Biology - Exam 2

Front 1

Genetic drift
A) reduces genetic variation in a population.
B) increases genetic variation in a population.
C) has no effect on the genetic variation in a population.
D) causes extinction in a population.
E) makes a population more genetically similar to other populations.

Back 1

A) reduces genetic variation in a population.

Front 2

The effect of genetic drift is much more significant in ________ populations.
A) large
B) small
C) aquatic
D) animal
E) plant

Back 2

B) small

Front 3

If the frequency of an allele reaches 1.0, the allele is said to be
A) lost.
B) stable.
C) perfect.
D) fixed.
E) cool!

Back 3

C) perfect.

Front 4

Genetic drift refers to the movement of individuals between populations.
A) True
B) False

Back 4

B) False

Front 5

Genetic drift is a random process.
A) True
B) False

Back 5

A) True

Front 6

The idea that geological processes have occurred in the past as they are occurring today is characterized as
A) catastrophism.
B) uniformitarianism.
C) the principle of superposition.
D) inheritance of acquired characteristics.

Back 6

B) uniformitarianism.

Front 7

How are artificial selection and natural selection similar?
A) They both rely on human intervention.
B) They both work toward a specific goal.
C) They both select for specific traits within a population.
D) They are processes that only affect animals.

Back 7

C) They both select for specific traits within a population.

Front 8

Microevolution applies to changes that occur
A) only within small populations of organisms.
B) in small regions of DNA.
C) to the allele frequencies in a population or species.
D) to small cells like bacteria.

Back 8

C) to the allele frequencies in a population or species.

Front 9

How does natural selection influence a gene pool?
A) It selects for alleles that will be useful in the future.
B) It triggers mutations leading to increased diversity.
C) It alters the frequency of alleles within an individual.
D) It alters the frequency of alleles within a population.

Back 9

D) It alters the frequency of alleles within a population.

Front 10

Which of the following is the best definition of evolutionary fitness?
A) The ability to increase the number of alleles in a gene pool
B) The ability to survive for a long period of time
C) The ability of an individual to adapt to a changing environment
D) The ability to produce many offspring

Back 10

D) The ability to produce many offspring

Front 11

Selection that favors two or more extreme phenotypes is called
A) directional selection.
B) stabilizing selection.
C) disruptive selection.
D) normalizing selection

Back 11

C) disruptive selection.

Front 12

Huntington disease is caused by a lethal dominant allele that affects individuals late in life. Why is this disease-causing allele still around?
A) The heterozygous individual might have some advantage.
B) The effect of the disease allele occurs after the individual has reproduced.
C) New mutations generate the allele.
D) Both a and b.

Back 12

B) The effect of the disease allele occurs after the individual has reproduced.

Front 13

Assume a population is 36% homozygous dominant and 16% homozygous recessive. What percent of the population is heterozygous based on the Hardy–Weinberg equilibrium?
A) 64%
B) 52%
C) 48%
D) 26%

Back 13

C) 48%

Front 14

Darwin observed that different types of organisms were found on either side of a geographic barrier. In this case the barrier was preventing
A) gene flow.
B) genetic drift.
C) sexual selection.
D) mutation.

Back 14

A) gene flow.

Front 15

The loss of genetic diversity is associated with
A) a population bottleneck.
B) a heterozygote advantage.
C) the founder effect.
D) balanced polymorphism.

Back 15

A) gene flow.

Front 16

Different types of "ant eaters" can be found on four continents: Australia, Africa, North and South America. Although these animals are not closely related, they have similar traits including long sticky tongues, few teeth, and large salivary glands. These traits are adaptations to their diet of ants. These similarities are an example of _____________.
A) divergent evolution
B) convergent evolution
C) artificial selection
D) inheritance of acquired characteristics

Back 16

B) convergent evolution

Front 17

A set of rose varieties known as the Explorer series have been specially developed by scientists to survive Canadian winters. They have been selected for disease resistance and repeated flowering throughout the summer and come in a variety of colors and sizes. This is an example of ________.
A) convergent evolution
B) artificial selection
C) inheritance of acquired characteristics
D) natural selection

Back 17

B) artificial selection

Front 18

In a large pasture, a landowner sprays herbicides to reduce the number of weeds. Although the herbicide kills many of the different types of weeds, one species develops resistance to the herbicide and continues to grow and spread throughout the pasture despite continuous applications of the herbicide. This resistance has arisen through the process of ______________.
A) convergent evolution
B) evolution
C) natural selection
D) adaptation

Back 18

C) natural selection

Front 19

The following summer, the landowner decides not spray any herbicides for a two-year period. By the end of the summer dandelions are producing large seed heads. Some of the dandelions produce more than 200 seeds; however, of the individuals that are resistant to the herbicide sprayed the previous year, only produce 95 seeds. Within this population of dandelions, which are the fittest individuals?
A) The plants that produce the most seeds because they will leave more offspring for the next generation.
B) Plants that are resistant to the herbicide because they will survive and reproduce more offspring when herbicide is applied.
C) All individuals in the population are "fit" as long as they have enough offspring.
D) We would need data from at least two more years before this question can be answered.

Back 19

A) The plants that produce the most seeds because they will leave more offspring for the next generation.

Front 20

In the previous example, is herbicide resistance an adaptation?
A) Yes, it is always an adaptation because it enables plants to survive when herbicides are sprayed.
B) No, it is not an adaptation because plants with herbicide resistance always produce fewer seeds.
C) No, it is not an adaptation in years when herbicides are applied.
D) Yes, it is an adaptation, but only in an environment where the herbicide is sprayed.

Back 20

D) Yes, it is an adaptation, but only in an environment where the herbicide is sprayed.

Front 21

The use of herbicides and pesticides over many years has lead to resistance in many organisms. This is ____________.
A) directional selection
B) disruptive selection
C) stabilizing selection

Back 21

A) directional selection

Front 22

Siberian huskies are medium-sized dogs that have strong pectoral and leg muscles allowing them to move and work in dense snow. If these huskies get too large and heavy, they sink into the snow and can get stuck. However, if they are too light, they are not strong enough to pull sleds. This selection for a medium-sized dog is _________________.
A) directional selection
B) disruptive selection
C) stabilizing selection

Back 22

C) stabilizing selection

Front 23

In ridgebacks, a type of African hunting dog, a ridge of hair grows in a backward direction along their back, hence their name. The allele for this gene is recessive (r) thus the ridge trait is only found in homozygous recessive individuals. The frequency of this allele is 0.8. What proportion of dogs in this population do not have the ridge?
A) 32%
B) 4%
C) 36%
D) 58%
E) 64%

Back 23

C) 36%

Front 24

Hippos live in mixed groups of approximately 15 individuals in a territory maintained by a large, territorial bull or beach master. The beach master aggressively fends off other males and mates with all the females in his group. This behavior leads to changes in allele frequency due to ______________.
A) migration
B) genetic drift
C) mutation
D) nonrandom mating

Back 24

D) nonrandom mating

Front 25

In "Investigating Life: Size Matters in Fishing Frenzy," the experiments by Conover and Munch lead to changes in the population via ____________.
A) stabilizing selection
B) disruptive selection
C) directional selection
D) genetic drift

Back 25

C) directional selection

Front 26

The term macroevolution refers to
A) large-scale changes in the diversity of biological organisms.
B) large-scale changes in the DNA of biological organisms.
C) evolutionary changes that affect larger biological organisms.
D) evolutionary changes that can be observed.

Back 26

A) large-scale changes in the diversity of biological organisms.

