouth
|
|
small unmyelinated fibers are the first to be affected by
|
local anesthetics
|
|
steroids increase
|
IOP
|
|
succinylcholine is
|
non competitive with acetylcholine
|
|
succinylcholine is a muscle relaxant that acts by
|
maintaining depolarization of the motor endplate
|
|
sucraflate is
|
an anti ulcer med that coats the stomach
|
|
sulfacetamide
|
inhibits folic acid metabolism
|
|
tachycardia would not be expected with
|
echothiphate
|
|
tetracycline acts by
|
inhibiting cell protein synthesis
|
|
tetracycline is used
|
to treat chlamydia
|
|
tetracyclines
|
modify fatty acids and metallomatrix proteases for treatment of Meibomian gland dysfunctions
|
|
tetrahydrozoline (visine) causes
|
vasoconstriction
|
|
the antidote for atropine is
|
physiostigmine
|
|
the steady state plasma concentration is
|
not affected by the half life of a drug
|
|
thiopental is slowly metabolized and thus has
|
a long duration
|
|
thyroxine stimulates
|
the levator
|
|
tobramycin is good against
|
pseudomonas
|
|
tolbutimen makes
|
the receptor more effective
|
|
trachoma should be treated with
|
oral tetracycline
|
|
trazadone is an
|
atypical antidepressant
|
|
velocity is
|
1/2 maximum when the substrate concentration equals Km
|
|
V max is
|
on the vertical axis of the Lineweaver Burke plot
|
|
the pancreas and liver empty into the
|
duodenum
|
|
paranasal sinuses include the
|
ethmoid' sphenoid' frontal' and maxillary sinuses
|
|
parathyroid hormone is released in response to
|
decreased calcium
|
|
parotid (salivary) glands secrete by
|
the holocrine method
|
|
PNS is craniosacral
|
SNS is thoracolumbar
|
|
posterior auricular artery is
|
a branch of the ECA
|
|
posterior communicating arteries connect the
|
ICA to the PCA
|
|
prolactin stimulates
|
mamillary secretions
|
|
proto oncogenes are
|
a normal tissue component that regulate cell proliferation
|
|
respiratory bronchi lack
|
cartilage
|
|
right ventricular failure is
|
least likely to cause pulmonary edema
|
|
Schwann cells surround axons in the
|
PNS
|
|
gastrin is made in
|
the G cells of the stomach
|
|
Secretin secretion by the duodenum is
|
stimulated by low pH in the stomach
|
|
shrugging is innervated by
|
CN XI (trapezius)
|
|
slowest conduction in the heart is the AV node
|
fastest conduction in the heart is the bundle of His
|
|
somastatin is produced by
|
D cells in the pancreas
|
|
stratum basale of the skin is
|
the most active (layer?)
