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330 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back

What are peptide hormones composed of?

Amino acids

What are the different categories of hormones?

peptides, steroids, amino acid derivatives, and eicosanoids

Which hormone has intracellular receptors?

cortisol

What does the pancreas produce and secrete

digestive enzymes

Which organ of the female reproductive system is functionally part of the endocrine system?

ovary

Which hormone, secreted by the pituitary gland, causes the thyroid hormone to release thyroid hormone?

Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH)

The release of ACTH from the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland causes the:

adrenal cortex to release glucocorticoids

Which hormone affects smooth muscle and therefore has an effect on the ductus deferens and uterus?

Oxytocin

What happens when blood glucose levels are high?

the pancreas releases insulin

How does a liver cell respond to insulin?

By taking in glucose and converting it to glycogen

What cells in the body respond to glucagon by breaking down glycogen and releasing glucose?

liver cells

What happens when blood glucose levels are low?

The pancreas releases glucagon, which eventually causes blood glucose levels to increase

Which group of hormones causes an anti-inflammatory action?

glucocorticoids

What do endocrine cells do?

Release their secretions directly into body fluids

Hormones are:

chemical messengers that are released in one tissue and transported in the bloodstream to alter the activities of specific cells in other tissues

lipid-soluble hormones usually bind to what kind of receptors?

intranuclear

Is para-thyroid hormone derived from an amino acid?

no

An enzyme that performs phosphorylation is

a kinase

An activated G protein can trigger

-decreased cAMP levels
-the release of calcium ions from intracellular stores
-the opening of calcium ion channels in the membrane
-the production of diacylgylcerol

This intracellular protein works in combination with calcium ions, which are messengers

calmodulin

The hypothalamus is both a neural and ______ organ

endocrine

A simple endocrine reflex involves this many hormones

just one

steroid hormones are not produced in the:

suprarenal medulla

Which types of hormones use extracellular membrane receptors?

catacholamines, peptide hormones, and eicosanoids

How do steroid hormones work?

They bind to receptors in the nucleus of their target cells

What happens when a catecholamine or peptide hormone binds to receptors on the surface of the cell?

The second messenger appears in the cytoplasm

What's the link between a first and second messenger in a cell that responds to peptide hormones?

a G protein

What happens when adenyl cyclase is activated?

ATP is consumed & cAMP is formed

Do all target cells have hormone receptors?

yes

What hormone exerts a strong effect on adrenal steroid production?

ACTH

What hormone is released by the neurohypophysis

anti-diuretic hormone (ADH)

What is the primary function of ADH?

Tho decrease the amount of water lost at the kidneys

How does the hypothalamus control secretion by the adenohypophysis?

By secreting releasing and inhibiting factors into a tiny portal system

What do secretory cells of the adenohypophysis release?

ACTH, TSH, FSH, GH

Hypophyseal portal system:

-has two capillary plexuses connected by short veins
-is a blood connection between the hypothalamus to the anterior pituitary
-carries neurosecretions to the anterior lobe of the pituitary

Excess secretion of growth hormone during development causes:

gigantism

Which organs contain target cells for oxytocin?

mammary glands, ductus deferens, prostate, uterus

ACTH

Pituitary hormone that controls the release of glucocorticoids from the suprarenal cortex

FSH

The pituitary hormone that promotes egg development in ovaries & sperm development in testes

LH

The pituitary hormone that promotes ovarian secretion of progesterone and testicular secretion of testosterone

Prolactin

pituitary hormone that stimulates milk production by the mammary glands

somatotropin

the pituitary hormone that stimulates cell growth and replication by accelerating protein synthesis

Iodine is necessary to make what hormone?

thyroid hormone

What do the C cells of the thyroid gland produce?

calcitonin

Excessive parathyroid hormone may result in

osteopenia, elevated blood calcium, or increased loss of bone minerals

What does the zona reticularis of the suprarenal cortex produce?

androgens

What does the zona fasciculata of the suprarenal cortex produce?

glucocorticoids

What does the zona glomerulosa of the suprarenal cortex produce?

mineralocorticoids

What does the suprarenal medulla produce?

catecholamines

Cortisol promotes what in the liver?

gluconeogenesis (the production of glucose/glycogen from non-carbohydrate sources)

What does the suprarenal medulla produce?

