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142 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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Viruses have all the following except:
A) definite shape B) metabolism C) genes D) ability to infect host cells E) ultramicroscopic size |
B) metabolism
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Host cells of viruses include:
A) human and other animals B) plants and fungi C) bacteria D) protozoa and algae E) all of the choices are correct |
E) all of the choices are correct
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The core of every virus particle always contains:
A) DNAO B) capsomeres C) enzymes D) DNA and RNA E) either DNA or RNA |
E) either DNA or RNA
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Classification of viruses into families involves determining all the following characteristics except:
A) type of nucleic acid B) type of capsid C) presence of an envelope D) biochemical reactions E) number of strands in the nucleic acid |
D) biochemical reactions
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Virus capsids are made from subunits called:
A) envelopes B) spikes C) capsomeres D) prophages E) peplomers |
C) capsomeres
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Helical and icosahedral are terms used to describe the shapes of a virus:
A) spike B) capsomere C) envelope D) capsid E) core |
D) capsid
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Which of the following is not associated with every virus?
A) envelope B) capsomeres C) capsid D) nucleic acid E) genome |
A) envelope
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These structures are used by bacteriophages to attach to host cell receptors:
A) sheath B) tail fibers C) nucleic acid D) capsid head E) none of the choices are correct |
B) tail fibers
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T-even phages:
A) include the poxviruses B) infect Escherichia coli cells C) enter host cells by engulfment D) have helical capsids E) all of the choices are correct |
B) infect Escherichia coli cells
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The correct sequence of events in viral multiplication is:
A) penetration, replication, maturation, adsorption, assembly, release B) replication, penetration, maturation, assembly, absorption, release C) adsorption, penetration, replication, maturation, assembly, release D) assembly, maturation, replication, release, penetration, adsorption E) adsorption, release, maturation, replication, assembly penetration |
C) adsorption, penetration, replication, maturation, assembly, release
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The event that occurs in bacteriophage multiplication that does not occur in animal virus replication is:
A) adsorption to the host cells B) injection of the viral nucleic acid into the host cell C) host cell synthesis of viral enzymes and capsid proteins D) assembly of nucleocapsids E) replication of viral nucleic acid |
B) injection of the viral nucleic acid into the host cell
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Viruses acquire envelopes around their nucleocapsids during:
A) replication B) assembly C) adsorption D) release E) penetration |
D) release
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Which of the following will not support viral cultivation?
A) live lab animals B) embryonated bird eggs C) primary cell cultures D) continuous cell cultures E) blood agar |
E) blood agar
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In general, most DNA viruses multiply in the host cell's _______, while most RNA viruses multiply in the host cell's _______.
A) nucleus, cytoplasm B) cytoplasm, cell membrane C) cell membrane, cytoplasm D) cytoplasm, nucleus E) nucleus, endoplasmic reticulum |
A) nucleus, cytoplasm
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Host range is limited by:
A) type of nucleic acid in the virus B) age of the host cell C) type of host cell receptors on cell membrane D) size of the host cell E) all of the choices are correct |
C) type of host cell receptors on cell membrane
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The virus-induced, specific damage to the host cell that can be seen in a light microscope is called:
A) lysogeny B) budding C) plaques D) cytopathic effects E) pocks |
D) cytopathic effects
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Visible, clear, well-defined patches in a monolayer of virus-infected cells in a culture are called:
A) lysogeny B) budding C) plaques D) cytopathic effects E) pocks |
C) plaques
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Viral growth in bird embryos can cause discrete, opaque spots in the embryonic membranes called:
A) lysogeny B) budding C) plaques D) cytopathic effects E) pocks |
E) pocks
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Viruses that cause infection resulting in alternating periods of activity with symptoms and inactivity without symptoms are called:
A) latent B) oncogenic C) prions D) viroids E) delta agents |
A) latent
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Oncogenic viruses include all the following except:
A) hepatitis B virus B) measles virus C) papillomavirus D) HTLVI and HTLVII viruses E) Epstein-Barr virus |
B) measles virus
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Uncoating of viral nucleic acid:
A) does not occur in bacteriophage multiplication B) involves enzymatic destruction of the capsid C) occurs during penetration in the multiplication cycle D) occurs before replication E) all of the choices are correct |