Front 27

Why is the ability to produce fertile offspring a key part of the definition of a species?
A) Because of the role of mutation in evolution.
B) Because the individual offspring should be adapted to their environment.
C) Because fertile offspring are more fit than unfertile ones.
D) Because the offspring maintain the gene pool of the population.

Back 27

D) Because the offspring maintain the gene pool of the population.

Front 28

Which of the following is NOT a form of prezygotic reproductive isolation?
A) Temporal isolation
B) Genetic isolation
C) Mechanical isolation
D) Ecological isolation

Back 28

B) Genetic isolation

Front 29

How does a difference in chromosome number lead to hybrid infertility?
A) The difference affects mitotic cell division.
B) The cells of the hybrid cannot grow, so the embryo dies.
C) Meiosis is blocked, so gametes cannot form.
D) Mitosis is altered, so the gametes are inviable.

Back 29

C) Meiosis is blocked, so gametes cannot form.

Front 30

Home construction and urban development often lead to habitat fragmentation. What type of speciation might occur as a result of this human activity?
A) Sympatric speciation
B) Allopatric speciation
C) Parapatric speciation
D) Both a and c

Back 30

B) Allopatric speciation

Front 31

Polyploidy represents a ______ type of reproductive barrier.
A) mechanical
B) temporal
C) postzygotic
D) prezygotic

Back 31

C) postzygotic

Front 32

Adaptive radiation can best be defined as the ability of a population
A) to evolve a phenotype that helps them adapt to a new environment.
B) with a specific adaptation to find new environments.
C) to migrate to a better environment.
D) to undergo speciation in response to new or changing environments.

Back 32

D) to undergo speciation in response to new or changing environments.

Front 33

Why is a species with a small population more likely to undergo an extinction?
A) Because they cannot produce enough offspring.
B) Because there will be less genetic diversity.
C) Because the individuals may be isolated from one another.
D) Because the time required to produce offspring may be too long.

Back 33

B) Because there will be less genetic diversity.

Front 34

The difference between a mass extinction and the background extinction rate is
A) the number of species affected.
B) the time period involved.
C) the role of humans.
D) Both a and b.

Back 34

D) Both a and b.

Front 35

How does mitochondrial DNA contribute to our understanding of phylogenies?
A) It allows scientists to identify the maternal source for an organism.
B) It allows for a calculation of the evolutionary time scale.
C) It demonstrates whether gradualism or punctuated equilibrium occurred.
D) It identifies extinctions.

Back 35

B) It allows for a calculation of the evolutionary time scale.

Front 36

Although a tiger and a lion can produce an offspring, the resulting "liger" cub is infertile and cannot produce any young. This is an example of a _________.
A) prezygotic barrier
B) postzygotic barrier

Back 36

B) postzygotic barrier

Front 37

In the Chiricahua Mountains in Arizona, a species of spider is found in both riparian areas and in the desert shrub areas at the base of the mountain. In the riparian areas, these spiders are under constant threat of predation from birds. As a result, they do not spend much time in the exposed portion of their sheet webs. In the desert areas, birds are less of a threat and spiders spend more time out in exposed portions of their web. Offspring of a mating between spiders from riparian and desert behavior are more like spiders from a desert habitat even if they are living in a riparian area, and quickly fall prey to birds often before they have had a chance to reproduce. Over time, two different species could arise with inviable hybrid offspring. This would be an example of ___________.
A) hybrid infertility
B) behavioral isolation
C) allopatric speciation
D) sympatric speciation

Back 37

D) sympatric speciation

Front 38

As humans move into an area, the habitat often becomes fragmented due to clearing of the land to build homes and roads while leaving small areas of natural habitat. For small species that cannot navigate long distances from one habitat fragment to the next, what type of speciation will occur?
A) allopatric speciation
B) sympatric speciation
C) directional speciation
D) parapatric speciation

Back 38

A) allopatric speciation

Front 39

Blue whales take 5 to 10 years to reach sexual maturity and a female gives birth to a calf every 2 to 3 years after that. Red snappers reproduce at 2 years of age and produce hundreds of eggs each year. Based on these life history characteristics, if there was a major shift in the ocean environment, the blue whales would go extinct more quickly.
A) True
B) False

Back 39

A) True

Front 40

Which of the following are factors that will increase a species susceptibility to extinction?
A) Species that have recently undergone a bottleneck.
B) Species with high reproductive rates that reach sexual maturity in a few months or years.
C) Species with a low reproductive rate that take many years to reach sexual maturity.
D) Species with very small populations still surviving.
E) A, C, and D.

Back 40

E) A, C, and D.

Front 41

Beetles have a long fossil record; however, there was a sudden explosion of different species soon after the first appearance of angiosperms (flowering plants). This sudden appearance of many diverse species of plant eating beetles in response to changes in the environment is an example of _________.
A) gradualism
B) polyploidy
C) adaptive radiation
D) impact theory

Back 41

C) adaptive radiation

Front 42

From "Investigating Life: A new species is born but who's the daddy?": The formation of gametes occurs during the process of ____________.
A) mitosis
B) meiosis
C) DNA replication
D) interphase

Back 42

B) meiosis

Front 43

Which of the following occurs in the case of Tragopogon?
A) polyploidy
B) sympatric speciation
C) punctuated equilibrium
D) All of the above.
E) Both A and B.

Back 43

D) All of the above.

Front 44

You are living in which of the following geological eras?
A) Archean
B) Mesozoic
C) Paleozoic
D) Cenozoic

Back 44

D) Cenozoic

Front 45

Which form of a fossil would be best at providing material for DNA analysis?
A) Petrifaction
B) Impression
C) Intact preservation
D) Cast

Back 45

C) Intact preservation

Front 46

The distribution of species around the globe can be explained by
A) plate tectonics.
B) changes in ocean levels.
C) adaptive radiation.
D) All of the above

Back 46

D) All of the above

Front 47

The wing of a bird and the wing of a bat are
A) homologous structures.
B) vestigial structures.
C) analogous structures.
D) convergent structures.

Back 47

A) homologous structures.

Front 48

What term is used to describe an anatomical structure with no known function?
A) homologous
B) vestigial
C) convergent
D) analogous

Back 48

B) vestigial

Front 49

What is the advantage to comparing both DNA and protein sequences in evaluating evolutionary relatedness?
A) They both provide a measure of the rate of mutation.
B) Small differences in DNA sequence can still produce proteins of the same sequence.
C) DNA changes more quickly than proteins.
D) Differences in protein sequence may exist even when the DNA sequences are similar.

Back 49

B) Small differences in DNA sequence can still produce proteins of the same sequence.

Front 50

How does the activity of a homeotic gene relate to evolution?
A) Homeotic genes serve as a marker for convergent evolution
B) Organisms with similar homeotic genes have similar body plans
C) Homeotic genes are easily mutated
D) Homeotic genes are retained between evolutionarily distinct organisms

Back 50

D) Homeotic genes are retained between evolutionarily distinct organisms

Front 51

How does a molecular clock work?
A) It estimates when two species diverged using mutation rates
B) It measures the loss of 14 C isotopes in a sample
C) It estimates the time required for a population to undergo speciation
D) All of the above

Back 51

A) It estimates when two species diverged using mutation rates

Front 52

Kingdom Protista contains many lineages but does not include all descendants of a common ancestor. Kingdom Protista is therefore
A) homeotic.
B) paraphyletic.
C) polyphyletic.
D) a clade.

Back 52

B) paraphyletic.