epinephrine and norepinephrine

Damage to cells of the zona fasciculata would result in:

decreased ability to convert amino acids to glucose

What gland secretes melatonin?

pineal gland

Pinealocytes produce:

melatonin

Alpha cells are to ______ as beta cells are to _____

glucagon; insulin

What are the primary targets of insulin?

skeletal muscle fibers, cardiac cells, liver cells, and adipocytes

What do the delta cells of the pancreatic islets produce?

somatostatin

What does the exocrine portion of the pancreas produce?

digestive enzymes

What directly regulates the secretion of insulin?

blood-glucose concentration

Does the kidney secrete angiotensin?

nope

What enzyme is responsible for the activation of angiotensin?

renin

How is angiotensin I converted to angiotensin II?

by converting enzymes in the lungs

What do the interstitial cells of the testes produce?

testosterone

What does the corpus luteum secrete?

progesterone

What do the kidneys secrete?

erythropoietin, renin, calcitriol, and hormones to regulate sodium ion concentration

Where is cholecalciferol synthesized?

within the epidermis of the integumentary system (cholecalciferol is vitamin d)

What hormone dominates during the alarm phase of the General Adaptation Syndrome (GAS)?

epinephrine

The exhaustion phase of the General adaptation syndrome (GAS) is characterized by

failure of electrolyte balance

What does the thyroid gland secrete?

calcitonin

What happens after a steroid hormone binds to its receptor to form an active complex?

gene transcription is initated

Which hormones are water soluble and therefore bind to extracellular receptors?

insulin and epinephrine

Increased activity of phosphodiesterase in a target cell would decrease its level of ______

cAMP

Changes in blood osmotic pressure would most affect the secretion of __________

ADH

Neurons of the supraoptic and paraventricular nuclei of the hypothalamus manufacture _______

ADH & oxytocin

What pituitary hormone causes the kidney to reduce water loss?

ADH

Thyroglobulin is found where?

thyroid follicles

What hormone can lower blood levels of calcium ion?

calcitonin

Where does the chemical reaction between thyroglobulin and iodine take place?

the lumen of the thyroid follicle

What's regulated by the parathyroid gland?

blood calcium concentration

What hormone helps to regulate the sodium ion content of the body?

aldosterone

An excess of glucocorticoids results in

Cushing's Disease

What would activate secretion of a pancreatic hormone?

a fall in the blood glucose concentration

Is cortisol produced by the gonads?

nope

If stress lasts longer than a few hours, an individual will enter the _________ phase of the general adaptation syndrome (GAS)

resistance

What is the agranular leukocyte that is capable of phagocytosis?

monocyte

What WBC type most rapidly increases in number after a bacterial infection?

neutrophils

What does the common pathway in coagulation end with?

conversion of soluble fibrinogen to insoluble fibrin

Where are most of the protein factors that are required for clotting synthesized?

the liver

The chief difference between plasma and interstitial fluid involves the

concentration of proteins

The most abundant solute in plasma is

protein

Why can't serum coagulate?

because the fibrinogen has been removed

Which plasma protein transports fatty acids and some hormones?

albumin

Which organ secretes the most plasma proteins?

liver

Plasma proteins that are essential in body defense are called:

immunoglobulins

What is a plasma protein that is essential for blood coagulation?

fibrinogen

RBC production is regulated by what hormone?

erythropoietin

An obstruction in blood flow to the kidneys would ultimately result in what?

increased erythropoiesis

What does each heme ring in hemoglobin enclose?

an atom of iron

What is hemoglobin's function?

to carry dissolved blood gases

Where do granulocytes form?

red bone marrow

What kind of white blood cells are most numerous in peripheral circulation?

neutrophils

What kind of WBC releases histamine and heparin at the site of an injury?

basophils

What are monocytes?

large, phagocytic WBCs that spend most of their time outside the blood as fixed and free phagocytic cells

What kind of WBCs are increased in allergic individuals?

eosinophils

~tru factz about basophils~

-granules contain histamine
-attract other defense cells
-granules contain heparin
-they constitute ~1% of WBCs

What do eosinophils function in?

destroying antibody-labeled antigens

What blood cells are involved in specific immunity?

lymphocytes

Non-specific immunity is a function of which blood cells?

neutrophils, eosinophils, and monocytes

What is the function of platelets?

to assist in a process called hemostasis

What are platelets?

cytoplasmic fragments of large cells

What happens during fibrinolysis?

clots slowly dissolve

What is the enzyme that dissolves fibrin called?

plasmin

What is the complex process that leads to the formation of fibrin from fibrinogen called?

coagulation

What is the extrinsic pathway of coagulation initiated by?