E) all of the choices are correct
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Infectious protein particles are called:
A) viroids B) phages C) prions D) oncogenic viruses E) spikes |
C) prions
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Infectious naked strands of RNA are called:
A) viroids B) phages C) prions D) oncogenic viruses E) spikes |
A) viroids
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Microorganisms require large quantities of this nutrient for use in cell structure and metabolism:
A) element B) macronutrient C) water D) growth factor E) trace element |
C) water
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Microorganisms require small quantities of this nutrient for enzyme function and maintenance of protein structure:
A) element B) macronutrient C) water D) growth factor E) trace element |
E) trace element
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An organic nutrient that cannot be synthesized by the organism and must be provided is called a/an:
A) element B) macronutrient C) water D) growth factor E) trace element |
D) growth factor
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An important mineral ion of the cytochrome pigments of cellular respiration is:
A) iron B) zinc C) calcium D) magnesium E) potassium |
A) iron
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An important mineral ion that is a component of chloroplasts and stabilizer of membranes and ribosomes is:
A) iron B) zinc C) calcium D) magnesium E) potassium |
D) magnesium
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The term phototroph refers to an organism that:
A) uses CO2 for its carbon source B) must obtain organic compounds for its carbon needs C) gets energy from sunlight D) gets energy by oxidizing chemical compounds E) does not need a carbon source |
C) gets energy from sunlight
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The term autotroph refers to an organism that:
A) uses CO2 for its carbon source B) must obtain organic compounds for its carbon needs C) gets energy from sunlight D) gets energy by oxidizing chemical compounds E) does not need a carbon source |
A) uses CO2 for its carbon source
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The term heterotroph refers to an organism that:
A) uses CO2 for its carbon source B) must obtain organic compounds for its carbon needs C) gets energy from sunlight D) gets energy by oxidizing chemical compounds E) does not need a carbon source |
B) must obtain organic compounds for its carbon needs
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The term chemotroph refers to an organism that:
A) uses CO2 for its carbon source B) must obtain organic compounds for its carbon needs C) gets energy from sunlight D) gets energy by oxidizing chemical compounds E) does not need a carbon source |
D) gets energy by oxidizing chemical compounds
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The methanogens, producers of methane gas, require environments that:
A) have sunlight B) are very acidic C) have abundant oxygen and CO2 D) are extremely cold E) are anaerobic with hydrogen gas and CO2 |
E) are anaerobic with hydrogen gas and CO2
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Organisms that feed on dead organisms for nutrients are called:
A) saprobes B) parasites C) autotrophs D) lithoautotrophs E) phototrophs |
A) saprobes
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The type of photosynthesis that does not produce oxygen:
A) occurs in cyanobacteria B) does not require CO2 as a reactant C) occurs in certain bacteria D) does not require sunlight E) occurs in algae and plants |
C) occurs in certain bacteria
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The movement of molecules from an area of high concentration to an area of lower concentration is called:
A) facilitated diffusion B) diffusion C) active transport D) osmosis E) endocytosis |
B) diffusion
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Diffusion of water through a semipermeable membrane is called:
A) facilitated diffusion B) diffusion C) active transport D) osmosis E) endocytosis |
D) osmosis
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The movement of substances from lower to higher concentration across a semipermeable membrane that must have a specific protein carrier and cell expenditure of energy is called:
A) facilitated diffusion B) diffusion C) active transport D) osmosis E) endocytosis |
C) active transport
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The movement of substances from higher to lower concentration across a semipermeable membrane that must have a specific protein carrier but no energy expenditure is called:
A) facilitated diffusion B) diffusion C) active transport D) osmosis E) endocytosis |
B) diffusion
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The use of energy by a cell to enclose a substance in its membrane by forming a vacuole and engulfing it is called:
A) facilitated diffusion B) diffusion C) active transport D) osmosis E) endocytosis |
E) endocytosis
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Bacteria living in a freshwater stream that are moved to salty seawater would:
A) be in a hypotonic solution B) gain water C) be in a isotonic solution D) shrivel E) none of the choices are correct |
D) shrivel
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Which of the following microorganisms would find hypotonic conditions most detrimental?