|
|
sucrafate lines
|
craters in the stomach
|
|
taste is by
|
CN 7 (first 2/3 ) and CN 9 (last 1/3 )
|
|
the adequate stimulus for the semicircular canal is
|
gravity
|
|
the anterior ethmoidal air cells open into the
|
superior meatus
|
|
the maxillary opens into the
|
middle meatus
|
|
the nasolacrimal duct opens into the
|
inferior meatus
|
|
the cavernous sinus encloses the
|
somatic afferrent and efferent nerves to the eye and its muscles
|
|
the right bundle branch is not
|
part of the moderator band
|
|
the ciliary ganglion is located between the
|
optic nerve and the lateral rectus
|
|
the ciliospinal center of budge is located between
|
CN 8 and T1 or T2
|
|
the diaphragm is innervated by the
|
phrenic nerve
|
|
the fossa for the lacrimal gland is the
|
frontal bone
|
|
the framework of the heart is called the endocardium and is made of
|
fibrous connective tissue
|
|
the hypophysis is connected to the brainstem by a
|
portal system
|
|
the kidney is
|
retroperitoneal
|
|
the lateral wall of the orbit consists of the
|
zygomatic and greater wing of sphenoid
|
|
the least damageable cell type is
|
pseudostratified columnar
|
|
the maxillary artery does not pass through either the
|
SOF or the cavernous sinus
|
|
the muscles involved in frowning are the
|
corrugator superciliaris (eyebrows) and the depressor anguli oris (mouth)
|
|
the optic nerve goes through the
|
lesser wing of the sphenoid through the optic canal
|
|
the SOF is formed by the
|
greater and lesser wings of the sphenoid
|
|
the orbit communicates with the
|
IT fossa and PP fossa through the IOF
|
|
the orbit is protected from inflammation by the
|
orbital septum
|
|
the orbital septum is continuous with the
|
tarsal plate
|
|
the palatine bone contributes least to the
|
orbit
|
|
the pancreas is both
|
exocrine and endocrine
|
|
the pituitary gland sits
|
above the sphenoid bone
|
|
the spina recti lateralis lies on the
|
sphenoid bone
|
|
the tentorium cerebelli is found between the
|
cerebrum and cerebellum
|
|
the A band contains
|
actin and myosin
|
|
as you go from artery to arteriole to capillary you get a
|
decrease in velocity and an increase in total cross sectional area
|
|
calcitonin causes hypocalcemia mostly by
|
inhibiting bone resorption
|
|
gap junctions are responsible for
|
electrical transmission
|
|
in the muscles calcium binds to troponin which
|
changes tropomyosin so myosin can bind to actin
|
|
lymph capillaries are larger than
|
blood capillaries
|
|
monocytes turn into
|
macrophages
|
|
oligodendrocytes are found in the
|
retrolaminar part of the optic nerve
|
|
release of neurotransmitter is caused by
|
calcium
|
|
smooth muscle is able to
|
regenerate
|
|
surfactant is secreted by
|
type II alveolar cells
|
|
the most mitotic layer of the epidermis is
|
stratum germinativum/stratum basale
|
|
the thymus is active until young adulthood at which point it
|
begins to atrphy
|
|
the tympanic membrane is
|
NOT part of the cochlea
|
|
the vertebral artery arises directly from the
|
subclavian
|
|
the vidian (pterygoid) nerve carries both
|
sympathetics and parasympathetics
|
|
a lesion in the ciliary ganglion would most likely give rise to
|
Adie's tonic pupil
|
|
the corneal nerves begin to lose their myelination as they
|
progress through the corneal stroma
|
|
the dilator muscle of the iris is formed of
|
epithelial cell processes
|
|
the thymus is necessary for
|
cell mediated immunity
|
|
there are 31 spinal nerves and
|
there are 33 vertebrae
|
|
to destroy all reflex tearing you should prevent sensation by disrupting the
|
trigeminal ganglion
|
|
type 1 pneumocytes make up the
|
blood air barrier
|
|
cone peaks occur at
|
450nm ' 510nm ' 570nm
|
|
5 to 14 (avg of 9) quanta are minimum for detection in a
|
dark adapted person
|
|
50-140 (avg of 90) quanta of light must hit the cornea in order for
|
it to be detected
|
|
a deuteranomolous trichromat matches
|