The release of tissue factor (Factor III) by damaged endothelium

What is the intrinsic pathway of coagulation activated by?

activation of Factor XII exposed to collagen

What does the common pathway of coagulation start with?

conversion of Factor X to prothrombinase

What is a moving blood clot called?

an embolus

What is the most abundant component of plasma?

water

What is the P wave of the electrocardiogram closely followed by?

contraction of both atria

What is the volume of blood remaining in the ventricle as diastole begins called?

end-systolic volume

What can you calculate if you know both the heart rate and stroke volume?

cardiac output

What is the epicardium also known as?

the visceral pericardium

What is the difference between cardiac and skeletal muscle?

cardiac muscle can't be tetanized

Blood returning to the heart from the pulmonary circuit first enters the ____________

left atrium

What do the papillary muscles do?

prevent the AV valves from reversing into the atria

Which valve prevents backward flow of blood into the left ventricle?

aortic valve

After blood flows into the vena cava, where will it go?

the right atrium

What causes cardiac tamponade?

excess fluid in the pericardial cavity

What do intercalated disks transfer from cell to cell?

electrical signals, ionic currents, the force of contraction, and action potentials

Blood returning to the heart from the systemic circuit first enters the __________

right atrium

The cusps of atrioventricular valves attach directly to the _____________

chordae tendinae

Where does the right ventricle pump blood to?

right and left lungs

Where does the left ventricle pump blood to?

aorta

What is coronary thrombosis?

when a blood clot forms on a ruptured plaque in a coronary artery

When is the first heart sound heard?

when AV valves close

where do the pulmonary arteries carry blood to?

lungs

Where do pulmonary veins carry blood to?

heart

Where is the foramen ovale in the fetal heart located?

interatrial septum

What is heart rate controlled by?

both the right vagus and sympathetic nerves

The rapid depolarization phase in the ventricular action potential appears in the electrocardiogram as the:

QRS complex

What phase of the electrocardiogram does the plateau phase of the ventricular action potential correspond with?

ST interval

Calcium ions are entering the cardiac muscle cell during what phase of the cardiac action potential?

Plateau phase

Where does the conducting system in the heart begin?

SA node

What delivers blood to the myocardium?

the coronary arteries

What is blood supplied to the left atrium by?

left coronary artery

What is the function of an atrium?

to collect blood, then pump it to the ventricle

Where is the normal pacemaker of the heart located?

the sinoatrial node

What happens if the pacemaker cells in the sinoatrial (SA) node become more permeable to potassium ions?

heart rate will decrease and cells will hyperpolarize

The ventricles will beat more slowly if:

the connection between the SA and AV nodes becomes blocked

What represents the depolarization of the ventricles on an electrocardiogram?

QRS complex

Is diastole the relaxed state of the ventricle, or the contracted state of the ventricle?

relaxed state

The one-way nature of the left AV valve prevents blood flow from

the left ventricle to the left atrium

When does the majority of ventricular filling occur?

While the ventricles and atria are in ventricular and atrial diastole

When does left ventricular filling occur?

while the AV valve is open

Are AV valves closed or open during ventricular systole?

closed

What will not increase heart rate?

increased parasympathetic stimulation of the SA node

What will not increase cardiac output?

increased afterload

If there's an increase in the rate of action potentials from baroreceptors, it will trigger a reflex to

decrease both heart rate and pressure

What WILL increase heart rate?

-increased sympathetic stimulation of SA node
-increased levels of epinephrine
-faster depolarization of the pacemaker potential
-decreased parasympathetic stimulation of nodal fibers

What does stroke volume depend on?