Front 53

What assumption is made regarding all of the organisms within a clade?
A) They all belong to the same species
B) They share the same DNA and protein sequences with a common ancestor
C) They share a characteristic that is derived through evolution from a common ancestor
D) They share a common developmental pathway

Back 53

C) They share a characteristic that is derived through evolution from a common ancestor

Front 54

The "explosion" of sponges during the Cambrian period is likely an example of ___________.
A) gradualism
B) polymerase chain reaction
C) adaptive radiation
D) paleontology

Back 54

C) adaptive radiation

Front 55

Ammonites are an extinct group of fossil mammals. Their mineralized remains are often used in jewelry. What is the process leading to these mineralized forms?
A) compression
B) impression
C) cast
D) petrification
E) intact

Back 55

D) petrification

Front 56

Living in aquatic environments, fish, whales, and lobsters all have a functioning tail fin that enables them to maneuver efficiently. However, phylogenetically, these individual organisms are not closely related. As a result, the tail fin in each organism is likely _____________.
A) an analogous structure
B) an homologous structure
C) vestigial
D) homeotic

Back 56

A) an analogous structure

Front 57

Although ostriches use their wings in mating rituals, they are unable to use them to fly. As such, they would be considered ___________.
A) an analogous structure
B) an homologous structure
C) vestigial
D) homeotic

Back 57

C) vestigial

Front 58

According the theory of plate tectonics, North America was part of what major continent approximately 170 mya?
A) Gondwana
B) Antarctica
C) Eurasia
D) Laurasia
E) Pangaea

Back 58

D) Laurasia

Front 59

Warm-blooded or endothermic animals include both mammals and birds. According to the evolutionary tree in Figure 15.19, the group of warm-blooded animals is ___________.
A) monophyletic
B) paraphyletic
C) polyphyletic

Back 59

C) polyphyletic

Front 60

On the Galapagos Islands, 14 bird species have diverged from a common ancestor over a 3-million year period. This is an example of ___________.
A) systematics
B) adaptive radiation
C) convergent evolution
D) molecular clocks

Back 60

B) adaptive radiation

Front 61

During the drought years, there was selection for birds with smaller beaks. This is an example of what type of selection?
A) stabilizing selection
B) directional selection
C) disruptive selection

Back 61

B) directional selection

Front 62

Some whales have a pelvis and hind limbs that serve no apparent function. The pelvis and hind limbs of the whale are examples of ____.
A) Vestigal Structures
B) Analagous Structures
C) Convergent Evolution
D) Homologous Structures

Back 62

A) Vestigal Structures

Front 63

The idea that evolution proceeds in small, incremental changes over many generations is termed ________.
A) Punctuated Equilibrium
B) Bottleneck
C) Gradualism
D) Polyploidy

Back 63

C) Gradualism

Front 64

The stage of T4 replication that involves the protein fibers on the phage and receptors on the bacterial cell wall is the...
A) assembly stage.
B) attachment stage.
C) lysis stage.
D) transcription stage.
E) penetration stage.

Back 64

B) attachment stage.

Front 65

The stage of T4 replication that involves the injection of phage DNA is the...
A) assembly stage.
B) attachment stage.
C) lysis stage.
D) transcription stage.
E) penetration stage.

Back 65

E) penetration stage.

Front 66

The stage of T4 replication that involves the copying of the phage DNA and the synthesis of various phage proteins is the...
A) assembly stage.
B) attachment stage.
C) lysis stage.
D) transcription stage.
E) penetration stage.

Back 66

D) transcription stage

Front 67

The enzyme lysozyme is used by the T4 phages to enter and exit the host cell.
A) True
B) False

Back 67

A) True

Front 68

During the transcription stage, the phage DNA merges with the host DNA.
A) True
B) False

Back 68

B) False

Front 69

In the lytic cycle of phage replication
A) phage genes integrate into the host cell genome and are not expressed
B) phage genes exist as prophage
C) phage DNA remains inside the protein coat
D) phage nucleic acid is replicated and phage genes are expressed, making new phage protein and lysing the host cell

Back 69

D) phage nucleic acid is replicated and phage genes are expressed, making new phage protein and lysing the host cell

Front 70

A prophage is
A) phage DNA integrated into host cell genome
B) phage DNA being actively expressed
C) phage protein left outside the bacterium
D) toxic to the host bacterial cell

Back 70

A) phage DNA integrated into host cell genome

Front 71

Which of the following can cause a phage in the lysogenic stage to revert to the lytic stage?
A) lack of nutrients
B) ultraviolet light
C) a competing phage
D) darkness
E) an electrical charge

Back 71

B) ultraviolet light

Front 72

In the lysogenic stage of phage replication, the host cell is lysed.
A) True
B) False

Back 72

B) False

Front 73

Once a phage becomes lysogenic, it will remain lysogenic and never be lytic again.
A) True
B) False

Back 73

B) False

Front 74

Retroviruses have
A) one copy of single-stranded RNA
B) two copies of single-stranded RNA
C) one copy of double-stranded RNA
D) two copies of single-stranded DNA

Back 74

B) two copies of single-stranded RNA

Front 75

The provirus state exists when
A) double-stranded viral DNA is integrated into host cell chromosome
B) single-stranded viral RNA is integrated into host cell chromosome
C) double-stranded viral RNA is integrated into host cell chromosome
D) single-stranded RNA is present as a plasmid in the host cell
E) double-stranded DNA is present as a plasmid in the host cell

Back 75

A) double-stranded viral DNA is integrated into host cell chromosome

Front 76

If the DNA of the provirus is transcribed
A) several single mRNA strands are produced
B) a plasmid is made
C) the provirus detaches and becomes lytic
D) one long polygenic mRNA is produced

Back 76

D) one long polygenic mRNA is produced

Front 77

The polygenic mRNA codes for making one long polyprotein which is then cleaved into the separate individual virus proteins.
A) True
B) False

Back 77

A) True

Front 78

If the virus is present as a provirus in the host cell, it remains latent and never produces new virus.
A) True
B) False

Back 78

B) False

Front 79

The HIV protein that is involved in attachment of the virus to host cells is
A) reverse transcriptase.
B) gp120.
C) CD4.
D) CCR-5.
E) CXCR-4.

Back 79

B) gp120

Front 80

The HIV enzyme that makes a double-stranded DNA copy of the viral genome is
A) DNA polymerase.
B) RNA polymerase.
C) reverse transcriptase.
D) endonuclease.
E) gyrase.

Back 80

C) reverse transcriptase.

Front 81

The type of cells infected by HIV are ________ early in the course of an infection and ________ late in the infection.
A) helper T cells ; cytotoxic T cells
B) helper T cells ; macrophages
C) macrophages ; cytotoxic T cells
D) macrophages ; helper T cells
E) macrophages ; helper B cells

Back 81

D) macrophages ; helper T cells

Front 82

Attachment of HIV to a host cell requires a receptor and co-receptor on the surface of the host cell.
A) True
B) False

Back 82

A) True

Front 83

HIV leaves an infected cell by breaking down its cell membrane.
A) True
B) False

Back 83

B) False

Front 84

What part of the phage enters the bacterial cell following infection?
A) DNA
B) RNA
C) protein coat
D) the entire phage
E) no part

Back 84

A) DNA

Front 85

The protein coat that surrounds the genetic material of the T2 phage is termed the
A) capsid.
B) envelope.
C) nucleoid.
D) membrane.
E) cell wall.

Back 85

A) capsid.

