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250 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
Makes 2 cuts on either side of DNA & utilizes helicase & polymerase I to remove pyrimidine dimers
|
uvrABC
|
|
Uses UV light to cleave pyrimidine dimers (THF & FADH2 cofactors)
|
DNA photolyase
|
|
tags oldest DNA strand
|
DAM Methylase
|
|
Removes uracil produced by deamination of cytosine
|
Uracil-DNA glycosidase
|
|
mechanism turned on by autolysis of LexA repressor
|
SOS response
|
|
Increased mutation % as a result of increased protein production
|
SOS response
|
|
Catalyzes pairing of ssDNA w/ complimentary dsDNA
|
recA
|
|
coprotease for LexA
|
recA
|
|
List correct order of recBCD generation of ssDNA for recombination:
A)hits chi site & releases D B)enters at free ends C)BC unwinds DNA using 2 ATP/base pair D)ssDNA coated w/ DNA-binding protein |
bacd
|
|
Stabilizes ssDNA during replication
|
SSB protein
|
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DNA repair system utilizing Dam methylase, MutH, L, & S proteins, DNA helicase II, SSB, DNA polymerase III, Exonuclease I, & DNA ligase
|
Mismatch repair
|
|
Repair system that corrects abnormal bases, alkylated bases, & pyrimidine dimers
|
Base-excision repair
|
|
DNA repair mechanism that utilizes DNA glycosylases, AP endonucleases, DNA polymerase I, & DNA ligase
|
Base-excision repair
|
|
DNA repair mechanism that utilizes ABC excinuclease, DNA polymerase I, & DNA ligase
|
Nucleotide-excision repair
|
|
DNA repair mechanism that corrects DNA lesions that cause large structural changes (pyrimidine dimers)
|
Nucleotide-excision repair
|
|
DNA repair mechanism that utilizes DNA photolyases & O6-methyllguanine-DNA methyltransferase
|
Direct repair
|
|
DNA repair mechanism that corrects pyrimidine dimers, O6-methylguanine
|
direct repair
|
|
DNA repair mechanism that corrects errors left by polymerase III
|
Mismatch repair
|
|
8-oxoguanine DNA glycosylase-1 correlates strongly (x5-10) w/ what kind of risk?
|
cancer (both smokers & nonsmokers)
|
|
Why does DNA have Thymine instead of Uracil?
|
It would be impossible to distinguish uracil from deaminated cytosine
|
|
DNA repair mechanism lacking in xeroderma pigmentosa patients
|
nucleotide excision repair
|
|
condition with skin lesions, cancer, photosensitivity (allergy to light)
|
xeroderma pigmentosa
|
|
DNA absorbs light at a wavelength of:
|
260 nm
|
|
activated when RNA polymerase stops at a deformity, which recruits excision repair enzymes
|
Transcription Coupled Repair (TCR)
|
|
gene for susceptibility to breast and ovarian cancer
|
BRCA1
|
|
responsible for accumulation of mutations causing a large proportion of breast and ovarian cancers
|
BRCA1-altered TCR
|
|
inhibits recombination when mismatches are high, inducing apoptosis
|
P53
|
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type of recombination that occurs mostly during meiosis (eukaryotes) and conjugation (prokaryotes)
|
homologous recombination
|
|
type of recombination that doesn't change the order of genes but determines which alleles will be linked.
|
homologous
|
|
List in order the steps of the Holliday model
|
1-homologous DNA are alligned
2-breaking of strands for crossing-over 3-heteroduplex DNA extended by branch migration 4-two strands of intermediate are cleaved, gaps are filled |
|
catalyzes strand assimilation reaction (forms d-loop) at the expense of ATP
|
recA
|
|
hydrolyzes ATP and unwinds dsDNA for ssDNA production
|
recB
|
|
nuclease that recognizes a chi site
|
RecD
|
|
resolvase that cuts the holliday intermediate in one or the other plane
|
RuvC
|
|
produced by the process of recombination
|
multimers & concatemers
|
|
type of recombination used by bacteriophage λ integration
|
site-specific recombination
|
|
Diversity of genes depends on communication between. . .