yellow with red &green on the anomoloscope
|
|
a normal trichromat would see more green than a
|
deuteranomolous trichromat
|
|
a gray square will appear red on a green background because of
|
simultaneous contrast
|
|
a myope sees a red center with a blue fringe when
|
looking at a cobalt filter
|
|
a person cannot be a
|
deuteranomolous deuteranope
|
|
a protanope and a deuteranope have
|
the same scotopic luminosity curve
|
|
Abney's law (NOT abney's affect) states that
|
the luminance of a mixture of colors is equal to the sum of the luminances of its parts
|
|
Abney's law (NOT abney's affect) states that
|
luminance is additive
|
|
Airy's disc is due to
|
diffraction
|
|
an emmetrope with '+1.00 will see
|
a blue circle with a red center
|
|
at the rod saturation point
|
10% of the pigment is bleached
|
|
autokinetic motion is
|
apparent motion of small isolated object in dark environment
|
|
backward masking is explained by a
|
latency difference
|
|
blue arcs of the retina
|
can be seen as moving spots while looking at a brightly illuminated surface like a blue sky
|
|
blue spots or Maxwell's spots are
|
entoptic phenomena seen in the center of the fovea
|
|
blue yellow color vision problems can be due to
|
acquired retinal defects
|
|
cataracts and age decrease
|
Critical Flicker Frequency CFF
|
|
cells in an ocular dominance column respond to stimuli in the
|
same orientation
|
|
CFF decreases 7 cycles/sec by age 40
|
70% of the decrease in CFF by age 40 is due to senile miosis
|
|
CFF decreases with
|
yellowing of the lens
|
|
CFF increases with
|
light intensity if high frequency
|
|
it takes 5 minutes for 50% of rods to regenerate and
|
1.5 minutes for 50% of cones to regenerate
|
|
a kitten's critical period is
|
1 to 3 months
|
|
Lambert surface reflects light
|
equally in all directions and is a perfect diffuser
|
|
large pupils affect VA by
|
spherical and chromatic abberation
|
|
location of maximal stimulus for rods is
|
greater than 20 degrees
|
|
luminous flux is the rate of
|
passage of light from a source
|
|
clouds are white due to
|
Tyndall scatter
|
|
color confusion is the basis for
|
pseudoisochromatic plates
|
|
color specification can be demonstrated by
|
hue ' chroma ' and value
|
|
complete spatial summation is implied in
|
Ricco's law
|
|
cones are maximally sensitive at
|
555 nm
|
|
contrast sensitivity peaks at all spatial frequencies by
|
age 18 and remains until age 39
|
|
contrast sensitivity shows overall depression under
|
mesopic conditions
|
|
depth of focus varies directly with the
|
effective size of a retinal unit
|
|
detection VA is the
|
minimum visible
|
|
Fechner's colors are generally attributed to
|
different photoreceptor latencies
|
|
Fechner's colors result from
|
intermittent mixing of white and black stimuli
|
|
Flu equals 685 P coefficient
|
Ö
|
|
for a given exposure to light retinal cones willÖ
|
bleach faster
|
|
for every five degrees you move out on the horopterÖ
|
Panum's fusional area gets larger by 1 degree
|
|
Hue and Saturation contribute to
|
chromaticity
|
|
Hue specifies how much color stimulus differs from a
|
white light of equal brightness
|
|
if rods and cones are both bleachedÖ
|
after 5 minutes more cones than rods will be regenerated
|
|
if you induce exotropiaÖ
|
a monkey will be able to see out of either eye but not at the same time
|
|
if you wanted to test scotopic dark adaptation you would use a
|
5 degree blue/green target located 20 degrees eccentrically
|
|
in a Badal OptometerÖ a '+40D lens would provide
|
16D per centimeter of object displacement
|
|
accommodative posture in the dark is
|
inside infinity
|
|
in the leaf room all
|
monocular cues are removed
|
|
incandescence yields a
|
continuous spectrum
|
|
induced effect is from axis 180
|
geometric effect is from axis 90
|
|
the critical period for a monkey is
|
six weeks
|
|
monkeys raised in a confined environment will exhibit
|
myopia