-venous return of blood to the heart
-end diastolic volume
-the contractility of the ventricle
-the pressure required to pump blood into the aorta

What is heart rate controlled by?

neurons of the cardiovascular center, located in the medulla oblongata

What would elevated capillary hydrostatic pressure do?

force more fluid across the endothelium

What does the hepatic portal vein do?

carries nutrient-rich blood into the liver

What are capillaries with a complete lining called?

continuous capillaries

____________ are responsible for channeling blood toward the heart

venous valves

Where would you find fenestrated capillaries?

the pituitary gland

atherosclerosis

buildup of plaque in the arteries

Fenestrated capillaries

capillaries with a perforated lining

An arteriole is also called a ___________ vessel

resistance

What holds the largest percentage of the blood supply?

veins

The main control of ________________ occurs in the arteriole

peripheral resistance

When might edema occur?

-when capillary hydrostatic pressure is elevated
-when the plasma concentration of protein is reduced
-if blood pressure is high
-if endothelial permeability goes up

Systolic pressure --- diastolic pressure =

pulse pressure

Vascular resistance opposes _____________________________________

the flow of blood back to the heart

Are immunoglobulins specific or non-specific?

non-specific

If the thymus ceased production of thymosins, T cells would ____________

decrease

T/F: vaccinations are naturally acquired active immunity

False; they're artificially acquired active

Inflammation produces:

-redness


-swelling


-heat


-pain

This immunoglobulin sensitizes cells to allergens

IgE

The white pulp (lymphoid tissue) of the spleen contains many _______________

lymphocytes

T/F: lymphocytes are phagocytic

False

What cells are responsible for humoral immunity?

B cells

Where are the stem cells that will form B or NK cells found?

bone marrow

Plasma cells are responsible for:

the production of circulating immunoglobulins

What do innate defenses include?

-phagocytic cells


-physical barriers


-interferons


-inflammation

What are physical barriers?

-epithelia


-sebaceous glands


-mucus


-epidermal layers

Mast cells releasing histamine and heparin mean that

an inflammatory response has been triggered

Neutrophils and eosinophils are

microphages

A high level of pyrogens in the blood indicates

a fever

When does the classic pathway of complement activation begin?

When the protein C1 binds to an antibody that's attached to an antigen

What is immunity that is genetically determined and present at birth called?

innate immunity

How do cytotoxic T cells attack target cells?

by secreting a cytokine that triggers apoptosis (cell death)

Phagocytes are the first line of cellular defense against ______

pathogens

Naturally acquired active immunity is immunity that results from

exposure to an antigen in the environment

Failure of tolerance immunity results in

autoimmune illness

Helper T cells are killed by

the AIDS virus

cytotoxic T lymphocytes

specifically identify and directly kill disease cells

What do suppressor T cells do?

inhibit T and B cell activities

A cytotoxic T cell is stimulated by

an antigen being bound to a Class II MHC protein

How can T and B cells be activated?

exposure to a specific antigen at a specific site in a plasma membrane

What kind of cells are Class II MHC proteins present in?

the plasma membrane of antigen-presenting cells and lymphocytes

Helper T cells activate

B cells

Which is higher during a primary immune response: IgM or IgG?

IgM titer is initially higher

Delayed hypersensitivity is

a type of allergy

The only antibodies that cross the placenta

IgG

After blood becomes oxygenated, what does it do?

it returns to the heart before being pumped to body cells

Boyle's Law

gas pressure is inversely proportional to volume

Where are the respiratory centers in the brain located?

both the medulla oblongata and the pons

What will decrease the effectiveness of gas exchange across the respiratory membrane?

increased thickness of the respiratory membrane

Why is inhaling through the nostrils preferred over the mouth?

because it allows better conditioning of the inhaled air

Where are the vocal folds located?

larynx

Where are the actual sites of gas exchange within lungs

alveoli

The membrane of the gas exchange surfaces is made from

simple squamous epithelium

What is a pulmonary embolism?

blockage of pulmonary blood flow by a clot

Tidal volume

the amount of air that moves into the respiratory system during a single respiratory cycle

Inspiratory reserve volume

the amount of air that you can inhale above the resting tidal volume

What does increasing the alveolar ventilation rate do?

decrease the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the alveoli

Henry's Law

The volume of gas that will dissolve in a solvent is proportional to the solubility of the gas and the gas pressureD

Dalton's Law

in a mixture of gases (like air), the total pressure = the sum of the individual partial pressures of gases in the mixture

Where is >70% of CO2 carried in the blood?