|
antibodies
|
|
Serve to inactivate antibiotics, metabolize natural products, and produce toxins
|
Plasmids
|
|
Encodes conjugation function, found in male bacteria
|
F-factor plasmid
|
|
Resistant Transfer Factors (RTF)
|
R-factor plasmids
|
|
upon integration they duplicate recipient DNA (not inverted)
|
Transposons (jumping genes)
|
|
coded by transposons and makes staggered cuts in DNA
|
transposase
|
|
A double-stranded nucleic acid that exhibits semiconservative replication has heavy nitrogen at all positions. After heavy nitrogen source is taken away, the strand is replicated through 3 generations. what is the composition of the strands?
|
7 strands with no N14, 1 strand with half N14 (12.5%)
|
|
Enzyme that unwinds the DNA strands at the growing replication fork
|
DNA helicase
|
|
Relaxes tension in DNA by breaking one strand, unwinding it, and then ligating it. Alters DNA by a single linking number
|
Topoisomerase I
|
|
Relaxes tension in DNA by breaking both strands, unwinding them, and then ligating them. Changes the linking number in steps of 2
|
Topoisomerase II
|
|
Generates negative supercoils (requires ATP) in E.coli as well as relaxes the tension associated with helicase activity
|
DNA gyrase
|
|
Prevent DNA strands from reforming their base pairs after helicase passes until the polymerase synthesizes the new strand.
|
SSB proteins
|
|
Measure of level of supercoiling in DNA=
Linking number of completely relaxed = |
=Linking number
=0 |
|
103 kDa, 3'-5' exonuclease, 5'-3' exonuclease, processes 200 nucleotides, functions in replication & repair
|
DNA polymerase I
|
|
88 kDa, 3'-5' exonuclease, processes 10000 nucleotides at a rate of 10 bases/sec, functions in DNA repair
|
DNA polymerase II
|
|
900 kDa, 3'-5' exonuclease, processes 500000+ nucleotides at a rate of 1000 bases/sec, functions in DNA replication
|
DNA Polymerase III
|
|
Located in eukaryotic nucleus, has exonuclease, functions in replication, primase complex
|
DNA polymerase α
|
|
Specific change in DNA nucleotide sequence
|
mutation
|
|
Located in eukaryotic nucleus, doesn't have exonuclease, functions in replication and repair
|
DNA Polymerase β
|
|
Located in eukaryotic mitochondria, has exonuclease, functions in replication and repair
|
DNA Polymerase γ
|
|
Located in eukaryotic nucleus, has exonuclease, functions in replication and repair
|
DNA Polymerase δ
|
|
Generates the primer in the initiation complex, resulting in an RNA-DNA hybrid
|
Primase
|
|
Enzyme that joins 3' OH to a 5' phosphate to restore integrity of DNA strands
|
Ligase
|
|
Strand that appears to move 3' to 5', but actually moves 5'-3' creating Okasaki fragments
|
Lagging Strand
|
|
DNA replicates in what phase of the cell cycle
|
Synthesis phase
|
|
Primers needed for leading strand=
Primers needed for the lagging strand= |
=1
=many |
|
E.coli replication constituent=SSB
Eukaryotic replication constituent= |
RPA
|
|
E.coli replication constituent=primase
Eukaryotic replication constituent= |
primase/polymerase α
|
|
E.coli enzyme that removes primer=Pol I/RNase II
Eukaryotic enzyme that removes primer= |
MFI/RNase II
|
|
Process in which mutations manifest
|
mutagenesis
|
|
Organism altered by mutation
|
mutant
|
|