A) bacteria B) protozoa C) fungi D) algae E) cyanobacteria |
B) protozoa
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Which of the following require the cell to use ATP?
A) facilitated diffusion B) diffusion C) endocytosis D) osmosis E) none of the choices are correct |
C) endocytosis
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Contractile vacuoles are:
A) used to expel excess water from cells B) found in bacterial cells C) important to certain organisms in hypotonic environments D) protein carriers in cell membranes E) none of the choices are correct |
A) used to expel excess water from cells
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Cultures of a bacterial species were incubated on the shelf of a refrigerator, out on a lab bench top, on the shelf of a 37 C incubator and on the shelf of a 50 C incubator. After incubation, there was no growth at 37 C and 50 C, slight growth out on the bench top, and abundant growth at refrigeration. What term could be used for this species?
A) halophile B) mesophile C) anaerobe D) psychrophile E) capnophile |
D) psychrophile
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Cultures of a bacterial species were incubated out on the incubator shelf, in an anaerobic jar and in a candle jar. After incubation there was moderate growth of cultures in the candle and anaerobic jars, but heavy growth of the culture on the incubator shelf. This species is a/an:
A) aerobe B) anaerobe C) facultative anaerobe D) microaerophile E) capnophile |
C) facultative anaerobe
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A microorganism that has an optimum growth temperature of 37 C, but can survive short exposure to high temperatures is called a/an:
A) extremophile B) thermophile C) psychrophile D) facultative psychrophile E) thermoduric |
E) thermoduric
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An organism that grows slowly in the cold but has an optimum growth temperature of 32 C is called a/an:
A) extremophile B) thermophile C) psychrophile D) facultative psychrophile E) thermoduric |
E) thermoduric
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An organism with a temperature growth range of 45 C to 60 C would be called a/an:
A) extremophile B) thermophile C) psychrophile D) facultative psychrophile E) thermoduric |
B) thermophile
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All of the following could find a location in or on body tissues suitable for growth except:
A) psychrophiles B) anaerobes C) facultative anaerobes D) mesophiles E) capnophiles |
A) psychrophiles
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A microorganism that does not have catalase or superoxide dismutase would find it difficult to live in an environment with:
A) carbon dioxide B) oxygen C) high salt D) temperatures above 37 C E) high acidity |
B) oxygen
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A microaerophile:
A) grows best in an anaerobic jar B) grows with or without oxygen C) needs normal atmospheric levels of oxygen D) requires a small amount of oxygen but won't grow at normal atmospheric levels E) none of the choices are correct |
D) requires a small amount of oxygen but won't grow at normal atmospheric levels
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A halophile would grow best in:
A) acid pools B) fresh water ponds C) hot geyser springs D) arid, desert soil E) salt lakes |
E) salt lakes
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The E. coli that normally live in the human large intestines and produce vitamin K that the body uses would be best termed a ___________ relationship.
A) parasitic B) saprobic C) commensal D) mutualistic E) none of the choices are correct |
D) mutualistic
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The time interval from parent cell to two new daughter cells is called the:
A) binary fission B) growth curve C) generation time D) death phase E) culture time |
A) binary fission
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The phase of the bacterial growth curve in which the rate of multiplication equals the rate of cell death is the:
A) lag phase B) log phase C) stationary phase D) death phase E) all of the choices are correct |
C) stationary phase
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The phase of the bacterial growth curve in which newly inoculated cells are adjusting to their new environment, metabolizing but not grown is the:
A) lag phase B) log phase C) stationary phase D) death phase E) all of the choices are correct |
A) lag phase
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In the viable plate count method, a measured sample of a culture is evenly spread across an agar surface and incubated. Each ______ represents one ____ from the sample.