In the plasma as dissolved CO2 or HCO3

How is most oxygen transported in the blood stream?

bound to hemoglobin

Why does the chloride shift occur?

to transport bicarbonate ions into the blood plasma

Carbonic acid is created when

carbon dioxide and water form

Bicarbonate ions

How most of the carbon dioxide in the blood is transported

decreased pH = _________ hemoglobin

increased

Carbonic Anhydrase

-can increase OR decrease the # of bicarbonate ions in plasma
-is in RBCs
-is an enzyme

elevated PCO2

hypercapnia

What do the apneustic centers of the pons do

provide stimulation to the inspiratory ccenter

What do the pneumotaxic centerof the pons do

modify rate and depth of breathing

What protects the lungs from damage due to overinflation?

the hering-breuer reflex

Where is the cardiac sphincter?

between the esophagus and stomach

Where is the transverse colon located?

The transverse colon is located between the right colic flexure and the left colic flexure

Where in the large intestine is the appendix found?

cecum

What are the pouches in the wall of the colon called?

haustra

What is the cephalic phase an example of?

the nervous and digestive systems interacting

What does gastrin do?

stimulate gastric secretion

What is the greater omentum, where is it, and what does it do?

it's a fatty apron that anteriorly protects the abdominal viscera

What regulates the digestive system?

-parasympathetic and symphathetic neurons
-contents of the digestive tract
-intrinsic nerve plexuses
-hormones

What does the myenteric plexus do?

coordinates activity of muscularis externa

What are mesenteries?

double sheets of peritoneal membrane that suspend the visceral organs and carry nerves, lymphatics, and blood vessels

What can be found in the submucosal plexus?

-sernsory nerve cells


-parasympathetic ganglia


-sympathetic postganglionic fibers

What is the layer of loose connective tissue that directly supports the digestive epithelium?

the laminia propria

Is the large intestine responsible for water absorption?

yes

What kind of epithelium does the oral mucosa have

stratified squamous

What does the serous membrane that lines the peritoneal cavity do?

-secretes peritoneal fluid


-decreases friction


-prevents irritation


-lubricates the cavity

What does the uvula do?

prevents food from entering the pharynx prematurely

dentin

mineralized matrix similar to bone that makes up the bulk of each tooth

pulp cavity

the part of a tooth that contains blood vessels and nerves

parasympathetic stimulation causes ________ by all salivary glands

increased secretion

What is the top part of the stomach called

fundus

What are rugae?

the wrinkles in the wall of the stomach

What do parietal cells secrete?

hydrochloric acid

hydrochloric acid

what parietal cells secrete

what do chief cells secrete

pepsinogen

pepsinogen

what chief cells secrete

G cells of stomach secrete

gastrin

gastrin

what G cells of stomach secrete

What part of the stomach is the mixing chamber?

body

What does ghrelin do?

stimulates hunger

What does leptin do?

stimulates feeling of satiety

What does the enzyme pepsin do?

digests proteins

The _________ empties into the duodenum

pylorus

What would result from a drug that blocks the action of carbonic anhydrase in parietal cells?

a higher pH during gastric digestion

The cystic duct leads into and out of the ____________

gallbladder

The common bile duct and pancreatic duct empty into this section of the small intestine

duodenum

Where is most chemical digestion and nutrient absorption performed?

jejunum

What is the intestinal hormone that stimulates the pancreas to release a watery, bicarbonate-rich fluid is

secretin

what is cholecystokinin?

an intestinal hormone that stimulates the gallbladder to release bile

What is gastric inhibitory peptide (GIP)?

an intestinal hormone that stimulates the release of insulin from the pancreatic islet cells

What is gastrin?

an intestinal hormone that stimulates gastric secretion

What are the Kupffer cells of the liver/what do they do?

-present antigens
-destroy RBCs


-are phagocytic


-destroy bacteria

What does the pancreas produce?

-lipases and amylase
-peptidases and proteinases


-nucleases


-sodium bicarbonate

What dat liver do

-hematological regulation


-bile production


-metabolic regulation


-albumin production for blood osmotic pressure

How is hydrochloric acid from the stomach neutralized in the small intestine

sodium bicarbonate from the feces

Wat dat large intestine do

reabsorption of water and compaction of feces

what are mass movements

powerful peristaltic contractions that occur a few times each day in the colon

how are polysaccharides digested

amylase

how are proteins digested

trypsin

lactos

glucose + galactose

What does regulation of digestion depend on?