Single mutation at a single base site (actually two after replication)
|
Point mutation
|
|
mutation that results in an amino acid change; a change in the codon triplet that is unmasked by degeneracy
|
Missense
|
|
Mutation that changes an amino acid codon triplet into a stop codon
|
Nonsense
|
|
Mutation in which one or more nucleotides are deleted
|
Deletion
|
|
Mutation in which one or more nucleotides are inserted
|
Insertion
|
|
Point or missense mutation that is silent except under certain conditions
|
conditional mutation
|
|
mutation that permits the phenotype of the mutant to revert back to the wild-type
|
reversion
|
|
One purine is changed to the other or one pyrimidine is changed to the other
|
transition
|
|
A purine is substituted for a pyrimidine or vice versa
|
transversion
|
|
Mutation seen in sickle cell anemia
|
point mutation (Glutamate switched to
Valine) |
|
Mutation seen in Marfan's syndrome
|
Point mutations in the fibrillin gene (FBN1)
|
|
autosomal dominant disorder affecting fibrous connective tissue (FBN1 gene)
|
Marfan's syndrome
|
|
Change in the register in which amino acid sequence is read
|
frameshift
|
|
mutations that occur in non-gamete cells (not inherited)
|
somatic
|
|
mutations that occur in gametes (inheritable)
|
germinal
|
|
test for detection and classification of mutagens and carcinogens
|
Ames test
|
|
In an Ames test, S. typhimurium supplemented with histidine is cultured. Plates A and B are given a possible carcinogen. Plate C is a control. Plate A shows growth of colonies. Is the substance carcinogenic?
|
Yes
|
|
First predictor of longevity=
Second predictor of longevity= |
=DNA repair capacity
=Immunological capacity |
|
uvrABC removes pyrimidine dimers by making two cuts; ___ nucleotides from the 5' end and ___ nucleotides from the 3' end
|
=8
=4 |
|
=Removal of pyrimidine dimers
=defective DNA displacement =patch (two enzymes) |
=uvrABC
=helicase =Polymerase I & Ligase |
|
Enzyme that uses UV light to cleave pyrimidine dimers (uses THF & FADH2 cofactors)
|
Photolyase
|
|
enzyme that methylates the oldest DNA strand
|
Dam methylase
|
|
consequence of the action of Dam methylase
|
old strand recognized by Mut H & S; new strand is repaired
|
|
Enzymes that recognize methylated strands of DNA
|
Mut H & S
|
|
Nucleoside produced by cytosine deamination
|
Uracil
|
|
Enzyme that removes uracil produced by deamination of cytosine via glycosidic bond-cleavage
|
Uracil-DNA glycosidase
|
|
Process by which a cell deems it more necessary to stay alive than to prevent mutation
|
SOS response
|
|
Enzyme that represses SOS response
|
LexA
|
|
Recogize 4,6,or 8 base-pair palindromes
|
Restriction Enzymes
|
|
Sequence with bilateral symmetry (read the same 3'-5' as 5'-3')
|
Palindrome
|
|
Source of restriction enzymes
|
Prokaryotes
|
|
Limits foreign DNA integration into cells, made from restriction endonuclease & Dam methylase
|
Restriction enzymes
|
|
Copy sections of DNA, then inserts desired gene
|
Vectors
|
|
Monitors extent of DNA damage in humans and induces apoptosis (inhibits recombination) if there is too much mismatch
|
p53
|
|
Technique for separating DNA fragments by size
|
Electrophoresis
|
|
In electrophoresis, phosphate groups move toward what?