A) cell, cell B) cell, colony C) colony, cell D) species, colony E) generation, cell |
C) colony, cell
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All of the chemical reactions of the cell are called:
A) catabolism B) redox reactions C) phosphorylation D) metabolism E) cellular respiration |
D) metabolism
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The breakdown of peptidoglycan to N-acetylmuramic acid, N-acetylglucosamine and peptides is an example of:
A) anabolism B) catabolism C) phosphorylation D) fermentation E) biosynthesis |
B) catabolism
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Enzymes are:
A) broken down in reactions that require energy input B) proteins that function as catalysts C) electron carrier molecules D) not needed for catabolic reactions E) all of the choices are correct |
B) proteins that function as catalysts
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Formation of peptide bonds between amino acids to build a polypeptide would be called:
A) anabolism B) phosphorylation C) fermentation D) exergonic E) glycolysis |
A) anabolism
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An apoenzyme:
A) is part of a simple enzyme B) is also called a coenzyme C) contains the active site D) is often an inorganic metal ion E) is an RNA molecule |
C) contains the active site
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A holoenzyme is a combination of a protein and one or more substances called:
A) substrates B) apoenzymes C) catalysts D) cofactors E) none of the choices are correct |
D) cofactors
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Important components of coenzymes are;
A) vitamins B) metallic ions C) active sites D) substrates E) ribozymes |
A) vitamins
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Enzymes that can function at boiling water temperatures or other harsh conditions would be termed:
A) denatured B) ribozymes C) abzymes D) exoenzymes E) extremozymes |
E) extremozymes
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Enzymes that are only produced only when substrate is present are termed:
A) exoenzymes B) endoenzymes C) constitute enzymes D) induced enzymes E) conjugated enzymes |
D) induced enzymes
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Enzymes that catalyze removing electrons from one substrate and adding electrons to another are called:
A) phosphotranferases B) oxidoreductases C) decarboxylases D) aminotransferases E) ligases |
B) oxidoreductases
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When enzyme action stops due to a buildup of end product this control is called:
A) negative feedback B) competitive inhibition C) enzyme induction D) enzyme repression E) none of the choices are correct |
A) negative feedback
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Most electron carriers are:
A) coezymes B) enzymes C) hydrogens D) inorganic phosphate E) all of the choices are correct |
A) coezymes
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Exergonic reactions:
A) include synthesis of large carbohydrates B) only occur in heterotrophs C) occur during aerobic cellular respiration D) do not occur in anaerobic cellular respiration E) occur when ADP binds to inorganic phosphate to form ATP |
C) occur during aerobic cellular respiration
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In the cell, energy released by electrons is often used to phosphorylate:
A) ATP B) ADP C) pyruvic acid D) oxygen E) NAD |
B) ADP
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In addition to electrons, which of the following is also involved in electron transfer?
A) ADP B) glucose C) carbon D) hydrogen protons E) carbon dioxide |
D) hydrogen protons
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The most likely place where an exoenzyme participates in a chemical reaction is:
A) mitochondria B) within the cell membrane C) lysosomes D) cytoplasm E) outside of the cell |
E) outside of the cell
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All of the following are exoenzymes except:
A) ATP synthase B) streptokinase C) penicillinase D) collagenase E) elastase |
A) ATP synthase
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All of the following pertain to glycolysis except:
A) occurs without oxygen B) ends with formation of pyretic acid C) occurs during fermentation D) degrades glucose to CO2 and H2O E) involves reduction of NAD |
D) degrades glucose to CO2 and H2O
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The formation of citric acid from oxaloacetic acid and an acetyl group begins:
A) glycolysis B) electron transport system C) TCA cycle D) fermentation E) oxidative phosphorylation |
C) TCA cycle
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The step involving ATP, hexokinase, and the phosphorylation of glucose to glucose-6-phosphate is:
A) the final step of the TCA cycle B) the first redox reaction of the electron transport system C) an example of oxidative phosphorylation D) an example of substrate-level phosphorylation E) an example of photophosphorylation |
D) an example of substrate-level phosphorylation
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During aerobic cellular respiration, the final electron acceptor is:
A) pyruvic acid B) oxygen C) nitrate D) cytochrome c E) FAD |
B) oxygen
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Which of the following is NOT involved in the step that occurs between glycolysis and the TCA cycle?