Front 86

Mature T2 phage particles are released
A) after lysis of the bacterial host cell.
B) by budding through the bacterial cell membrane.
C) by budding through the bacterial nuclear membrane.
D) by diffusion through the bacterial cell membrane.
E) by phagocytosis of the bacterial host cell.

Back 86

A) after lysis of the bacterial host cell.

Front 87

Phage T2 infection of a bacterial cell is accompanied by degradation of host cell DNA.
A) True
B) False

Back 87

A) True

Front 88

The term phage is an abbreviation of the word bacteriophage.
A) True
B) False

Back 88

A) True

Front 89

Which viral receptor is involved in HIV attachment to the host cell?
A) gp41
B) gp120
C) p24
D) p17
E) all of the above

Back 89

B) gp120

Front 90

In order for HIV to attach, the host cell must have
A) a CD4 antigen receptor and a cell specific co-receptor
B) a gp120 receptor
C) a CD4 receptor and a nonspecific universal receptor
D) a CD8 receptor and a specific co-receptor

Back 90

A) a CD4 antigen receptor and a cell specific co-receptor

Front 91

Protease enzyme
A) makes DNA from single-stranded RNA
B) integrates viral DNA into host genome
C) cleaves poly-protein into individual functional viral proteins
D) helps the virus attach to the host cell

Back 91

C) cleaves poly-protein into individual functional viral proteins

Front 92

HIV core contains gp120 and gp41.
A) True
B) False

Back 92

B) False

Front 93

HIV core contains gp120 and gp41.
A) True
B) False

Back 93

A) True

Front 94

The drug AZT
A) inhibits the enzyme reverse transcriptase.
B) inhibits the production of HIV proteins.
C) inhibits the enzyme protease.
D) breaks down human cell receptors so that HIV cannot bind to them.
E) binds to human cell receptors thereby blocking HIV’s access to them.

Back 94

A) inhibits the enzyme reverse transcriptase.

Front 95

Chemokines appear to inhibit HIV infection by
A) blocking replication of the virus.
B) interfering with the synthesis of viral proteins.
C) interfering with the cleavage of viral polyproteins.
D) disabling the CD4 receptor.
E) blocking the CXCR4 and CCR5 coreceptors.

Back 95

E) blocking the CXCR4 and CCR5 coreceptors

Front 96

An antiviral factor called ________ has been found in ________ cells.
A) CAF ; CD4
B) CAF ; CD8
C) NEF ; CD4
D) NEF ; CD8
E) NEF ; brain

Back 96

B) CAF ; CD8

Front 97

Mutations that inactivate the CCR5 receptor make an individual more susceptible to AIDS.
A) True
B) False

Back 97

B) False

Front 98

It is hard to create a vaccine against HIV infection because the virus has a high mutation rate.
A) True
B) False

Back 98

A) True

Front 99

Which of the following diseases is(are) caused by prions?
A) mad cow disease
B) Creutzfeldt-Jacob disease in humans
C) scrapie disease in sheep
D) A and B
E) A, B, and C

Back 99

E) A, B, and C

Front 100

The normal prion protein is
A) bound to the ribosomes of neurons.
B) bound to the cell membrane of neurons.
C) found in the nucleus of neurons.
D) found in the mitochondria of neurons.
E) found in the synapse between neurons.

Back 100

B) bound to the cell membrane of neurons.

Front 101

A harmless PrP is converted into the infective PrP
A) only as a result of a mutation in the normal gene.
B) by a virus which binds to the normal protein and causes it to become misfolded.
C) by an abnormal PrP which binds to the normal protein and causes it to become misfolded.
D) by enzymes that break off parts of the harmless protein.
E) by interaction of a PrP from one species with that of a second species.

Back 101

C) by an abnormal PrP which binds to the normal protein and causes it to become misfolded.

Front 102

The gene for the prion protein has been found in vertebrates but not invertebrates.
A) True
B) False

Back 102

B) False

Front 103

The abnormal form of the protein is called PrPSc.
A) True
B) False

Back 103

A) True

Front 104

Which of the following does NOT occur during bacterial conjugation?
A) direct contact between donor and recipient cells
B) shortening of the pilus
C) enzymatic cleavage of one strand at the origin of transfer
D) unidirectional transfer of both DNA strands
E) recipient cell becomes a donor cell after conjugation

Back 104

D) unidirectional transfer of both DNA strands

Front 105

During bacterial conjugation, plasmid replication occurs in
A) the donor only.
B) the recipient only.
C) both the donor and recipient.
D) either the donor or the recipient, but not both.
E) neither the donor nor the recipient.

Back 105

C) both the donor and recipient.

Front 106

If one donor cell is mixed with 20 recipient cells, eventually ________ cells will become donors.
A) 2
B) 5
C) 10
D) 15
E) 20

Back 106

E) 20

Front 107

The pilus is found on both the donor and recipient cells.
A) True
B) False

Back 107

B) False

Front 108

Plasmids are small pieces of DNA that may carry genetic information for antibiotic resistance.
A) True
B) False

Back 108

A) True

Front 109

The main environmental factors that affect microorganism growth include chemical inhibitors, oxygen, pH, nutrients, moisture and
A) food texture.
B) time.
C) temperature.
D) cleaning agents.

Back 109

C) temperature

Front 110

With ideal environmental factors, the reproduction rate of bacteria is
A) extremely slow.
B) somewhat slow.
C) somewhat rapid.
D) extremely rapid.

Back 110

D) extremely rapid.

Front 111

What is the most important environmental factor influencing bacterial growth?
A) food texture
B) time
C) temperature
D) cleaning agents

Back 111

B) time

Front 112

Above 100° C (212°F) most bacteria
A) are destroyed.
B) stop growing, but are not dead.
C) are not affected by the heat.
D) grow rapidly.

Back 112

A) are destroyed

Front 113

At freezing temperatures, most bacteria
A) are destroyed.
B) stop growing, but are not dead.
C) are not affected by the cold.
D) grow rapidly.

Back 113

B) stop growing, but are not dead.

Front 114

Which of the following is NOT a feature associated with viruses?
A) Cytoplasm
B) Genetic information
C) Protein coat
D) Membrane

Back 114

A) Cytoplasm

Front 115

An organism that carries a virus without having symptoms is called
A) a harbor.
B) an agent.
C) a host.
D) a reservoir.

Back 115

D) a reservoir.

Front 116

Why are viruses not considered to be alive?
A) Because they depend on host cells to reproduce
B) Because they do not evolve
C) Because they do not contain genetic information
D) Both a and c

Back 116

A) Because they depend on host cells to reproduce

Front 117

At which stage in viral replication does the genetic information enter the host cell?
A) Penetration
B) Synthesis
C) Assembly
D) Release

Back 117

A) Penetration

Front 118

A virus can jump from one host species to a different host species because
A) viruses are small and numerous.
B) mutations in the virus let it recognize a new host surface molecule.
C) the host cell provides ATP, ribosomes, nucleotides and amino acids.
D) viruses leave the host by exocytosis.

Back 118

B) mutations in the virus let it recognize a new host surface molecule.

Front 119

Which step in viral replication would be the best target to prevent the spread of a virus?
A) Attachment
B) Penetration
C) Synthesis
D) Release

Back 119

A) Attachment

Front 120

What occurs during a lysogenic infection?
A) Viral particles attach, but do not penetrate a host cell.
B) Viral particles fill a host cell and cause it to burst.
C) Viral genetic material inserts into the host DNA.
D) The viral prophage DNA is packaged into a capsid.

Back 120

C) Viral genetic material inserts into the host DNA.

