Block Ii Test Material

Front 1

C-level and Associated Remarks

Back 1

C-level and Associated Remarks

Front 2

Normally, the ———- is reported as the overall C-level provided it is a realistic indication of the unit’s readiness (based on the C-level definitions).

Back 2

lowest C-level of the four measured resource areas

Front 3

Unit Type Code Readiness Reporting

Back 3

Unit Type Code Readiness Reporting

Front 4

Within —— days of receipt of a deployment notification, unit type codes (UTCs) tasked to deploy will submit, via ART, and assessment of their ability to support the tasking, including theater specific requirements.

Back 4

five

Front 5

Units owning a UTC tasked to deploy will reset the deployment status from “yes” to “no” not later than —— days after the tasked resources inprocess at their homestation.

Back 5

five

Front 6

What report needs to be updated within five days after and AEF UTC tasking?

Back 6

Unit Type Code (UTC) Readiness Report

Front 7

What report needs to be updated within 5 days after an AEF UTC tasking?

Back 7

Unit type code (UTC) Readiness Report

Front 8

After-action report are compiled by the ——-?

Back 8

Medical Readiness Office

Front 9

Which is not a required Medical Readiness Committee agenda topic?

Back 9

Threat assessment update is not required MRC agenda topic.

Front 10

All medical personnel must be fully trained to meet task requirements associated with ——.

Back 10

globally integrated operations (GIO)

Front 11

Institutional forces (IF) and personnel assigned to Limited Readiness Capability (LS/LSISS) MTFs accomplish their readiness skills training (RST) as ——- upon receipt of a deployment taskings.

Back 11

just in time (JIT)

Front 12

How do Institutional Forces and personnel assigned to Limited Readiness Capability MTF accomplish readiness skills training requirements?

Back 12

Just-in-Time (JIT)

Front 13

True or False. Members assigned to the Critical Care Air Transport team (CCAT) can be replaced with any members of the same AFSC.

Back 13

False

Front 14

Members nominated by CCAT duty will undergo a position specific skill validation process administered by ——-

Back 14

AFEMSI

Front 15

The ——- is responsible for approval & disapproval of all shortfall reclamas and approves and /disapproves shortfalls through AF Reclama Processing Tool (RPT) in accordance with AFI 10–401, chapter 10 and forwards approved shortfalls to appropriate agencies

Back 15

Wing Installation Commander

Front 16

The installation Deployment officer (IDO):

A. Develops the installation Deployment Plan (IDP)

B. Facilitates the installation’s ——— change process

C. Responsible for the overall——- of the Installation Deployment Readiness cell (IDRC), Deployment Control Center (DCC), Personnel Deployment Function (PDF), and Cargo Deployment Function (CDF)

Back 16

shortfall, reclama, and unit identification code (UIC)

management and control

Front 17

A formal inventory of equipment and supplies for home station medical response is required —— after assets are used in an exercise or real world events

Back 17

60 days

Front 18

The personnel deployment function (PDF) provides a last set of eyes to ensure which of the following?

A. Personnel are eligible for deployment

B… this directed the development of a single comprehensive approach to domestic incidents

Back 18

Cc

Front 19

To help determine the ability to fill a tasking, the Unit Deployment Manager (UDM) provides the Unit/CC with:

A. Eligible personnel available based on ——— requirements

B. Airman postured and assigned to ————

C. Personnel that are —- Duty Availability (DAV) coded

Back 19

line remarks, special experience identifier (SEI), grade skill-level

tasked Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF)

not

Front 20

What directed the development of a single comprehensive approach to domestic incident?

Back 20

Homeland security personnel directive (HSPD) 5, Management of Domestic Incidents, enhances the ability of the United States to manage domestic incidents by establishing a single, comprehensive national incident management system.

Front 21

A

Back 21

A

Front 22

Homeland Security Presidential Directive 21, Public Health and Medical Preparedness, establishes a national strategy which will enable a level of public health and medical preparedness sufficient to address a ———-.

Back 22

range of possible disasters

Front 23

The ——- is responsible for approval & disapproval of all shortfall reclamas and approves and /disapproves shortfalls through RPT in accordance with AFI10–401, chapter 10 and forwards approved shortfalls to appropriate agencies

Back 23

Wing Installation Commander

Front 24

Emergency Support Function (ESF) are federal resources and capabilities grouped into functional areas that are most frequently needed in a national response. Medical is responsible for:

Back 24

ESF8: Public health and medical services and

ESF 11: Agriculture and natural resources

Front 25

Emergency Operations Plans

Back 25

Emergency Operations Plans

Front 26

Emergency operation plans (EOP) defines the scope of preparedness of emergency management activities necessary for a ——- at the state, local and guard level.

Back 26

jurisdiction

Front 27

Which of the following defines the scope of preparedness and emergency management activities necessary for a jurisdiction at state, local and guard level?

Back 27

Emergency Operations Plan

Front 28

Air Force Emergency Management (EM) Program

Back 28

Air Force Emergency Management (EM) Program

Front 29

———- enables local military commanders to take necessary action to respond to requests of civil authorities to save lives, prevent human suffering, or mitigate property damage.

Back 29

Immediate Response Authority

Front 30

The primary mission of the Air Force emergency management (EM) program is to:

A. ——-

B. Minimize the loss of or degradation of ——-

C. Continue, sustain, and restore ——- in an all hazards physical threats environment at Air Force installations worldwide

Back 30

Save lives

resources

operational capability

Front 31

———- is the Air Force structure that is used to respond to all emergency management incidents.

Back 31

Disaster Response Force (DRF)

Front 32

Specialized & support/recovery teams identified in the Disaster Response Force (DRF) may include ————-

Back 32

In-Place Patient Decontamination (IPPD) or Post-attack Reconnaissance Teams (PAR) Teams

Front 33

The incident commander (IC) maintains ——— of medical personnel at the incident site.

Back 33

tactical oversight

Front 34

MC-CBRNE

A formal inventory of equipment and supplies for home station medical response is required —— after assets are used in an exercise or real world events

Back 34

60 days

Front 35

——-provides medical equipment and supplies to manage up to 300 casualties, while ——- provides medical equipment and supplies to manage up to 100 casualties for ANG units.

Back 35

886A, 976

Front 36

The installation Medical All Hazard Response Team Chiefs are responsible for conducting a formal inventory of equipment and supplies—— of an exercise or real world events in which home station Medical and Response assets are used

Back 36

60 days

Front 37

Which of the following is not a medical specific exercise mandated by a AFI 41–106, medical readiness program management?

A. unit wide recall

B. Medical response exercises

C. Deployment support team Recall

D. Medical evac

Back 37

D

Front 38

Air Force Installation Mission Assurance Exercise requirements for medical include:

A. Public Health Emergency

B. ——-

C. ——

Back 38

Contingency of Operations (COOP)

Chemical, Biological, Radiological, Nuclear and High-Yield Explosive (CBRNE)