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79 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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The Air Traffic Organization (ATO) is manager by a (n) ___________. (11) |
Chief Operating Officer (COO) |
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According to their location, ATO air traffic control facilities are assigned to one of ___________. (13) |
three Service Areas |
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The primary Navigational Aids (NAVAIDs) for the nation's airways in the National Airspace System (NAS) are ___________. (59) |
VORs and VORTACs |
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The primary mission of the Traffic Management (TM) System is to ___________. (50) |
balance air traffic demand with system capacity |
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The operation of the TM is the responsibility of the ___________. (51) |
Air Traffic Control System Command Center (ATCSCC) |
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The primary function of the Traffic Management Unit (TMU) is to ___________. (51) |
monitor and balance traffic flows within their area of responsibility in accordance with traffic management directives |
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The primary purpose of the Air Traffic Control System is to ___________. (20) |
prevent a collision between aircraft operating in the system and to provide a safe, orderly, and expeditious flow of traffic, and to provide support for National Security and Homeland Defense |
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The air traffic facility that has no direct authority over Instrument Flight Rules (IFR) or Visual Flight Rules (VFR) traffic is the ___________. (26) |
Flight Service Stations (FSSs) |
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The facility primarily responsible for conducting pilot briefings is the ___________. (26) |
Flight Service Stations (FSSs) |
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Which position in the Automated Flight Service Station (AFSS) records and disseminates Hazardous Inflight Weather Advisory Service (HIWAS) summaries? (27) |
Broadcast |
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Which of the following duties is not the function of the Clearance Delivery position in the tower? (34) |
A. Compile statistical data B. Process and forward flight plan information C. Issue clearances and ensure accuracy of pilot read back D. Operate communications and tower equipment |
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The ___________ position in the ATC terminal option that is normally responsible for issuing control instructions to aircraft and vehicles operating on the airport movement area (other than active runways). (35) |
Ground control |
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In a Terminal Radar Approach Control (TRACON) facility, who has the responsibility for the safe and efficient operation of a sector? |
The radar team |
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The ATC facility that provides air traffic control services to aircraft on IFR flight plans during the en route phase of flight is ___________. (42) |
Air Route Traffic Control Center (ARTCC) |
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The only en route sector team member whose duties do not include accepting handoffs is the ___________ position (44-45) |
Radar Flight Data Position |
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When considering duty priority of an air traffic controller, first priority is given to ___________. (20) |
separating aircraft and issuing safety alerts |
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Non-radar separation is used in preference to radar separation when ___________. (21) |
an operational advantage will be gained |
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All of the following represent uses of a non-movement area EXCEPT: (3) |
A. Loading and unloading passengers or cargo B. Maintenance C. Landing area D. Parking |
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A runway with a magnetic heading of 003 degrees should be designated as Runway ___________. (5) |
36 |
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An airport with three parallel runways with a magnetic heading of 216 degrees would have runway designations of ___________. (6) |
22L, 22C, 22R |
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What runway marking extends the full-length runway pavement area? (12) |
Runway Edge Markings |
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A(n) ___________ consists of white arrows which point in the direction of landing, replacing the runway centerline, and beginning and the non-landing portion to the threshold bar. (13) |
Displaced Threshold |
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A ___________ is identified by large chevrons pointing in the direction of the threshold. (16) |
Blast pad or stopway |
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Runway ___________ provide alignment and guidance during takeoffs and landings, and consist of a line of uniformly spaced stripes and gaps. (7) |
centerlines markings |
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What color are taxiway edge lights? (35) |
Blue |
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Civil land airports have rotating beacons that ___________. (29) |
Flash white and green |
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Touchdown Zone Lighting (TDZL) and Runway Centerline Lighting System (RCLS) are two types of ___________. (32) |
in-runway lighting |
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Threshold lights are ___________. (31) |
Red light toward the runway to indicate the end of the runway. Green light outward from the runway to indicate the landing threshold. |
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The basic means to transition from instrument flight to visual flight for landing is provided by the ___________. (34) |
Approach Light Systems (ALSs) |
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Holding an aircraft is NOT used for ___________. (32) |
A. Traffic en route B. Position Relief C. Weather at destination D. Spacing |
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The minimum vertical separation required for aircraft above FL600 is ___________ feet. (7) |
5,000 |
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The minimum vertical separation for IFR flight at and below FL410 is ___________ feet. (7) |
1,000 |
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Aircraft that are not equipped with the required vertical navigation avionics must be separated by ___________ feet as they climb or descend through the RVSM altitudes. (8) |
2,000 |
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To clear aircraft to hold over different fixes at the same altitude, you must ensure that all ___________. (35) |
Holding patterns do not overlap each other and other airspace to be protected |
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What type of separation is defined as the spacing of aircraft at the same altitude by a minimum distance expressed in unites of time or miles? (12) |
longitudinal |
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Standard radar separation provided by an en route facility between two aircraft at FL270 is ___________ miles. (19) |
5 |
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Terminal radar separation minima require that when two aircraft are less than 40 miles from the antenna, ___________ separation is required; when two aircraft are 40 miles or more from the antenna, ___________ separation is required. (18) |
3 miles; 5 miles |
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Controllers may use visual separation ___________. (25) |
up to, but not including, FL180 |
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Runway separation is applied by ___________ controllers. (27) |