A) reduction of NAD B) decarboxylation of pyretic acid C) coenzyme A attaches to an acetyl group D) dehydrogenation of pyretic acid E) pyruvic acid accepts electrons from NADH |
E) pyruvic acid accepts electrons from NADH
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In bacterial cells, the electron transport system is located in the:
A) cell membrane B) mitochondria C) chloroplasts D) ribosomes E) cytoplasm |
A) cell membrane
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In which pathway is the most NADH generated?
A) electron transport system B) TCA cycle C) glycolysis D) alcoholic fermentation E) mixed acid fermentation |
B) TCA cycle
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The reactions of fermentation function to produce ___ molecules for use in glycolysis.
A) pyretic acid B) ATP C) NAD D) NADH E) glucose |
C) NAD
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During which of the phases of cellular respiration is the majority of ATP formed?
A) electron transport B) TCA cycle C) glycolysis D) processing of pyretic acid for the TCA cycle E) all phases produce the same number of ATP molecules |
A) electron transport
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In bacterial cells, when glucose is completely oxidized by all the pathways of aerobic cellular respiration, how many ATP are generated?
A) 2 ATP B) 3 ATP C) 24 ATP D) 36 ATP E) 38 ATP |
E) 38 ATP
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When glucose is broken down by glycolysis during bacterial fermentation, how many ATP are generated?
A) 2 ATP B) 3 ATP C) 24 ATP D) 36 ATP E) 38 ATP |
A) 2 ATP
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Each NADH that enters the electron transport system gives rise to ___ ATP.
A) 2 ATP B) 3 ATP C) 24 ATP D) 36 ATP E) 38 ATP |
B) 3 ATP
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As the electron transport carriers shuttle electrons, they actively pump _____________ into the outer membrane compartment setting up a concentration gradient called the proton motive force.
A) ATP B) phosphate C) hydrogen ions D) oxygen E) NADH |
C) hydrogen ions
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Mixed acid fermentation:
A) produces butyric acid B) occurs in all bacteria C) produces acids plus CO2 and H2 gases D) is seen in Streptococcus and Lactobacillus E) also produces ethanol |
C) produces acids plus CO2 and H2 gases
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Anaerobic cellular respiration:
A) is also called fermentation B) only involves glycolysis C) does not generate ATP D) utilizes an electron transport system E) uses the same final electron acceptors as aerobic respiration |
D) utilizes an electron transport system
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Acanthamoeba differs from Naegleria fowleri in that only Acanthamoeba:
A) is a free-living ameba of fresh waters B) enters typically through broken skin or the conductive C) is the cause of primary amebic meningoencephalitis D) enters through the nasal mucosa E) is acquired by swimming in contaminated water |
B) enters typically through broken skin or the conductive
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Viruses with single-stranded DNA are the:
A) Herpesviruses B) Pox viruses C) Adenoviruses D) Papovaviruses E) Parvoviruses |
E) Parvoviruses
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All of the following belong to the Herpesviridae except:
A) Varicella-zoster virus B) Cytomegalovirus C) Variola virus D) Herpes simplex viruses E) Epstein-Barr virus |
C) Variola virus
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Smallpox is a disease in which:
A) fever, prostration, rash, and possible toxemia and shock occur B) virus becomes latent in ganglia of sensory neurons C) recurrent episodes are called shingles D) can only be transmitted by direct skin contact with skin crusts E) all of the choices are correct |
A) fever, prostration, rash, and possible toxemia and shock occur
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All of the following pertain to herpes simplex-1 (HSV-1) except:
A) causes gingivostomatitis B) causes cold sores and herpes keratitis C) latent in the lumbosacral spinal nerve ganglia D) transmitted by mucous membrane contact with lesions E) causes hepatic whitlow in health-care workers |
C) latent in the lumbosacral spinal nerve ganglia
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Herpes simplex-2 (HSV-2) causes:
A) genital lesions B) intensely sensitive vesicles on or near the genitals C) symptoms that include urethritis, cervicitis, and itching D) infection in neonates that have contact with lesions in the birth canal E) all of the choices are correct |
E) all of the choices are correct
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An occasional serious complication of herpes simplex-1 is:
A) shingles B) paralysis C) encephalitis D) myocarditis E) kidney failure |
C) encephalitis
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Which of the following antivirals is not used for treatment of HSV-1 and HSV-2?
