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55 Cards in this Set

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  • Back

How many liters of blood in an adult?

5-6 liters

Blood function as a ________ in distributing ions and other small molecules and in thermoregulation.

homoeostatic manner


-the volume of packed cells relative to the total volume (35-45%)

Buffy Coat

a thin, lighter layer comprised of leukoctyes (WBCs) and platelets

Plasma: what is it and what 3 proteins does it contain (GAF)?

-intercellular fluid of blood containing clotting factors (serum doesn't have C. factors)

-important protein: globulins, albumin & fibrinogen (GAF)

Albumin vs fibrinogen vs globulins

-3 proteins of plasma (contains clotting factors)

G- functions in immune response

A- maintains osmotic pressure of blood

F- required for clotting

Erythrocytes: describe it (5)


-7-8 um diamters, 2 um thickness

-turnover= 120 days

-produced in bone marrow

-no mitochondria: can only perform glycolysis

What proteins does erythropoietin contain? (7)

-hemoglobin-carbaminohemoglobin-carbonic anhydrase-Band 3 antiport-glycophorin-spectrin/ ankyrin-Na+K+ ATPase


-contains heme molecules (which contains Fe-)

-heme reversibly binds O2

-reacts to CO2 at N-terminus to form carbaminohemoglobin

What are 3 important proteins for CO2 transport in blood?

-carbaminohemoglobin (a carbonate)

-Carbonic anhydrase: converts CO2 to bicarbonate anion (HCO3-; more soluble)

-Band 3 antiport: exchanges HCO3- with Cl- to proceed down bicarbonate gradient


carries majority of the blood group ABO antigens

spectrin/ ankyrin

helps red blood cell maintain its biconcave shape

Spectrin- forms net-like web beneath RBC PM; anchored by ankyrin

Ankyrin- anchors spectrin to PM; interacts with integral membrane proteins in RBCs

Na+K+ ATPase

maintains osmolality and electrochemical gradients

What proteins does erythropoietin contain? (7)



-carbonic anhydrase

-Band 3 antiport


-spectrin/ ankyrin

-Na+K+ ATPase

Blood Typing

-avoid agglutination of RBCs

-A/B/O alleles

-Genotypes: AA, BB, etc.

-blood group antigens forms dterminants (antibody-binding substructures)

N-acteylgalactosaminyltranferase; N-acetylgalactosamine

Type A

N-acteylgalactosaminyltranferase transfers terminal sugar (N-acetylgalactosamine) to the A-antigen

Galactosyltransferase; galactose

Type B;

Galactosyltransferase transfers galactose to make the B-antigen

What blood type doesn't make an active enzyme and can't transfer the terminal sugar?

Type O

The O-antigen is also known as __________.


T/F: biosynthesis of A and B antigens is perfect.

False; it's not

Note- A,B and AB individuals carry SOME O-structures as a result of this imperfection, which is why A, B and AB don't recognize the O antigen (H-antigen)

AB individuals can't recognize any antigens as foreign; thus they are known as _________.

Universal Recipients

Type O individuals have no antigens that could be recognized as foreign to anyone, thus are known as ____________.

Universal Donors



Rhesus Monkeys

-refers to Rh classification

-Rh-factor= D-antigen; present on RBC surface

-Rh+ has the D-antigen; Rh- doesn't

-antigodies to Rh antigens aren't high enough to cause massive agglutination

Eryhtroblastosis Fetalis

a disease of fetal and newborn infants who are Rh positive, where their mother is rh negative

Anemia is characterized by _______ oxygen transport to tissues.