|
anode (+)
|
|
State of plasmid that replicates independently of the chromosome
|
relaxed
|
|
State of plasmid that replicates only when the chromosome does
|
stringent
|
|
_____ plasmids produce continuously (high copy number)
|
Relaxed
|
|
Vectors that provide larger fragments (~20kb) and more efficient delivery to the host
|
viral vectors
|
|
Vectors (~1mb) that contain Autonomously Replicating Sequences (ARS), Centromeres, Telomeres, Selectable markers, and a MCS
|
Yeast Artificial Chromosomes (YACs)
|
|
Vectors that provide larger fragments (~20kb) and more efficient delivery to the host
|
viral vectors
|
|
Chromosome digested with restriction enzymes & ligated with a plasmid, so each vector will have only one piece. The genome is represented by many pieces each in a different cell
|
Genomic Library
|
|
Enzyme that mRNA converted to dsDNA in order to assemble a cDNA library
|
Reverse Transcriptase
|
|
Formed when products of Reverse Transcriptase are cloned into vectors, displaying only expressed sequences of genes
|
cDNA library
|
|
Central dogma of molecular biology
|
DNA ->(Trasncription)->RNA->(Translation)->Protein
|
|
=nondiscriminatory (copies everything)
=selective transcription (certain genome parts) |
DNA replication=
RNA replication= |
|
Two functions of DNA in prokaryotes=
|
=structural information (genes)
=regulatory signals (promoters, terminators, etc.) |
|
Requirements for RNA polymerases
|
-DNA template
-4 ribonucleotide triphosphates -divalent cations (Mg++) |
|
Three required steps for RNA synthesis
|
-initiation
-elongation -termination |
|
step in which RNAP finds a promoter & unwinds DNA (most regulated step)
|
initiation
|
|
=site of eukaryotic transcription
|
nucleus
|
|
=site of eukaryotic translation
|
cytoplasm
|
|
Primary sigma factor for most genes (housekeeping)
|
70
|
|
Sigma factor involved in transcribing nitrogen-regulated genes
|
54
|
|
Sigma factor responsible for heat shock genes
|
32
|
|
stationary phase Sigma factor
|
38
|
|
Sigma factor that regulates expression of flagellar genes
|
28
|
|
Unique polymerase in that it can initiate de novo synthesis (no primer required, but it needs a promoter)
|
RNAP
|
|
Makes only ribosomal RNA and actually synthesizes a long preribosomal rRNA transcript that is a precursor for the 18S, 5.8S, and 28S rRNAs (Eukaryotic)
|
RNAP I
|
|
does most of the work associated with transcription; makes all mRNA (Eukaryotic)
|
RNAP II
|
|
makes all tRNAs and the 5S rRNA (Eukaryotic)
|
RNAP III
|
|
Regulatory element located outside the promoter that decrease higher-order DNA structure (chromatin)
|
Enhancer
|
|
Transcription factor that can be cut out & spliced in somewhere else without functional loss
|
enhancer
|
|
Step that most transcription factors operate
|
Initiation
|
|
Serve to increase higher order DNA structure (chromatin)
|
silencers
|
|
___________ acetylate histones (loosen chromatin)
___________ de-acetylate histones (tighten chromatin) |
=activators
=repressors |
|
tightly controlled genes in E.coli to be "on" only when lactose is present
|
lac operon
|
|
states of lac operon:
=glucose present, lactose absent =glucose present, lactose present =glucose absent, lactose present |
lac operon "off"=
lac operon "on"= lac operon "highly on"= |
|
set of genes in tandem that are regulated by a single promoter
|
operon
|
|
Site bound by repressor to prevent transcription
|
operator
|
|
small molecule that relieves repression allowing RNAP access to the promoter
|
inducer
|
|
required to turn lac operon "highly on" by activation
|
CAP (catabolite activator protein) or
CRP (cAMP receptor protein) |
|
HIV-1 promoter
|
LTR
|
|
protein RNAP I binds to in Termination
|
Reb1p
|
|
termination that involves only an interaction between RNA and RNAP
|
rho independent (intrinsic)
|
|
Pause site hit by hairpin loop that signals termination is rich in what base pair?