A) interferon B) valacyclovir C) acyclovir D) famciclovir E) all of the choices are correct |
A) interferon
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Chickenpox:
A) is transmitted by inhalation of respiratory secretions B) is transmitted by skin lesion contact or airborne spread of lesion material C) has an incubation of 10 to 20 days D) has fever, and vesicular rash that occurs in successive crops E) all of the choices are correct |
E) all of the choices are correct
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Herpes whitlow is a deep set herpes simplex virus infection of the:
A) nasal mucosa B) finger C) oral mucosa and tongue D) eye E) newborn |
B) finger
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Varicella-zoster virus:
A) uses the respiratory epithelium as its portal of entry B) becomes latent in dorsal root ganglia that serve specific dermatomes C) has humans as its reservoir D) causes chickenpox and shingles E) all of the choices are correct |
E) all of the choices are correct
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If a person who has never been infected with the varicella-zoster virus comes in contact with a person who has shingles, they will come down with:
A) herpes labialis B) shingles C) chickenpox D) infectious mononucleosis E) herpes keratitis |
C) chickenpox
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Epstein-Barr virus has the following characteristics except:
A) infects the respiratory epithelium B) is transmitted by direct oral contact and saliva C) multiplies and is latent in the parotid gland D) has a 30-50 day incubation E) can be transmitted by contaminated blood transfusions and organ transplants |
A) infects the respiratory epithelium
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Symptoms of infectious mononucleosis include:
A) vesicular lesions in oral mucosa B) fever, and pocks on skin C) sore throat, fever, cervical lymphadenopathy, and splenomegaly D) fever, severe diarrhea, pneumonitis, hepatitis and retinitis E) none of the choices are correct |
C) sore throat, fever, cervical lymphadenopathy, and splenomegaly
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Cytomegalovirus mononucleosis typically has fever and lymphocytosis, but in severely immunocompromised patients symptoms include:
A) vesicular lesions in oral mucosa B) fever, and pocks on skin C) sore throat, fever, cervical lymphadenopathy, and splenomegaly D) fever, severe diarrhea, pneumonitis, hepatitis and retinitis E) none of the choices are correct |
D) fever, severe diarrhea, pneumonitis, hepatitis and retinitis
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The patients at greatest risk for severe cytomegalovirus infection include all the following except:
A) diabetics B) organ transplant patients C) infants infected in uterine D) AIDS patients E) bone marrow transplant patients |
A) diabetics
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Inflammation of the liver with necrosis of the hepatocytes and swelling due to a mononuclear response is a disease called:
A) hepatitis B) jaundice C) liver cancer D) mononucleosis E) none of the choices are correct |
A) hepatitis
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Adenoviruses are:
A) nonenveloped, double-stranded, DNA viruses B) transmitted by respiratory and ocular secretions C) causes of conjunctivitis, common cold, and an acute hemorrhagic cystitis in children D) causes of outbreaks among military recruits E) all of the choices are correct |
E) all of the choices are correct
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All of the following pertain to genital warts except:
A) are not common in the United States B) are sexually transmitted C) often occur on the penis, vagina, and cervix D) includes large cauliflower-like masses called condylomata acuminata E) certain strains strongly predispose a person to cancer of the cervix or penis |
A) are not common in the United States
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Characteristics of the Orthomydoviruses include:
A) enveloped B) include paramyxoviruses C) hemagglutin spikes D) RNA genome E) neuraminidase spikes |
B) include paramyxoviruses
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The enzyme associated with the influenza virus that hydrolyzes the protective mucous coating of the respiratory tract is:
A) catalase B) reverse transcriptase C) hyaluronidase D) neuraminidase E) kinase |
D) neuraminidase
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Inhalation of respiratory secretions is involved in the transmission of the following except:
A) influenza B) rubella C) dengue fever D) mumps E) SARS |
C) dengue fever