Front 121

The severity of the symptoms associated with a viral infection is related to
A) the response of the immune system.
B) the number of viruses released.
C) the number and types of cells that become infected.
D) Both a and c.

Back 121

D) Both a and c.

Front 122

What is a prion?
A) A highly wound circle of RNA
B) An "escaped intron"
C) A protein that can alter the shape of a second protein
D) The protein associated with a latent virus

Back 122

C) A protein that can alter the shape of a second protein

Front 123

What property of a virus makes it useful for making transgenic organisms?
A) The ability to replicate inside a host cell
B) The insertion of viral genes into the host's DNA
C) The ability of the host cell to release viruses
D) The ability of viral genes to undergo rapid mutation

Back 123

B) The insertion of viral genes into the host's DNA

Front 124

Viruses have which of the following?
A) cytoplasm
B) nucleus
C) ribosomes
D) DNA or RNA
E) All of the above.

Back 124

D) DNA or RNA

Front 125

Which of the following is NOT characteristic of a lytic infection?
A) Replication of viruses occurs immediately.
B) Newly replicated viruses quickly invade other host cells.
C) The virus "hides" within the host.
D) A prophage is formed.
E) Both C and D.

Back 125

E) Both C and D.

Front 126

Which of the following would be an example of reverse transcription?
A) ACCTTUCG -> TGGAATGC
B) ACCTTACG -> TGGAATGC
C) ACCUUACG -> TGGAATGC
D) ACCUUACG -> TCCAATCG

Back 126

C) ACCUUACG -> TGGAATGC

Front 127

Chronic wasting disease (CWD) is a disease that affects hoofed ruminant mammals found in North America (e.g., mule deer, white-tailed deer, elk, and moose). The disease is a progressive neurodegenerative disorder that is fatal, and was recognized as a type of spongiform encephalopathy in 1978. This disease is caused by ___________.
A) viroids
B) viruses
C) bacteria
D) prions

Back 127

D) prions

Front 128

The Epstein-Barr viruses enter the host's white blood cells via what process(es)?
A) active transport
B) passive transport
C) exocytosis
D) diffusion
E) Both A and C.

Back 128

A) active transport

Front 129

The gH and gL molecules are likely composed of what type(s) of biological molecule(s)?
A) proteins
B) nucleic acids
C) fatty acids
D) lipids

Back 129

A) proteins

Front 130

Viral proteins are produced at the _____________ during the process known as _________.
A) ribosomes; transcription
B) mitochondria; translation
C) cell membrane; reverse transcription
D) nucleus; transcription
E) ribosomes; translation

Back 130

E) ribosomes; translation

Front 131

The Epstein-Barr virus is a _______________.
A) prion disease
B) lytic infection
C) viroid
D) lysogenic infection

Back 131

D) lysogenic infection

Front 132

From "Investigating Life: Scientific Detectives Follow HIV's Trail": Which of the following is true about HIV-1?
A) HIV-1 is the milder strain compared to HIV-2.
B) HIV-1 and HIV-2 probably originated from the same virus found in apes.
C) Evidence suggests that HIV-1 evolved from a virus found in sooty mangabey's.
D) HIV-1 probably originated from a virus found in chimpanzees in central Africa.

Back 132

D) HIV-1 probably originated from a virus found in chimpanzees in central Africa.

Front 133

A prokaryotic cell is one that
A) lacks DNA.
B) has membrane-bounded organelles.
C) lacks a nucleus.
D) lacks a plasma membrane.

Back 133

C) lacks a nucleus.

Front 134

What is the cell wall of a Gram negative cell made of?
A) Pectin
B) Peptidoglycan
C) Glycocalyx
D) Plasmids

Back 134

B) Peptidoglycan

Front 135

The external structure that attaches the prokaryote to its environment is a
A) pilus.
B) flagellum.
C) plasmid.
D) endospore.

Back 135

A) pilus.

Front 136

Which of these is a distinguishing characteristic between the domains Bacteria and Archea?
A) Their size
B) Their use of chlorophyll for photosynthesis
C) Their ability to grow at high temperatures
D) The presence of membrane-bounded organelles

Back 136

B) Their use of chlorophyll for photosynthesis

Front 137

Which property of an archaean cell accounts for its resistance to the antibiotic streptomycin?
A) The composition of its plasma membrane
B) Its ability to live in extreme environments
C) The structure of its ribosomes
D) The presence of introns within its DNA

Back 137

C) The structure of its ribosomes

Front 138

What name is used to describe prokaryotic cells that are rod-shaped?
A) Spirilla
B) Bacilli
C) Cocci
D) Both a and b

Back 138

B) Bacilli

Front 139

Which form of prokaryote would be the most challenging to isolate and culture?
A) A facultative anaerobe
B) A photoautotroph
C) An obligate aerobe
D) An obligate anaerobe

Back 139

D) An obligate anaerobe

Front 140

Which of the following is the best explanation of why binary fission can occur without a spindle structure like that found in mitotic cells?
A) The cell is small, so there is less material to divide.
B) There is only one chromosome, and it attaches to the membrane.
C) The prokaryotic DNA does not need to replicate.
D) The DNA is transferred through the sex pilus.

Back 140

B) There is only one chromosome, and it attaches to the membrane.

Front 141

Which of the following is the bacterial equivalent to sex?
A) Conjugation
B) Transformation
C) Transduction
D) Transfection

Back 141

A) Conjugation

Front 142

What property of a prokaryote makes it useful for bioremediation?
A) The ability to reproduce quickly
B) The ability to live in extreme environments
C) The diversity of metabolic pathways found in various prokaryotes
D) All of the above

Back 142

D) All of the above

Front 143

According to the endosymbiont theory, which organelles probably evolved from prokaryotes?
A) ribosomes
B) nuclei
C) mitochondria
D) endoplasmic reticulum
E) Golgi apparatus

Back 143

C) mitochondria

Front 144

Sulfanilamide is an antibiotic that mimics the substrate of a bacterial enzyme that participates in an essential chain of chemical reactions. If this antibiotic binds to the active site of the enzyme it is an example of _______________.
A) feedback inhibition
B) competitive inhibition
C) non-competitive inhibition
D) controlled inhibition

Back 144

B) competitive inhibition

Front 145

In the late 1800s Streptococcus pneumoniae was widely recognized as a major cause of pneumonia and is still the most common cause of the disease today. Based on the name, what shape would you suggest for this organism?
A) rod
B) spherical
C) chain
D) clusters
E) Both B and C.

Back 145

E) Both B and C.

Front 146

If the bacteria Streptococcus pneumoniae stain dark purple, what can you conclude about them?
A) They are aerobic.
B) They can form endospores.
C) Their cell walls are made of a thick layer of peptidoglycan.
D) Their have a glycocalyx composed of proteins and polysaccharides.

Back 146

C) Their cell walls are made of a thick layer of peptidoglycan.

Front 147

Archaea and bacteria can be distinguished based on which of the following?
A) size
B) unicellularity versus multicellularity
C) membrane and cell wall composition
D) presence of membrane-bound organelles

Back 147

C) membrane and cell wall composition

Front 148

An important component of maintaining a successful aquarium is biological filtration. Bacteria such as Nitrosomonas and Nitrobacter colonize filters and use inorganic salts and inorganic carbon dioxide for their energy needs. Based on this, these bacteria are ___________.
A) heterotrophic autotroph
B) autotrophic chemotroph
C) heterotrophic phototroph
D) autotrophic phototroph

Back 148

B) autotrophic chemotroph

Front 149

Certain bacteria are unable to use the sugar lactose. These bacteria are grown together with a different bacterial strain that regularly take up and use the sugar lactose. After several days, it is found that both bacterial strains are able to use lactose. What is likely to have occurred?
A) transformation
B) transduction
C) conjugation
D) nitrogen fixation

Back 149

C) conjugation

Front 150

From "Investigating Life: A Romp Through the Staphylococcus Aureus Genome Solves Two Mysteries": Which of the following findings are supported by Musser's study of the origin and evolution of MRSA?
A) There is a single, common ancestor.
B) Resistance is passed from one strain to another via conjugation.
C) All Staphylococcus strains are resistant to antibiotics.
D) Methicillin-resistance arose multiple times within S. aureus.
E) Both B and D.