-enteric nervous syste


-endocrine nervous system


-central nervous system

the liver produces the most ________ in the body

urea

what cells perform gluconeogenesis

liver cells

When NAD+ is ________ it becomes NADH. When NADH is _______________ it becomes NAD+

reduced; oxidized

What happens during beta-oxidation?

fatty acids are converted into molecules of acetyl-CoA

what is metabolism

the sum of all biochemical processes going on within the human body at any given time

What can ATP be used for

-glycogen synthesis


-muscle contraction


-protein synthesis


-ion transport

Why do cells have to synthesize new organic compounds?

-to support growth


-to perform structural maintenance or repairs


-to produce secretions


-to store nutrient reserves

What is the function of the citric acid cycle?

to remove hydrogen atoms from organic molecules, and transfer them to coenzymes

In the ETS, what accepts electrons from one molecule and transfers them to another?

a coenzyme

What happens during glycolysis?

In order:
-hydrogen atoms are removed from organic molecules
-a molecule of glucose is converted into two molecules of pyruvic acid
-two molecules of ATP are consumed
-four molecules of ATP are produced

What does the citric acid cycle start with

the formation of a molecule of citric acid

When is the carbon dioxide of respiration formed

the citric acid cycle



What is the role of NADH in metabolism?

to transport hydrogen atoms to coenzymes in the mitochondrial cristae

What happens in the electron transport chain?

In order:
-generates a concentration gradient by pumping hydrogen ions


-NADH and FADH2 donate H atoms


-reduced molecules transfer energy to ATP formation


-oxidative phosphorylation leads to ATP formation

What does synthesis of fatty acids begin with?

acetyl-CoA

linoleic and linolenic acid

essential fatty acids

chylomicrons

lipoproteins that carry absorbed lipids from the intestinal tract to the bloodstream

Vitamin B6

removal of the amino group from amino acids in the first step of their catabolism requires a coenzyme derived from this

the liver forms glycogen during the ____________ state

absorptive

the major cation in cytoplasm is

potassium

the major anion in body fluids

chloride

cation that's essential for muscle contraction, nerve function, and blood clotting

calcium

beriberi is caused by deficiency of

thiamin

afferent arteriole

supplies blood to nephron

efferent arteriole

takes blood away from arteriole

juxtaglomerular complex

consists of specialized cells that secrete renin when glomerular BP falls

the proximal convoluted tubule is the part of the renal tubules that is connected to the ____________

glomerular capsule

what hormone causes the kidney to increase the body's content of sodium

aldosterone

which section of nephron performs most of the glucose and water reabsorption?

proximal convoluted tubule

The renal corpuscle filters __________

blood plasma

Does the nephron loop do any secretion?

nah

Urine passes through which of the following structures?

In order:
-collecting duct
-renal pelvis
-ureter
-bladder
-urethra

This is NOT a normal part of urine

protein

Sympathetic stimulation of the kidney will not:

increase the glomerular filtration rate

the passive force that creates filtrate is

glomerular hydrostatic pressure (GHP)

What maintains glomerular filtration rate?

autoregulation

what GFR-regulating mechanism is initiated by cells of the juxtaglomerular complex?

renin-angiotensin system

ADH causes

a decrease in urine volume but an increase in solute concentration

what does the ability to form concentrated urine depend on?

the function of the loop of Henle and the collecting duct

What is secreted by the distal convoluted tubule

-potassium ions


-hydrogen ions


-penicillin


-creatinine

increased aldosterone = kidneys producing ______________

urine with a lower concentration of sodium ions

what kind of epithelium lines the ureters and urinary bladder

transitional epithelium

How is a drop in blood pH compensated for

excretion of more hydrogen ions and fewer bicarbonate ions

What is in extracellular fluid?

interstitial fluid, plasma, cerebrospinal fluid, lymph

Which hormone has the most effect on the osmolarity of blood?

ADH

_____________ is released by heart muscle in response to excessive chamber volume

natriuretic peptides

Which body fluids do protein buffers play a major role?

intracelllular fluid (including RBCs), and plasma

What does hypoventilation lead to?

respiratory acidosis

How can someone get metabolic acidosis

prolonged vomiting, poorly controlled DM

What hormones are produced by the placenta?

relaxin, progesterone, hcG