Biol2200 Mcq Quiz Bank 1

Front 1

Amino acids differ from one another by the __________ that are present.

Back 1

R-Group

Front 2

Of the 64 possible nucleotide codon triplets, how many specify polypeptide chain termination?

Back 2

3
(UAA, UAG, UGA)

Front 3

(B) What is the ANTI-CODON sequence that corresponds with the codon sequence AUG?

Back 3

UAC

Front 4

Name the unusual nucleoside that is only found in tRNA?

Back 4

Inosine

Front 5

What codon is most often recognised as the START CODON for translation?

Back 5

AUG

Front 6

Most amino acids are specified by two to four different codons. This means that the genetic code is __________.

Back 6

Degenerate

Front 7

With a few exceptions, all 64 codons have the same meaning in all organisms. This means that the genetic code is __________.

Back 7

Universal

Front 8

What type of bond occurs between the nucleotide bases in the codon and anticodon?

Back 8

Hydrogen Bonding

Front 9

Which position on the anticodon is the wobble position?

Back 9

5'

Front 10

Unusual nucleosides that are found in mature tRNA molecules are added during __________.

Back 10

Post-transcriptional Modification

Front 11

Both the change in genetic material and the process by which the change occurs is referred to as __________.

Back 11

Mutation

Front 12

(B) If a mutation occurs in a SOMATIC CELL, the resulting mutation phenotype will occur in
a) Only in the individual cell
b) Only in the progeny from that individual cell
c) In both the progeny of that individual cell and the individual cell itself
d) Neither the progeny of the individual cell or the offspring of that organism

Back 12

Neither the progeny of the individual cell or the offspring of that organism

Front 13

Mutations that occur without a known cause are called __________ mutations.

Back 13

Spontaneous

Front 14

Mutation is a random and non-adaptive process. This was first proven by
a) Lysenko/Lamarck - removal of mice tails as stress
b) Lederbergs - removal of mice tails as stress
c) Lysenko/Lamarck - replica plated E. coli and streptomycin
d) Lederbergs - replica plated E. coli and streptomycin
3) Mutation is not a random or non-adaptive process

Back 14

Lederbergs - replica plated E. coli and streptomycin

Front 15

A mutation that provides a selective advantage to the mutant organism when grown in the environment it originated in is known as a/n __________ mutation.

Back 15

Adaptive

Front 16

A gene (gene X) undergoes mutation which converts it from wild-type to mutant. Second mutation in genome gene Y occurs which causes the wild-type phenotype of the first gene (gene X) to be restored. Respectively, what are the appropriate designations for the two mutational events?

Back 16

Forward mutation, supressor mutation

Front 17

Mutations that result in no gene product or totally non-functional gene products are called __________.

Back 17

Null alleles

Front 18

When the bases are present in their rare imino or enol states, they can form which of the following pair combination?
a) A:T
b) C:G
c) A:C
d) A:T and G:C
e) C:G and A:C

Back 18

A:C

Front 19

Base-pair substitutions involving the replacement of a purine with a pyrimidine and vice versa are called __________.

Back 19

Transversions

Front 20

As they alter the READING FRAME of all base-pair triplets, base-pair additions and deletions are collectively referred to as __________.

Back 20

Frameshift Mutations

Front 21

(B) Which of the following statements is true about mutations induced by radiation?

Back 21

X-rays can result in gross changes of chromosome structure such as large deletions, duplications and inversions.

Front 22

Fragile X syndrome does NOT exhibit which effect?

Back 22

Decreasing numbers if the CCG repeat in successive generations.

Front 23

Bruce Ames constructed a mutagenicity test which initially missed carcinogens which were non-carcinogenic to the test strains. Why?

Back 23

Potential carcinogens needed to be modified in eukaryotes before they were mutagenic.