Back 150

E) Both B and D.

Front 151

Malaria is transmitted to humans by the Anopheles mosquito, which injects the _______ stage of the organism Plasmodium.
A) oocyst
B) gametocyte
C) schizont
D) merozoite
E) sporozoite

Back 151

E) sporozoite

Front 152

Arrange the following in the proper order in which they occur during the human-phase of the Plasmodium life cycle.

1. Formation of schizont
2. Invasion of the liver
3. Invasion of red blood cells
A) 1, 2, 3
B) 2, 1, 3
C) 2, 3, 1
D) 3, 2, 1
E) 3, 1, 2

Back 152

C) 2, 3, 1

Front 153

Arrange the following in the proper order in which they occur during the mosquito-phase of the Plasmodium life cycle.

1. Formation of zygote
2. Formation of oocyst
3. Formation of sporozoites
A) 1, 2, 3
B) 2, 1, 3
C) 2, 3, 1
D) 3, 2, 1
E) 3, 1, 2

Back 153

A) 1, 2, 3

Front 154

Plasmodium gametocytes are capable of producing gametes in mosquitoes, but not in human hosts.
A) True
B) False

Back 154

A) True

Front 155

The liver cells of people infected with malaria contain the ring trophozoite form of Plasmodium.
A) True
B) False

Back 155

B) False

Front 156

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the Kingdom Protista?
A) All are unicellular
B) Cells contain membrane-bounded organelles
C) Cells contain a nucleus
D) Most are aerobic

Back 156

A) All are unicellular

Front 157

The toxic bloom associated with a red tide is the product of which type of protist?
A) Euglenoids
B) Diatoms
C) Red algae
D) Dinoflagellates

Back 157

D) Dinoflagellates

Front 158

The different colors associated with the various phyla of photosynthetic protist result from
A) variations in the cell walls of these organisms.
B) the presence of different photosynthetic pigments.
C) differences in the habitats occupied by these cells.
D) the presence of silica or polysaccharides on the outside of the cell.

Back 158

B) the presence of different photosynthetic pigments.

Front 159

How is a plasmodial slime mold different from a cellular slime mold?
A) The ability to form resistant spores
B) The use of photosynthetic pigments
C) The composition of their cell walls
D) The ability to form a single cell with multiple nuclei

Back 159

D) The ability to form a single cell with multiple nuclei

Front 160

What property distinguishes an alga from a protozoan?
A) The presence of a flagellum
B) The ability to live in water
C) The ability to use photosynthesis
D) Both a and b

Back 160

C) The ability to use photosynthesis

Front 161

What form of motility is associated with amoebas?
A) Flagella
B) Cilia
C) Pseudopods
D) Kinetoplasts

Back 161

C) Pseudopods

Front 162

Which of the following diseases is not caused by a flagellated protozoan?
A) Vaginitis
B) Hiker's diarrhea
C) Malaria
D) African sleeping sickness

Back 162

C) Malaria

Front 163

Cilia can be used by protozoans to
A) collect food.
B) move through the environment.
C) attach to a surface.
D) both a and b.

Back 163

D) both a and b.

Front 164

How do the merozoites of an Apicomplexa differentiate into gametocytes?
A) They undergo meiotic cell division.
B) They undergo mitotic cell division.
C) They undergo loss of the apical complex.
D) They undergo fertilization.

Back 164

B) They undergo mitotic cell division.

Front 165

Why is the classification of protists based on rRNA sequences considered useful?
A) Because only protists have ribosomal RNAs
B) Because rRNA evolves rapidly, the relationship will be more obvious
C) Because some protists have prokaryotic-like ribosomes
D) Because rRNA evolves slowly, making it easier to identify related phyla

Back 165

D) Because rRNA evolves slowly, making it easier to identify related phyla

Front 166

Which of the following is not true with respect to organisms in the Kingdom Protista?
A) They are eukaryotes.
B) Some protista undergo photosynthesis.
C) They are prokaryotes.
D) Some forms are parasitic.

Back 166

C) They are prokaryotes.

Front 167

Which protists represent the first step toward multicelluarity?
A) algae
B) collar cells
C) sponge cells
D) choanoflagellates
E) dinoflagellates

Back 167

D) choanoflagellates

Front 168

Some dinoflagellates contain toxins. Dinoflagellates are eaten by oysters and these oysters are then eaten by birds. Through the process of biomagnification, the highest level of toxins would be found in _______________.
A) the oysters
B) the dinoflagellates
C) the birds

Back 168

C) the birds

Front 169

Red tides or blooms of dinoflagellates often occur after increases in nutrient content in the water. This rapid population growth is an example of _______________.
A) logistic growth
B) logarithmic growth
C) experimental growth
D) exponential growth

Back 169

D) exponential growth

Front 170

Which of the following occurs during alternation of generations?
A) Sporophytes produce gametes.
B) Sporophytes are diploid.
C) Gametophytes produce male and female spores.
D) Gametophytes are diploid.

Back 170

B) Sporophytes are diploid.

Front 171

A giant specimen of the multinucleate slime mold Physarum polycephalum had a surface area great than 5.5 m2 but was only 1.1 mm in thickness. This is most likely what type of slime mold?
A) plasmodial slime mold
B) cellular slime mold
C) water mold

Back 171

A) plasmodial slime mold

Front 172

Protozoa are often classified by _____________.
A) presence/absence of a test
B) parasitic versus free-living life cycle
C) presence of chloroplasts and mitochondria
D) type of locomotion

Back 172

D) type of locomotion

Front 173

Leishmaniasis is a parasitic infection that is common in the Middle East caused by a species of Leishmania. Parasites are transmitted via the bite of sand flies and there are no vaccines or preventative drugs (see Figure 19.18). Leishmaniasis has been confirmed in U.S. soldiers deployed in Iraq, and several preventative measures have been introduced to educate soldiers and to reduce the number of sand fly bites. The parasites belong to which informal group?
A) Flagellates
B) Amoeboids
C) Ciliates
D) Apicomplexa

Back 173

A) Flagellates

Front 174

The transition of S. niagarae to S. yellowstonensis an example of microevolution.
A) True
B) False

Back 174

B) False

Front 175

Which of the following is NOT a property common to both land plants and green algae?
A) Photosynthesis using chlorophyll a
B) Starch as a storage form of energy
C) Cellulose cell walls
D) The presence of a cuticle and stomata

Back 175

D) The presence of a cuticle and stomata

Front 176

In the alternation of generations in plants, the gametophyte is _______ and produces gametes by _______.
A) haploid; mitosis
B) diploid; mitosis
C) haploid; meiosis
D) diploid; meiosis

Back 176

A) haploid; mitosis

Front 177

Which group of bryophytes is most like its green algae ancestor?
A) Mosses
B) Liverworts
C) Hornworts
D) Both a and c

Back 177

B) Liverworts

Front 178

When spores are released from a sporangium, they form
A) a sperm cell.
B) a gametophyte.
C) a sporophyte.
D) a gemma.