|
AU
|
|
forms a hexamer that binds to RNA at a hairpin pause structure; moves along RNA and unwinds RNA-DNA duplex to terminate transcription
|
rho
|
|
contains a 5' cap structure and a 3' poly A tail
|
mRNA
|
|
consists of methylated guanine triphosphate attached to the OH group on the ribose at the 5' end of mRNA
|
cap
|
|
200 adenine nucleotides attached to 3' OH end of mRNA
|
poly A tail
|
|
associate with proteins to form ribosomes
|
rRNA
|
|
16S, 23S, and 5S rRNA is derived from __________, while 18S, 28S, 5S, and 5.8S rRNA is derived from ___________.
|
=Prokaryotic
=Eukaryotic |
|
cloverleaf strux, contains modified nucleotides including thymine
|
tRNA
|
|
The primary tRNA transcript is shortened at both ends via
|
cleavage
|
|
_____ cleaves 5' end of tRNA
_____ cleaves 3' end of tRNA (both ribozymes) |
=RNase P
=RNase D |
|
sequence at 3' end of tRNA that binds the amino acid
|
CCA
|
|
adds CCA to 3' end of tRNA after RNaseD cleavage
|
terminal deoxytransferase (nucleotidyl transferase)
|
|
___________ have operons
___________ have introns and exons |
=prokaryotes
=eukaryotes |
|
type of RNA processing that differs between prokaryotes & eukaryotes
|
mRNA
|
|
prevents mRNA degradation & allows translation; linked by 5'-5' triphosphate
|
5' cap
|
|
enzymes required for 5' cap addition:
|
1- phosphohydrolase (P cleavage)
2- guanylyltransferase (5'-5' phosphate attack using GTP) 3- guanine-7 methyltransferase (protects 5' end) 4- 2'-O-methyltransferase (unique to RNA) |
|
process by which introns are removed and exons are linked to encode a functional polypeptide
|
splicing
|
|
Self-splicing introns=
Spliced via lariat structure= |
=Groups 1 & 2
=Group 3 |
|
RNA-protein complexes contain ______ made by RNAP III that enable lariat structure formation
|
small nuclear RNAs (snRNAs or Snurps)
|
|
The lariat structure is created when the _____ end of ribose attacks the phosphodiester bond at the ______ forming a covalent link
Finally, the ______ nucleophilically cleaves the intron. |
=2' OH
=5' cleavage site =3' OH (on severed 5' exon) |
|
allows for diversity of structure and function without duplication of genes, depending on environmental need
|
alternative splicing
|
|
function of the poly A tail=
|
protection and translatability
|
|
three steps of polyadenylation=
|
1-precursor RNA cleavage via
polyadenylation signal 2-poly A tail addition via poly A polymerase 3-unneeded 3' end material is degraded |
|
genetic code:
____ bases ____ possible codons ____ reading frame ____ reading direction |
=4
=64 =3 bases/amino acid =5'-3', N-C |
|
Start codon=
|
=AUG (codes for methionine)
|
|
define degeneracy.
|
the genetic code has more than one codon for each amino acid, differing in only the third base
|
|
Stop codons=
|
UGA
UAA UAG |
|
Steps of translation=
|
=Activation, Initiation, Elongation, Termination
|
|
=synthesis of aminoacyl-tRNAs
|
Activation
|
|
=assembly of mRNA and initiator aminoacyl-tRNA on the ribosome
|
=initiation
|
|
=Synthesis of peptide bonds in RNA translation
|
Elongation=
|
|
=Release of newly synthesized peptide bonds and disassembly of translation apparatus
|
termination
|
|
set by the start codon (AUG)
|
reading frame
|
|
allows one tRNA to translate more than one codon
|
wobble
|
|
wobble pairing:
U= G= I= |
U=A or G
G=C or U I=A, C, or U |
|
E.coli ribosomes consist of __ and __.