|
|
Moore's lightning streaks may be a sign of a
|
posterior vitreous detachment
|
|
most common entopic phenomena are from the
|
vitreous
|
|
most common form of hereditary color vision deficiency is
|
deuteranomaly
|
|
most common horopter method is
|
AFPP
|
|
motion parallax is a cue that is within
|
arms length
|
|
night myopia is due to four factors
|
resting accommodation 'chromatic aberration and the purkinje shift ' spherical aberration and ' extrafoveal fixation
|
|
normal vernier acuity is
|
2 to 4 seconds
|
|
Panum's fusional area is largest in the
|
periphery
|
|
Peak of the CFF is
|
five cycles/degree
|
|
phosphenes are more commonly seen in
|
middle aged women
|
|
phosphenes are commonly seen
|
vertically and temporally
|
|
protanopes and deutanopes show the same
|
scotopic luminosity curves
|
|
Pulfrich phenomenon sees counterclockwise with a filter on the
|
right eye
|
|
receptive fields of complex cells are
|
orientation selective
|
|
red curve is missing for protanopes
|
green curve is missing for deutranopes
|
|
red/yellow are the colors that are least confused by a
|
tritanope
|
|
refocusing with plus lens affects the
|
CSF at high frequency
|
|
retinal vessels are not normally visible due to the
|
Troxler phenomenon
|
|
Rods are maximally sensitive at
|
505 nm
|
|
signal detection theory does not detect
|
background noise
|
|
sky is blue due to
|
Rayleigh scatter
|
|
small pupil decreases VA by
|
diffraction
|
|
Snellen acuity compares with CSF at
|
highest frequency
|
|
Snellen acuity of 20/20 subtends details of 1 minute and
|
overall visual angles of five minutes
|
|
spectral sensitivity shifts towards low wavelengths as
|
you age
|
|
stereopsis is the highest form of
|
visual acuity
|
|
stereopsis requires
|
horizontal disparity
|
|
Stiles Crawford effect type I is present in rods and cones
|
but it is much more in cones
|
|
Stiles Crawford effect type I says that
|
angle affects brightness and has to do with the wave property of light
|
|
temporal summation is 100 msec for scotopic and
|
temporal summation is 10-50 msec for photopic
|
|
temporal summation is
|
independent of wavelength
|
|
temporal summation is
|
longer for pattern stimuli and lower light levels
|
|
the B wave has the
|
highest amplitude
|
|
the best measure of resolution is
|
gratings
|
|
the flicker and cascade methods represent
|
techniques used in heterochromatic photometry
|
|
the greatest modulation in a diagram is the one with the
|
greatest difference between peak and trough
|
|
the hue that will appear least saturated to the deuteropic individual is
|
green
|
|
the lumen is a unit of
|
luminous flux or luminous power
|
|
the main reason for modular transfer is
|
quality image on the retina
|
|
the minimum separation distance that can be resolved at 1 km with the unaided eye is
|
26.8 cm
|
|
the Nonius horopter is referred to as the
|
equi angular horopter
|
|
the peak of photopic luminosity curve is
|
555 nm
|
|
the perceived brightness of a brief single flash stimulus remains constant if time is
|
greater than the critical duration
|
|
the photochromatic interval is zero for red stimuli and is
|
larger for blue/green
|
|
the PIC plates are designed around
|
confusion lines in the CIE
|
|
the process of color analysis begins at
|
the retina
|
|
the purkinje shift proves the
|
duplicity theory
|
|
the spatial modulation transfer function is the
|
ratio of the input frequency to the input contrast
|
|
luminance ' chromaticity' S phase (L'C'S) potentials are
|
transient (graded)
|
|
the threshold sensitivity of rods is more affected than cones by
|
a given amount of pigment bleaching
|
|
the time required to perceive apparent motion is around
|
50 to 60 msec pause between two targets
|
|
the troland is a measure of
|
retinal illuminance
|
|
the troland is the luminance of a stimulus times the
|
area of the entrance ppupil
|
|
under scotopic conditions a blue poker chip will