Back 178

B) a gametophyte.

Front 179

How does the presence of vascular tissue (xylem and phloem) affect a plant?
A) It reduces the plant's dependence on a moist environment.
B) It allows specialization of roots, leaves, and stems.
C) It allows for the growth of larger plants.
D) All of the above.

Back 179

D) All of the above

Front 180

Why do ferns require a shady, moist environment?
A) They lack vascular tissue.
B) They use swimming sperm for sexual reproduction.
C) They lack a water-retaining cuticle layer.
D) The production of spores within the sporangium requires moisture.

Back 180

B) They use swimming sperm for sexual reproduction.

Front 181

Which type of plant produces a seed that is surrounded by a fruit?
A) Bryophyte
B) Gymnosperm
C) Angiosperm
D) True fern

Back 181

C) Angiosperm

Front 182

Reproduction in a gymnosperm is associated with
A) male and female cones.
B) airborne pollen grains.
C) the formation of pollen tubes.
D) All of the above.

Back 182

D) All of the above.

Front 183

What is one key adaptation of the angiosperms?
A) Dominant gametophyte generation
B) Pollen grains that use pollen tubes to fertilize egg cells
C) The use of flowers as reproductive structures
D) Both a and b

Back 183

C) The use of flowers as reproductive structures

Front 184

How does the concept of co-evolution apply to the angiosperms?
A) Angiosperms co-exist with simpler land plants like bryophytes.
B) Evolutionary changes to the environment have altered the diversity of fruits.
C) The shape of a flower selects for the type of pollinator that can visit it.
D) The type of pollinator selects for the form of seed dispersal.

Back 184

C) The shape of a flower selects for the type of pollinator that can visit it.

Front 185

All of the following are evidence for the descent of plants from green algae except:
A) Both plants and some green algae have an alternation of generations life cycle.
B) Both plants and green algae have cellulose cell walls.
C) Both plants and green algae store sugars as starch.
D) Both plants and green algae have chloroplasts.

Back 185

D) Both plants and green algae have chloroplasts.

Front 186

Which of the following is/are adaptations to a terrestrial habitat?
A) A waxy cuticle provides support for growth of tall plants.
B) A complex polymer called lignin that reduces water loss.
C) Specialized pores or stomata can open and close that reduce water loss.
D) Plant embryos with a tough outer coat.
E) Both C and D.

Back 186

E) Both C and D.

Front 187

Why are bryophytes restricted to moist habitats?
A) They are too small to compete in drier climates.
B) Water is required for dispersal of the spores which grow into gametophytes.
C) Water is required for the dispersal of the seeds.
D) Gemmae require water for dispersal.
E) Fertilization occurs when motile sperm swim to egg-producing structures.

Back 187

E) Fertilization occurs when motile sperm swim to egg-producing structures.

Front 188

Bryophytes are different from ferns because _____________.
A) only ferns have vascular tissue
B) only bryophytes have xylem and phloem
C) ferns have seeds while bryophytes are seedless
D) bryophytes are restricted to moist environments because of their swimming sperm while ferns are not
E) A, C, and D are correct.

Back 188

A) only ferns have vascular tissue

Front 189

Which of the following is found in gymnosperms but not angiosperms?
A) pollen
B) cones
C) fruits
D) flowers
E) seeds

Back 189

B) cones

Front 190

Which of the following is a gymnosperm?
A) monocotyledons
B) ferns
C) conifers
D) gnetophytes
E) Both C and D.

Back 190

E) Both C and D.

Front 191

What is the function of a pollen tube?
A) It transports pollen from the male gametophyte to the female gametophyte.
B) It is the tube through which pollen leaves the pollen sac or microsporangium.
C) It grows into the female gametophyte to deliver sperm cells.
D) It is part of the young sporophyte.

Back 191

C) It grows into the female gametophyte to deliver sperm cells.

Front 192

The southern African meganosed fly has a mouthpart called a proboscis that protrudes up to 4 inches from its head. This is the longest mouth part of any fly and is approximately five times longer than the body of the fly. This long structure allows these flies to obtain nectar from flowers with long, deep floral tubes. Which of the following best explains this relationship?
A) Natural selection
B) Coevolution
C) Mutation
D) Both A and B.

Back 192

D) Both A and B.

Front 193

From "Investigating Life: Birds do it, Bees do it …" When researchers altered the flower colors, which of the following occurred?
A) Bees preferred the orange-yellow flowers.
B) Hummingbirds preferred the wild-type red M. cardinalis.
C) The flower shape changed in the mutant M. lewisii.
D) Fewer bees were attracted to the orange-yellow flowers.
E) Both A and B.

Back 193

D) Fewer bees were attracted to the orange-yellow flowers.

Front 194

The formation of a new species within the same home range as the existing species is an example of __________.
A) allopatric speciation
B) sympatric speciation
C) parapatric speciation
D) adaptive radiation

Back 194

B) sympatric speciation

Front 195

Which of the following characteristics is associated with echinoderms?
A) Protostome
B) Two germ layers (ectoderm and endoderm)
C) Bilateral symmetry
D) All of the above

Back 195

C) Bilateral symmetry

Front 196

If an organism lacks mesoderm then it cannot form which type of tissue?
A) Skin
B) Digestive tract
C) Nervous tissue
D) Muscle

Back 196

D) Muscle

Front 197

When an earthworm is moving through the soil, its muscles are pushing against its
A) digestive tract.
B) coelom.
C) bony skeleton.
D) segmentation.

Back 197

B) coelom.

Front 198

Sponges belong to which phylum?
A) Cnidarian
B) Platyhelminthes
C) Porifera
D) Nematoda

Back 198

C) Porifera

Front 199

Which animal phylum has bilateral symmetry but an incomplete digestive tract?
A) Porifera
B) Platyhelminthes
C) Nematoda
D) Cnidaria

Back 199

B) Platyhelminthes

Front 200

What is a radula?
A) A stinging cell
B) A tongue-like structure
C) The sessile form of a cnidarian
D) A stage in animal development

Back 200

B) A tongue-like structure

Front 201

What is a key characteristic of all arthropods?
A) Six legs
B) Pseudocoelom
C) Hydrostatic skeleton
D) Exoskeleton

Back 201

D) Exoskeleton

Front 202

How is the body structure of an annelid different from an arthropod?
A) Annelids lack jointed appendages.
B) Annelids have a complete digestive tract.
C) Annelids have cephalization.
D) Annelids are bilateral.

Back 202

A) Annelids lack jointed appendages.

Front 203

Why is it necessary for an arthropod to molt?
A) Because they undergo indirect development.
B) Because the exoskeleton becomes damaged over time.
C) Because the exoskeleton prevents the organism from growing.
D) Because they have an open circulatory system.

Back 203

C) Because the exoskeleton prevents the organism from growing.

Front 204

What is a water vascular system?
A) A network of canals that enables echinoderms to move
B) The circulatory system of an echinoderm
C) The excretory system of an echinoderm
D) All of the above

Back 204

D) All of the above

Front 205

Which of the following is the most specious?
A) Annelida
B) Nematoda
C) Arthropoda
D) Mammals
E) Chordata

Back 205

C) Arthropoda

Front 206

Which of the following traits/characteristics is found among all animal groups?
A) unicellularity
B) cell walls
C) blastula
D) heterotrophic
E) Both C and D.

Back 206

E) Both C and D.