Eukaryotic ribosomal subunits are ___ and ____. |
E.coli=50S and 30S (70S)
Eukaryotes=60S and 40S (80S) |
|
measure of how rapidly ribosomal subunit migrates in an ultracentrifuge (dimensions of size & shape)
|
Svedburg units
|
|
Site of protein synthesis
|
Ribosome
|
|
Activated intermediate for protein synthesis
|
Aminoacyl-tRNA
|
|
control gene expression by blocking mRNA
|
RNAmi or RNAi
|
|
Unravels and seeks out mRNA to cleave at the attachment site
|
RNAmi or RNAi
|
|
Main problem of RNAi in treatment of disease
|
delivery
|
|
site of activation reaction
|
cytosol (not on ribosome)
|
|
tRNAs which have different sequences but carry the same amino acid
|
isoaccepting tRNAs
|
|
only tRNA recognized by eIF-2
|
tRNAi(Met)
|
|
When a methionine residue is to be located anywhere in a protein other than the N-terminus, it is brought to the ribosome by:
|
tRNAm(Met)
|
|
Euk. Prok.
1st AA= IF= Ribosomes= |
Euk. Prok.
1st AA=Met Formyl Met IF=12 3 Ribosomes=80S 70S |
|
Aminoacyl-tRNAs are brought to the ribosome as a _________with GTP and the elongation factor eEF-1
|
ternary complex
|
|
Incoming aminoacyl-tRNA base pairs its anticodon with mRNA codon located in the ___ site of the ribosome
|
A
|
|
Elongation steps=
|
1-binding (A site)
2-translocation (A->P; mRNA movement) |
|
catalyzes formation of peptide bond
|
peptidyl transferase
|
|
occurs when stop codon moves into the A site
|
termination
|
|
recognizes stop codons and triggers the hydrolysis of newly sythesized protein from tRNA at the P site
|
Release factor
|
|
complex that translates mRNA by several ribosomes at the same time
|
polysome
|
|
binds the small ribosomal subunit and causes incorrect anticodon-codon pairing
|
streptomycin
|
|
blocks the A site
|
tetracycline
|
|
inhibits peptidyl transferase (also affects mitochondria)
|
chloramphenicol
|
|
causes premature termination of translation
|
puromycin
|
|
inhibits EF-2 (translocation) via ADP-ribosylation
|
Diptheria toxin
|
|
activated under conditions of low heme levels in order to prevent protein synthesis
|
heme-regulated inhibitor (HRI)
|
|
Kinase phosphorylates (with ATP) the ___ inhibiting protein synthesis
|
eIF-2-GDP complex
(inhibits formation of eIF-2-GTP) |
|
mutation in exon 11 of the gene for the α-chain of β-hexoaminidase A
|
Tay-Sachs
|
|
Part of tRNA that reacts w/ mRNA
|
anticodon loop
|
|
Energy Requirements for AA synthesis:
__ Activation __ Initiation __ Elongation __ Termination |
1 ATP/AA for Activation
1 ATP(E) & 1 GTP(P) for Initiation [(# of AA-1)*2] GTP for Elongation 1 GTP for Termination for 100 AA, 200 GTP, 100 ATP (P), 101 ATP(E) |
|
The difference between SER & RER
|
RER has ribosomes
|
|
Oligosaccharides added to the amide N of an Asp residue
|
N-linked oligosaccharides
|
|
oligosaccharide attached to the O of a Ser or Thr residue
|
O-linked oligosaccharide
|
|
What type of oligosaccharide are mucus proteins?
|
O-linked
|
|
What type of oligosaccharides are Blood serum proteins?
|
N-linked
|
|
The core of all N-linked oligosaccharides consists of--
|
2 glcNAc and 3 Man residues
|
|
A core oligosaccharide is derived from what lipid-linked oligosaccharide intermediate?
|
dolichol phosphate
|
|
The 14-hexose precursor of N-linked oligosaccharides is assembled on the dolichol phosphate starting with the transfer of glcNAc-1-phosphate from --
|
UDP-glcNAc (cytosolic side of ER membrane)
|
|
After the target sequence has been translocated into the lumen of the ER, the N-linked oligosaccharide precursor is transferred where?