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Symptoms of influenza include:
A) nasal discharge, mild fever, absence of cough B) fever, diarrhea, vomiting C) fever, myalgia, sore throat, cough, nasal discharge D) fever, sore throat, rash, cough E) fever and pneumonia |
C) fever, myalgia, sore throat, cough, nasal discharge
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Reye's syndrome involves:
A) aspirin use B) a febrile viral illness such as influenza or chickenpox C) fatty degeneration of liver, brain, kidney D) children, adolescents, and young adults E) all of the choices are correct |
E) all of the choices are correct
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Influenza vaccines include all the following except:
A) inactivated intramuscular vaccine B) usually incorporates three different strains C) attenuated, nasal drops vaccine D) provides lifelong immunity E) Guillain-Barre syndrome is a postvaccination neurological complication |
D) provides lifelong immunity
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Influenza infection predisposes compromised patients for acquiring:
A) cancer B) bacterial pneumonia C) common cold D) Guillain-Barre E) all of the choices are correct |
B) bacterial pneumonia
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Which is not a disease caused by arenaviruses:
A) lymphocytic choriomeningitis B) Lassa fever C) hantaviruses D) Bolivian hemorrhagic fever E) Argentine hemorrhagic fever |
C) hantaviruses
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Sin Nombre hantavirus has all the following characteristics except:
A) reservoir is human carriers B) is a zoonosis C) symptoms are abrupt fever, lung edema, respiratory distress, and hypotension D) transmitted by aerosol transmission from rodent excreta E) first U.S. outbreak occurred in 1993 in the Southwest |
A) reservoir is human carriers
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Parainfluenza virus:
A) usually infects the elderly B) is in the Orthomyxovirus family C) causes influenza D) causes croup, bronchitis, and bronchopneumonia E) all of the choices are correct |
D) causes croup, bronchitis, and bronchopneumonia
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Orchitis and epididymitis is seen in young adult males as a complication of:
A) croup B) mumps C) influenza D) measles (rubeola) E) rubella |
B) mumps
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Oral lesions called Koplik's spots are seen in patients with:
A) croup B) mumps C) influenza D) measles (rubeola) E) rubella |
D) measles (rubeola)
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This infection is marked by labored, noisy breathing and a hoarse cough:
A) croup B) mumps C) influenza D) measles (rubeola) E) rubella |
A) croup
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This febrile disease with a rash has a pathogen that can cross the placenta and cause serious fetal damage:
A) croup B) mumps C) influenza D) measles (rubeola) E) rubella |
E) rubella
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All the following pertain to measles (rubeola) except:
A) transmitted by direct contact with the rash B) humans are the only reservoir for the pathogen C) secondary bacterial otitis media and sinusitis occur D) involves a fatal complication called subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE) E) dry cough, sore throat, fever, conjunctivitis are symptoms |
A) transmitted by direct contact with the rash
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Respiratory syncytial virus (Pneumovirus):
A) causes serious disease in infants 6 months old or younger B) uses the nasopharynx as its main replication site C) can be treated with the antiviral aerosol Ribavirin D) Synagis and RSV immunoglobulin help reduce complications and hospitalization E) all of the choices are correct |
E) all of the choices are correct
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Treatment of an animal bite for possible rabies includes:
A) debridement B) wash bite with soap or detergent C) wound is infused with human rabies immune globulin (HRIG) D) postexposure vaccination with inactive vaccine E) all of the choices are correct |
E) all of the choices are correct
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Coronaviruses cause:
A) fever, rash, nasal discharge B) meningitis C) common cold D) SARS E) common cold and SARS |
E) common cold and SARS
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Encephalitis caused by arboviruses involve:
A) fever, headache, and rash B) coma, convulsions, paralysis in severe cases C) myalgia and orbital pain D) muscle aches and joint stiffness E) all of the choices are correct |
E) all of the choices are correct