Front 207

List the major evolution points of divergence in order of occurrence.
i. symmetry
ii. embryonic development
iii. presence/absence of true tissues
A) i, ii, iii
B) i, iii, ii
C) ii, iii, i
D) iii, i, ii
E) iii, ii, i

Back 207

D) iii, i, ii

Front 208

Which of the following matches is not correct?
A) ectoderm – feathers
B) endoderm – intestine
C) mesoderm – lungs
D) endoderm – nervous system
E) mesoderm – ovaries

Back 208

D) endoderm – nervous system

Front 209

A blastula undergoes gastrulation and the first opening forms the anus. This embryo could develop into which of the following?
A) shark
B) crayfish
C) earthworm
D) jellyfish
E) sponge

Back 209

A) shark

Front 210

Frogs lay eggs from which a tadpole develops which then grows into an adult frog. This is an example of indirect development.
A) True because there is a larval form that is different from the adult form.
B) True because there is an egg.
C) False because the tadpole undergoes metamorphosis.

Back 210

A) True because there is a larval form that is different from the adult form.

Front 211

Which of the following first develops in the flatworms?
A) complete digestive tract
B) cephalization
C) segmentation
D) radial symmetry
E) water vascular system

Back 211

B) cephalization

Front 212

Nematodes and arthropods are similar because both _______________.
A) are pseudocoelomates
B) are segmented
C) molt
D) have incomplete digestive tracts
E) are deuterostomes

Back 212

C) molt

Front 213

Functionally, ___________ found in insects are similar to _____________ found in spiders.
A) Cephalothorax; head
B) Antennae; fangs
C) Gills; water vascular system
D) Mandibles; chelicerae

Back 213

D) Mandibles; chelicerae

Front 214

Which of the following is most closely related to vertebrates?
A) starfish
B) earthworm
C) grasshopper
D) crabs
E) jellyfish

Back 214

A) starfish

Front 215

From "Investigating life: The Cross-Dressers" of the Reef." Which of the following are male strategies for increasing rates of egg fertilization rates in cuttlefish?
A) Mate guarding
B) Female mimicry
C) Male mimicry
D) All of the above.
E) Both A and B.

Back 215

E) Both A and B.

Front 216

Some whales have a pelvis and hind limbs that serve no apparent function. The pelvis and hind limbs of a whale are an example of:
a) vestigal structures
b) analagous structures
c) convergent evolution
d) homologous structures

Back 216

a) vestigal structures

Front 217

The idea that evolution proceeds in small, incremental changes over many generations is termed...
a) punctuated equilibrium
b) bottleneck
c) gradualism
d) polyploidy

Back 217

c) gradualism

Front 218

Which of the following would have a silica cell wall?
a) diatom
b) ciliate
c) amoeboid
d) dinoflagellate

Back 218

a) diatom

Front 219

Which of the following is not considered a plant?
a) moss
b) kelp
c) gnetophyte
d) fern
e) gymnosperm

Back 219

b) kelp

Front 220

Which of the following would have a holdfast?
a) kelp
b) diatom
c) euglenoid
d) dinoflagellate

Back 220

a) kelp

Front 221

What is a notochord?
A) The spine of a chordate animal
B) The segments of the chordate body plan
C) A type of germ layer
D) A fibrous rod that runs down the back of a chordate

Back 221

D) A fibrous rod that runs down the back of a chordate

Front 222

How are birds, reptiles, and mammals similar?
A) They all have an amnion.
B) Their body coverings are made of keratin.
C) They are craniates.
D) All of the above.

Back 222

D) All of the above.

Front 223

Why is a four-chambered heart more efficient than a two-chambered heart?
A) Because it separates oxygen-rich and oxygen-poor blood.
B) Because it is more evolved.
C) Because it can transport larger volumes of blood.
D) Because it can generate a stronger contraction.

Back 223

A) Because it separates oxygen-rich and oxygen-poor blood.

Front 224

Since a tunicate is considered to be a chordate, it must have a
A) cranium.
B) notochord.
C) amniote egg.
D) lung.

Back 224

B) notochord.

Front 225

Which of the following is an example of a cartilaginous fish?
A) Eel
B) Trout
C) Shark
D) Hagfish

Back 225

C) Shark

Front 226

Why is it important for amphibians to live in a moist habitat?
A) To promote gas exchange across their skin
B) To maintain their eggs
C) To maintain their bouyancy
D) Both a and b

Back 226

D) Both a and b

Front 227

A four-chambered heart is a characteristic of
A) frogs and toads.
B) turtles and tortoises.
C) crocodilians.
D) lizards and snakes.

Back 227

C) crocodilians.

Front 228

What is the evolutionary link between birds and reptiles?
A) Four-chambered hearts
B) Egg laying
C) Scales
D) All of the above

Back 228

D) All of the above

Front 229

Which group of mammals lays eggs?
A) Monotremes
B) Marsupials
C) Placental mammals
D) Both a and b

Back 229

A) Monotremes

Front 230

Since a whale is a mammal, it must
A) have scales.
B) have gills.
C) produce milk.
D) all of the above

Back 230

C) produce milk.

Front 231

Chordates have all of the following traits except:
A) vertebral column
B) notochord
C) pharyngeal gill slits
D) dorsal, hollow nerve cord
E) postanal tail

Back 231

A) vertebral column

Front 232

Which of the following correctly lists the evolutionary innovations in order of appearance?
A) vertebrae, cranium, amnion, legs
B) legs, hair, jaws, amnion
C) cranium, vertebrae, jaws, amnion
D) jaws, vertebrae, legs, amnion
E) cranium, jaws, vertebrae, legs

Back 232

C) cranium, vertebrae, jaws, amnion

Front 233

Which of the following invertebrate groups is most closely related to the vertebrates?
A) tunicates
B) echinoderms
C) lancelets
D) lungfish

Back 233

C) lancelets

Front 234

Jaws first evolved in _________________.
A) hagfish
B) sharks
C) amphibians
D) lamprey

Back 234

B) sharks

Front 235

Which of the following are adaptations allowing amphibians to move onto land?
A) internal gills
B) amnion
C) dense skeleton
D) protective shell
E) Both B and C.

Back 235

C) dense skeleton

Front 236

Which of the following can be used to distinguish between snakes and lizards?
A) Lizards have limbs while snakes do not.
B) Lizards have movable eyelids while snakes do not.
C) Snakes have a forked tongue while lizards do not.
D) Snakes have external ear openings while lizards do not.
E) Both A and B.

Back 236

B) Lizards have movable eyelids while snakes do not.

Front 237

Which of the following reptile groups is most closely related to birds?
A) Tortoises
B) Tuatara
C) Lizards
D) Crocodiles
E) Snakes

Back 237

D) Crocodiles

Front 238

All of the following are adaptations for flight except:
A) streamlined body
B) feathered wings
C) powerful four-chambered heart
D) hollow bones
E) All of the above are adaptations for flight.

Back 238

E) All of the above are adaptations for flight.

Front 239

Which of the following birds does not have carinate breastbone?
A) eagle
B) seagull
C) emu
D) hummingbird

Back 239

C) emu

Front 240

From "Investigating Life: Limbs gained, and limbs lost." Based on the fossil Najash, snakes likely originated from terrestrial reptiles.
A) True, because there are no marine snakes.
B) True, because the Najash fossil has leg and pelvic bones similar to terrestrial lizards.
C) False, because Najash has a skull and jaw similar to marine reptiles.
D) False, because the ribs were not robust enough to support the body on land.

Back 240

B) True, because the Najash fossil has leg and pelvic bones similar to terrestrial lizards.