Front 24

Light-dependent repair corrects which of the following DNA alterations?
a) Methylation
b) Thyamine dimers
c) Mismatched base-pairing
d) Hydroxylation
e) Inversions

Back 24

Thyamine Dimers

Front 25

(B) Which of the following statements about the excision repair is correct?

Back 25

Nucleotide excision repair removes large regions of DNA via an excinuclease which cuts on either side of the damaged bases.

Front 26

(B) What DNA repair mechanism can be template-independent and require polymerase activity?

Back 26

Mismatch repair

Front 27

Light dependent repair is carried out by which enzyme?

Back 27

DNA Photolyase

Front 28

What disease is not associated with a defect in DNA repair pathway?

Back 28

Cystic Fibrosis (CF)

Front 29

Which of the following proteins is vital to the process of recombination?

Back 29

RecA

Front 30

(B) Gene conversion of Neurospora requires recombination and which of the following events?
a) Reversion
b) Suppression
c) Photoreactivation
d) Hetereoduplex formation
e) Inversion

Back 30

Heteroduplex formation

Front 31

Who coined the term 'gene' in 1909?

Back 31

Wilhelm Johannsen

Front 32

Beadle and Tatum refined the concept of the gene to state: one gene - one __________

Back 32

enzyme

Front 33

(B) Beadle and Tatum's concept has since been refined to state: one gene - one __________

Back 33

Metabolic block

Front 34

The alternate forms of a gene are known as __________.

Back 34

Alleles

Front 35

Which of the following is a true statement regarding the operational definition of a
gene?
a) Most genes encode one polypeptide and can be operationally defined by the
complementation test
b) Most genes encode two polypeptides and can be operationally defined by the
antiparallel test
c) Most genes encode for less than one polypeptide and can be operationally defined
by the complementation test
d) Most genes encode for one polypeptide and can be operationally defined by the
Biuret test
e) Most genes encode for one polypeptide and can be operationally defined by the
Fluctuation test

Back 35

Most genes encode one polypeptide and can be operationally defined by the
complementation test.

Front 36

Garrod's concept regarding the relationship between the gene and metabolism states: one gene - one __________

Back 36

Metabolic block

Front 37

Beadle and Tatum used what organism to support their one gene - one enzyme concept?

Back 37

Neurospora (Bread Mould~)

Front 38

The existence of the gene was established by who?

Back 38

Gregor Mendel

Front 39

In 1940, Clarence P. Oliver published the first evidence indicating recombination could occur in what organism?

Back 39

Drosophila

Front 40

The nucleotide-pair sequences of the coding regions of the structural genes and the amino acid sequences of the polypeptides they encode have a __________ relationship.

Back 40

Co-linear

Front 41

The first strong evidence for colinearity between a gene and its polypeptide product resulted in studies by __________.

Back 41

Charles Yanofsky

Front 42

The unit of genetic material not divisible by recombination or mutation is
a) Coding region of DNA
b) Intron
c) Exon
d) Single nucleotide pair
e) Codon

Back 42

Single nucleotide pair

Front 43

Which test provides the operational definition of a gene?

Back 43

Complementation test

Front 44

(B) When two mutations are on the SAME chromosome, the arrangement is called __________.

Back 44

Coupling / Cis configuration

Front 45

(B) When two mutations are on DIFFERENT chromosome, the arrangement is called __________.

Back 45

Repulsion / Trans configuration

Front 46

What type of mutation could not be used in a trans test, leading to invalid results?

Back 46

Dominant mutations

Front 47

When mutations exhibit complementation, this means the mutations are located in __________ genes.

Back 47

Different

Front 48

The control for a complementation test, often omitted is the __________.

Back 48

Cis-test

Front 49

(B) When a protein is multimeric, containing at least two copies of one gene product, what may occur?

Back 49

Intragenic complementation

Front 50

Complementation analysis used by Benzer in his rII analysis determined wether two mutations fall into the same
a) Gene
b) Codon
c) Nucleotide
d) Deletion mutant
e) Reading frame

Back 50

Gene