3 types of anemia: sickle cell anemia, pernicious anemia & aplastic anemia

Sickle Cell Anemia

-sickle-shape in homozygotes; no change in RBC biconcavity in heterozygotes

-heterozygotes selected for in malarial infested areas

Pernicious Anemia

decreased ability to transport vitamin B12 due to a deficiency of intrinsic factor

-intake of VB12 doesn't help because PA is due to intrinsic factor

-erythrocytes are larger (macrocytes) and don't transport O2 efficiently

Where are intrinsic factors produced?

produced by parietal cells in the stomach

Aplastic Anemia

-insufficient RBCs

-may be due to exposure to irradiation or chemitherapeutic reagents that prevent cell division


-involved in clotting

-smaller than RBC (1-2 um in diameter)

-rounded in shape

-derived from megakaryoctye in bone marrow

-last ~1 week and then removed by splenic macrophages

How do platelets clot?

they bind to collagen in the extracellular matrix and to other platelets

Platelet Release Reaction

-refers to a shape change of platelets

-occurs by the cytoplasmic extensions, release of molecules that initiate blood clot formation (formation of fibrin polymers) and secrete factors that are chemoattractants for monocytes

Chemoattractants for monocytes

engulfs clot components including platelets and will initiate angiogenesis and wound healing


-reside in marrow

-responsible for the production of blood thrombocytes (platelets), which are necessary for normal blood clotting.

-large cells that undergo endoreduplication of nuclear material (as high as 64 N)

-contains a labyrinthine network of platelet demarcation channels


stimulatates overall platelet production by increasing megakaryocyte production in the bone marrow

What 2 clotting proteins are important in clotting events? Describe them

-Prothrombin- cleaves thrombin

-Thrombin- cleaves Fibrinogen

-Fibrinogen: gets cleaved into fibrin

NOTE: YOU MUST MAKE FIBRIN TO CLOT- blood clot formation occurs due to the formation of fibrin polymers

What 2 pathways are important to clotting?

1) Intrinsic Pathway: interaction of a factor with collagen in DAMAGED TISSUE

2) Extrinsic Pathway: the release of THROMBOPLASTIN from tissue


-involved in defense

-formed from bone marrow pleuripotential stem cells

-reside for 8-12 hours in blood

-leave the blood by diapedesis through endothelial cell layers wherever infectious/ inflammatory agents are present


Leukocytes leave the blood by diapedesis through endothelial cell layers wherever infectious/ inflammatory agents are present.

What are the 5 leukocytes?



-mast cells




-most abundant leukocyte (55-60%)

-referred to as polymorphonuclear leukocytes because of their multilobed nucleus


-release chemotaxins to recruit other neutrophils

What is pus and a fever induced by?

Pus- dead bacteria and neutrophils (neutrophils die after engulfing bacteria)

Fever- the release of bacterial endotoxins from dying/ leaking neutrophils


contained with neutrophils that recruit other neutrophils

What are 2 types of granules of neutrophils?

The first: contains phagocytins (antibacterial proteins)

The second: a lysosome that contains hydrolases (to digest bacterium)


-least abundant (0.5%)

-irregular nucleus

-has basophilic granules that contain heparin (an acid) and histamine


-contained within large basophilic granules

-promotes local vasodilation of blood vessels and increase their permeability

-have affinity IgE receptors; when IgE antibodies bind allergens, the complexes triggers massive release of Basophils components into tissue

How can anaphylactic shock occur?

Histamine contains IgE receptors. When IgE antibodies binds to allergens, the complex will trigger massive release of basophil components (histamine and heparin). If this happens enough, shock can occur.

Mast Cells

-bilobed nucleus

-have granules containing histamine/ heparin

-migrate into tissues prior to maturation (basophils mature in the bone marrow)

-bind IgE-antigen complexes, causing swelling (edema)

-respond to inhaled antigens/ activate smooth muscle contraction (asthma)

-releases ECF-A factor

How can asthma occur?

When mast cells bind to IgE-antigen complexes in the airways (in response to inhaled antigens), activating smooth muscle contraction.


eosinophil chemotactic factor of anaphylaxis; recruits eosinophils to regions of mast cell activity


-1-3% of leukocytes

-phagaocytizes foreign antigen/ antibodies

-contains large lysosomal granules with major basic protein and histaminidase

-bilobed nucleus

T/F: Parasitic infections often lead to very high levels of Monocytes

False; eosinophils

Major basic protein

participates as a helminthotoxin; along with histaminidase, it is part of eosinophil granules