tower |
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With suitable landmarks to determine distances, separate a Category I aircraft departing behind a Category III aircraft by ___________. (28) |
6,000 feet |
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The two subsystems for disseminating aeronautical information are ___________. (3) |
Airmen's Information System (AIS) and NOTAM System |
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Who is responsible for originating a NOTAM concerning a navigational aid? (8) |
Technical Operations |
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A NOTAM that is widely disseminated and applies to civil components of the NAS is classified as a ___________. (13) |
NOTAM D |
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A NOTAM that consists of information that is regulatory in nature pertaining to flight, such as change to IFR charts, is classified as a/an: (15) |
FDC NOTAM |
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Responsibility for ensuring NOTAM formats and monitoring the United States NOTAM System (USNS) belongs to ___________. (10) |
United States NOTAM Office (USNOF) |
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Who is responsible for observing and reporting the conditions of the landing area of an airport? (9) |
Airport Management |
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Types of Notices to Airmen (NOTAMs) are: (12) |
NOTAM D, Flight Data Center (FDC) NOTAM, Pointer NOTAM, Military NOTAM |
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Which radar system uses both a ground-based interrogator and an aircraft-based transponder? (24,26) |
Secondary Radar |
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What is a radio detection device which provides information on the range, azimuth, and/or elevation of objects? (3) |
Radar |
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The primary radar display depicts the ___________ and ___________ of objects that reflect radio energy. (8) |
position; movement |
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What are two types of radar jamming? (19) |
Active and passive |
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Which is not a component of a primary radar system? (6) |
A. Transponder B. Antenna C. Transmitter D. Receiver |
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Which radar feature eliminates echoes from precipitation? (13) |
Circular polarization (CP) |
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What causes Anomalous Propagation clutter on primary radar systems? (16) |
Density or moisture |
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What causes temperature inversion clutter on primary radar systems? (17) |
Warm air trapped on top of cooler air |
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Secondary radar interference caused by a transponder operating close to the interrogator site is called ___________. (29) |
Ring around |
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Which of the following is an advantage of a secondary radar system? (30) |
A. Longer range than primary B. It does not provide weather information C. It only displays aircraft with transponders D. The location of the transponder |
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What does a controller need to do with information about an equipment failure on an aircraft that is being handed off to the next controller? (34) |
Relay all pertinent details concerning the aircraft and any special handling required or being provided to other controllers or facilities who will subsequently handle the aircraft. |
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When a pilot reports an inflight equipment malfunction, the controller should: (34) |
Relay all pertinent details concerning the aircraft and any special handling required or being provided to other controllers or facilities who will subsequently handle the aircraft. |
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The ___________ generates radio signals which are sent to the antenna for broadcast. |
Interrogator |
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The ___________ broadcasts radio signals covering the same azimuth as the primary antenna. |
Antenna |
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The ___________ reply is received by the antenna, sent to the interrogator, and relayed to the decoder. |
Transponder |
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The ___________ processes transponder replied and sends them to the radar display. |
Decoder |
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What information is contained in the FAA Order JO 7110.65? (10) |
Procedures and phraseology for use by air traffic control personnel providing air traffic control services |
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What information is contained in the FAA Order JO 7210.3? (11) |
Instructions, standards, and guidance for operating and managing air traffic facilities |
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Revised, reprinted, or new pages in FAA Orders JO 7110.10, JO 7110.65, and JO 7210.3 are indicated by bold ___________. (6) |
Vertical lines in the margin |
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What information is contained in the FAA Order JO 7340.2? (12) |
The approved word and phrase contractions used by personnel of the Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) and by other agencies that provide air traffic control, communications, weather, charting, and associated services. |
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When used in FAA Orders JO 7110.10, JO 7110.65, and JO 7210.3, the words "may" or "need not" means that the procedure is ___________. (15) |
optional |
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What information is contained in the FAA Order JO 7350.9? (13) |
Location identifiers authorized by the Federal Aviation Administration and Transport Canada |
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In FAA Order 7110.65, the word or words used to specify that a procedure is mandatory is ___________. (15) |
Must or shall |
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Which contraction is used to identify General Notices issued by Washington Headquarters? (7) |
GENOTs |
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In FAA Order 7110.65, the word or words used to specify that a procedure is recommended is ___________. (16) |
should |
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What are supplements? (4) |
Issued by organizations other than the originator of the basic directive to provide additional internal guidance or instructions pertaining to the basic directive. |
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Which document prescribes air traffic control procedures and phraseology used by Flight Service Specialists? (9) |
FAA Order JO 7110.10 |
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Which document provides the aviation community with basic flight information and ATC procedures? (14) |
Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM) |
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When used in FAA Orders JO 7110.10, JO 7110.65, and JO 7210.3, the word "will" means ___________. (17) |
not a requirement for application of a procedure |
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Many FAA orders are divided into chapters, sections, and ___________. (9-12) |
paragraphs |
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The purpose of an LOA is to supplement established operational procedures for ___________ use. (2) |
interfacility |
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Which of the following is NOT an example of typical SOP content? (10) |
A. Position/Sector descriptions B. Radar Handoff Procedures C. Internal coordination procedures between position D. Position relief briefing |