|
seem brighter
|
|
UV B (300nm) light will cause
|
cataract changes
|
|
UV B is
|
the most damaging to ocular structures (UV C would be if it wasn't filtered by the ozone)
|
|
VA increases as Airy's disk
|
decreases
|
|
Vernier is the best measure of
|
visual acuity
|
|
vertical stimuli are preferred in the
|
cortex
|
|
V M circle is the
|
locus of points with zero geometric retinal disparity
|
|
When the eye is dark adapting the cones will
|
control and determine the threshold sensitivity until 90% of the rhodopsin is regenerated
|
|
When you fixate on a dart (?) target it is
|
oculocentric
|
|
with OD axis 90 and OS axis 180 a wall to the right will seem
|
farther out
|
|
when you are dark adapted you are
|
most sensitive to blue
|
|
fibers related to the corresponding retinal points first meet in the
|
optic radiations
|
|
cGMP is a
|
2nd messenger
|
|
albumin keeps the blood plasma in
|
osmotic equilibrium with the cells of the body
|
|
ascorbic acid is an antioxidant in the
|
lens
|
|
B12 acts in the
|
synthesis of nucleic acids and the maintenance of myelin & folic acid
|
|
collagen is the most
|
abundant extracellular protein
|
|
essential fatty acids
|
are required in the diet
|
|
fatty acids are metabolized by
|
beta oxidation
|
|
these four substances fight free radicals in the lens
|
glutathione reductase ' catalase ' superoxide dismutase ' and ascorbic acid
|
|
H bonds hold
|
DNA strands together
|
|
Haptens are only antigens if they are bound to
|
proteins
|
|
inhibiting aldose reductase decreases
|
sorbitol pathway
|
|
ketone bodies produce
|
acidosis
|
|
Krebs cycle occurs in the
|
matrix of the mitochondria
|
|
light converts 11 cis retinal into
|
all trans retinal
|
|
linoleic acid and linolenic and arachidonic acid are all
|
essential fatty acids
|
|
lysosyme is activated by
|
decreased pH
|
|
NADPH is produced from the
|
pentose shunt (PPP)
|
|
oxygen free radicals attack membranes containingÖ
|
a lot of unsaturated fatty acids
|
|
RNA and DNA sequences are written in
|
5' to 3' order
|
|
saturated fats have
|
single bonds
|
|
the golgi apparatus is used in
|
secretion
|
|
the highest concentration of protein in the nucleus of the lens is what type?
|
beta crystalline
|
|
the highest mitotic region in the lens is at the
|
germinative zone of the epithelium
|
|
the oxidative (sorbitol) pathway of glucose is least active in the
|
lens
|
|
the primary storage form of fatty acids is
|
triacylglycerols
|
|
Uracil is found in
|
RNA
|
|
thymine dimer is formed due to
|
UV radiation
|
|
unsaturated fats have
|
double bonds
|
|
vitamins A'C'E all have
|
antioxidant properties
|
|
vitamin B12 is only absorbed with
|
intrinsic factor
|
|
vitamin K is involved in the formation of
|
prothrombin
|
|
vitamins act as
|
coenzymes
|
|
hydrogen bonds are the
|
weakest bonds
|
|
when blood glucose is increased you will have
|
increased sorbitol pathway
|
|
the sclera is derived from
|
mesenchyme
|
|
the neutralizing power of a thick lens is the same as the
|
front vertex power
|
|
the presence of colors in an oil slick is due to
|
thin film interference
|
|
marginal astigmatism is obtained when
|
a spherical lens is tilted
|
|
using the JCC in refraction allows us to
|
change the power in each principle meridian without changing the position of the CLC
|
|
orthoscopic doublets correct for
|
distortion
|
|
orthoscopic doublets are used
|
in the eyepieces of high powered telescopes
|
|
in ophthalmic lenses the designer is most concerned with
|
distortion and radial astigmatism
|
|
spherical abberation and coma are of least concern when designing ophthalmic lenses because
|
they are corrected by small apertures eg) the pupil
|
|
Spherical abberation occurs for both
|
on and off axis points
|
|
what is the f/ number of a typical human eye?
|
between 8.3(bright) and 2.1 (dark)
|
|
f/ or f stop is calculated by
|
focal length divided by the diameter of the entrance pupil
|