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West Nile virus has the following characteristics except:
A) causes hemorrhagic fever B) is an arbovirus C) transmitted by a mosquito vector D) typically is a flu-like illness E) severe encephalitis can occur in the elderly and the compromised |
A) causes hemorrhagic fever
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Retroviruses have the following characteristics except:
A) glycoprotein spikes B) DNA genome C) enveloped D) reverse transcriptase E) viral genes integrate into the host genome |
B) DNA genome
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All of the following pertain to patients with AIDS except:
A) have an immunodeficiency B) have CD4 T-cell titers below 200 cells/mm^3 of blood C) get repeated, life-threatening opportunistic infections D) can get unusual cancers and neurological disorders E) highest number of cases worldwide is in the United States |
E) highest number of cases worldwide is in the United States
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Documented transmission of HIV involves:
A) mosquitoes B) unprotected sexual intercourse and contact with blood/blood products C) respiratory droplets D) contaminated food E) all of the choices are correct |
B) unprotected sexual intercourse and contact with blood/blood products
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All of the following pertain to HIV except:
A) attaches primarily to host cells with CD4 receptors B) viral DNA integrates into the host nucleus C) becomes latent in host cells D) ELISA and Western blot tests detect HIV antigens E) can enter into nervous tissues and cause abnormalities |
D) ELISA and Western blog tests detect HIV antigens
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Which drug/s interfere with the action of an HIV enzyme needed for final assembly and maturation of the virus?
A) reverse transcriptase inhibitors B) protease inhibitors C) fusion inhibitors D) integrate inhibitors E) all of the choices are correct |
B) protease inhibitors
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This new class of drugs will interfere with viral integration into host DNA:
A) reverse transcriptase B) protease inhibitors C) fusion inhibitors D) integrase inhibitors E) all of the choices are correct |
D) integrase inhibitors
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A frequent cancer that is seen in AIDS patients is:
A) leukemia B) Hodgkin's lymphoma C) Kaposi's sarcoma D) melanoma E) myeloma |
C) Kaposi's sarcoma
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Adult T-cell leukemia (ATL):
A) is caused by the retrovirus, HTLV II B) is an overall leukopenia but with an increased number of neoplastic B lymphocytes C) is a persistent lymphocytosis with large atypical lymphocytes that is progressive and fatal D) afflicted lymphocytes have pseudopod-like extensions E) alpha interferon is use to achieve remission |
C) is a persistent lymphocytosis with large atypical lymphocytes that is progressive and fatal
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All of the following pertain to poliomyelitis except:
A) summer outbreaks in the U.S. have been recently increasing B) transmitted primarily by fecal contaminated water C) can be asymptomatic or mild with headache, sore throat, fever, and nausea D) if virus enters the central nervous system motor, neurons can be infected and destroyed E) caused by Poliovirus (genus Enterovirus) |
A) summer outbreaks in the U.S. have been recently increasing
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The major agents responsible for the common cold are:
A) Coxsackie viruses B) Rhinoviruses C) Influenza viruses D) Caliciviruses E) Rotavirus |
B) Rhinoviruses
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The worldwide, primary viral cause of morbidity and mortality from diarrhea is:
A) Coxsackie viruses B) Rhinoviruses C) Influenza viruses D) Caliciviruses E) Rotavirus |
E) Rotavirus
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Norwalk agent is:
A) a calcivirus B) transmitted orofecally C) sometimes acquired from contaminated water and shellfish D) a common enteric virus of gastroenteritis E) all of the choices are correct |
E) all of the choices are correct
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Spongiform encephalopathies are:
A) associated with abnormal, transmissible, protein in the brain B) chronic, fatal infections of the nervous system C) caused by prions D) Creutzfeld-Jacob disease, kuru, and Gertsmann-Straussler-Scheinker syndrome E) all of the choices are correct |
E) all of the choices are correct
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