|
Asn residue part of the sequence Asn-X-Ser or Asn-X-Thr
|
|
Dolichol-P + 2 UDP-GlcNAc------>UMP + UDP + Dolichol-PP-2GlcNAc is inhibited by what antibiotic? (first step of N-linked synthesis)
|
tunicamycin
|
|
Translocation of N-linked oligosaccharide intermediates occurs at which step?
|
3
|
|
signal that the protein is ready for transfer to the Golgi
|
removal of 3 glc and 1 man while glycoprotein is still in the ER
|
|
GalNAc transfer to a Ser or Thr residue from UDP-GalNAc takes place in what type of synthesis?
|
O-linked oligosaccharide
|
|
Most secreted proteins and membrane proteins are of what type?
|
glycoproteins
|
|
What sugar do glycoproteins never have?
|
Glc
|
|
Targeting sequence for the ER membrane
|
LysAspGluLeu
|
|
Targeting sequence to send proteins to mitochondria
|
N-terminal sequence
|
|
Targeting sequence to send proteins to nucleus
|
Basic amino acid rich
|
|
Targeting sequence to send proteins to lysosome
|
Man-6-P
|
|
Targeting sequence to send proteins to peroxisome
|
Carboxyl terminal SerLysPhe
|
|
The process by which proteins enter cells from the blood
|
endocytosis
|
|
Protein that coats transferin-filled vesicles
|
clathrin
|
|
reacts with a specific receptor and becomes incorporated into endosomes that deliver iron to ferritin
|
transferin
|
|
protein that stores iron in the cell
|
ferritin
|
|
determines the half-life of cytosolic proteins
|
amino-terminal residues
|
|
binds with protein, then binds with lysine residues to form an isopeptide linkage for degradation
|
ubiquitin
|
|
contain tryptic and chromotryptic-like proteases for degradation
|
proteosomes
|
|
type of linkage of salivary mucin
|
O-linkage
|
|
Sialic acid (NANA) attaches to what part of oligosaccharides?
|
terminal
|
|
dictates the structure of glycoproteins
|
transferase
|
|
target of transferase in protein glycosylation
|
nucleated sugar
|
|
site of completion of modifications to N-linked oligosaccharides
|
Golgi
|
|
Linkage of blood group glycoproteins to cells
|
O-linked to Ser
|
|
Terminal linkage of H blood group antigen
|
Fucose (alpha 1,2)
O- |
|
Terminal linkage of A blood group antigen
|
GalNAc, Fuc (alpha 1,3)
|
|
Terminal linkage of B blood group antigen
|
Gal, Fuc (alpha 1, 3)
|
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Phenotype:O
Genotype: Reacts with antibodies: Antibodies: |
Phenotype: O
Genotype: O/O Reacts with antibodies: none Antibodies: anti-A, anti-B |
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Phenotype: O
Genotype: Reacts with antibodies: Antibodies: |
Phenotype: O
Genotype: O/O Reacts with antibodies: none Antibodies: anti-A, anti-B |
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Phenotype: A
Genotype: Reacts with antibodies: Antibodies: |
Phenotype: A
Genotype: A/A, A/O Reacts with antibodies: ANTI-A Antibodies: anti-B |
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Phenotype: B
Genotype: Reacts with antibodies: Antibodies: |
Phenotype: B
Genotype: B/B, B/O Reacts with antibodies: ANTI-B Antibodies: anti-A |
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Phenotype: AB
Genotype: Reacts with antibodies: Antibodies: |
Phenotype: AB
Genotype: A/B Reacts with antibodies: ANTI-A, ANTI-B Antibodies: NONE (universal acceptor) |
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signal for golgi to send glycoproteins to vesicles
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Man-6-P
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enzyme defect in I-cell disease
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GlcNAc transferase
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