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172 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
This chart shows the DRIs. What are they and what do they assess?
EAR - Estimated average requirement (50% of measured requirements)
RDA - recommended dietary allowance (~2 SD > mean)
UL - upper limit before adverse effects are seen

Individuals: RDA and UL
Groups: EAR and variability
Nutrients in bread, cereal, rice, pasta group? (8)
Complex carbohydrates, dietary fiber, calories, niacin, thiamin, folate, B6, Mg
Nutrients in vegetables and fruits? (9)
Complex carbohydrates, dietary fiber, vitamins A and C, folate, thiamin, riboflavin, Mg, Mn
Nutrients in milk and dairy? (10)
Protein, Ca, P, vitamins A, D, and B6, thiamin, riboflavin, B12, Zn
Nutrients in meat and beans group? (9)

("Chicks with dicks" = chicken nuggets + hot dogs)
Protein, riboflavin, thiamin, niacin, vitamins B12 and B6, Fe, Zn, Cu (cholesterol and fat/complex CHO)
Nutrients in fats, oils, and sweets group? (2)
Essential fatty acids (EFAs), calories (satiety, flavor, texture, appetite appeal)
Calorie level needed for many women and older adults?
~1600 kcal
Calorie level needed for children, teen girls, active women, and most men?
~2200 kcal
Calorie level needed for teen boys and active men?
~2800 kcal
% daily intake of calories from carbohydrates?
60-65%
% daily intake of calories from fat?
20-25%
% daily intake of calories from saturated fat?
7-10%
% daily intake of calories from protein?
12-15%
Recommended daily intake of sodium?
2.4-3.0 g

(1 tbsp of soy sauce is 920 mg of sodium)
Recommended daily intake of cholesterol?

(El Nino = Ground beef, sauteed onions, sour cream, lettuce, tomato and cheddar cheese wrapped in a large pepperoni pizza, totaling three pounds.)
<300 mg
Activity recommendations for adults wishing to:
1. Reduce risk of chronic disease?
2. Manage body weight and prevent gradual unhealthy body weight gain?
3. Sustain weight loss?
1. 30 min moderate-intense physical activity on most days
2. 60 min moderate to vigorous activity on most days
3. 60-90 min moderate activity while not exceeding caloric intake requirements
Physical activity recommendations for:
1. Children?
2. Pregnant women?
3. Breastfeeding women?
4. Older adults?
1. at least 60 min most/all days
2. at least 30 min moderate activity most/all days
3. Acute or regular activity has no adverse effect
4. Regular activity reduces functional declines
Food labels: Overall daily values based on daily intake of _______ kcal.

(Bacon wrapped pigs in a blanket wrapped in bacon)
2000 kcal

There are 490 cal/ bacon wrapped pig in a blanket wrapped in bacon, so you can have 4 and still be safe :)
Reference daily intake is?
The highest RDA of all age and sex groups over 2 (not pregnant or lactating women).
On nutrition facts, what four vitamins and minerals are included?
Vitamin A and C, calcium, and iron
What is the difference between primary and secondary nutrient deficiency/excess?
Primary is due to diet, whereas secondary is due to a pathological problem.
What is the energy store in adipose tissue (lipids)?

(Pictured is "The Sex Panther")
9 kcal/gm
What is the energy store in carbohydrates?
4 kcal/gm
What is the energy store in proteins?
4 kcal/gm
What is the difference between hyperplastic and hypertrophic obesity?
Hypertrophic (increased cell size to max 0.7 micrograms) occurs in mild adult onset obesity. Hyperplastic obesity (increased number of adipocytes) starts in childhood or adolescence and is harder to manage.
What is the difference between subcutaneous and visceral adipocytes?

-The fat removed in liposuction procedures is subcutaneous fat.
Subcutaneous are smaller and pick-up/release FFA to general circulation. Visceral are larger, more sensitive to adrenergic stimulation, have higher metabolic activity, and release FFA to portal vein.
Which type of adipose is more closely related to risk of HTN, CVD, hyperinsulinemia, and DM? Why?
Visceral adipose tissue: more direct effect on liver metabolism.
Body fat can be assessed by
1. Underwater weighing
2. Dual energy x-ray absorptiometry
3. Skinfold thickness
4. Bioelectric resistance
5. BMI
6. IBW
7. Regional fat distribution (Waist/Hip ratio; Waist circumference)

What are some advantages and disadvantages of the techniques?
Underwater weighing and dual energy x-ray absorptiometry - most direct estimates; cannot be done in clinical offices/hospitals and are expensive.

Skinfold thickness and bioelectric resistance are indirect estimates that require special equipment and training and can be done in the office.

BMI or IBW are the most often used. The data uses mid 20s as the standard for all adults. People with decreased or increased lean body mass will have inaccurate measures.

Regional fat distribution - quick measure
BMI:
1. How is it calculated?
2. What are the BMI values of:
a) average
b) overweight
c) obese
d) medically significant obesity
e) morbidly obese
d) super obese
BMI = weight (in kg) / height (in m⁲)
<25 = average
25-29 = overweight
30-34 = obese
35-44 = med. significant O
45-49 = morbidly obese
>50 = super obese
How is IBW calculated for men and women?
Women: IBW = 100 lbs for 5' in height + 5 lbs for each additional inch

Men: IBW = 106 lbs for 5' in height + 6 lbs for each additional inch
Regional fat distribution:
1. What ratios are "pear shaped" for men and women?
2. What ratios are "apple shaped" for men and women?
3. What are the healthy waist circumference values for men and women?
1. Pear: lower body obesity (increased subcutaneous fat; common in women) - waist/hip ratio <0.8 for females; <1.0 for males
2. Apple: upper body obesity (greater increase in visceral fat) - waist/hip ratio >0.8 for females; >1.0 for males.
3. >40" in men; >35"
Neuroendocrine disorder associated with obesity.

Early symptoms:
Body weakness, getting too tired easily, or having muscle or joint pains.
Dry, flaky skin or thin and brittle fingernails or hair.
Feeling depressed, irritable, or anxious.
Feeling too cold when the temperature is just right or normal for everyone else.
Heavy or irregular menstruation (monthly period).

Late symptoms:
Constipation (dry, hard bowel movements).
Enlarged thyroid gland.
Hoarseness or change in voice or speech.
Sleepiness or problems thinking clearly, such as being forgetful and easily confused.
Swelling around the eyes.
Too much and too sudden weight gain.
Very slow heartbeat and trouble breathing.
Hypothyroidism

(Before and after treatment with TSH)
Patient presented with a fatty hump between his shoulders, a rounded face, and pink/purple stretch marks on his skin, as well as high blood pressure, bone loss and diabetes. What neuroendocrine disorder caused his obesity?
Cushing's syndrome: Due to excess cortisol (iatrogenic, paraneoplastic, pheochromocytoma)
The fat, bearded lady at the circus presents with:
Oligomenorrhea or amenorrhea
Anovulation
Weight gain, obesity
Hirsutism
Insulin resistance
Acne
Male-pattern baldness
Multiple small ovarian cysts on sonogram
Acanthosis nigrican

What disease caused her obesity?
Polycystic ovary syndrome
Short-term regulators of hunger and satiety: neural mediators of the cephalic phase (7)
CCK, pancreatic glucagon, insulin, bombesin, somatostatin, glucagon-like peptide, ghrelin
Long-term regulators of weight maintenance and energy expenditure centered in the CNS:
1) Inhibitors of intake/stimulators of activity (4)
2) Stimulators of intake: (3)
1) leptin, serotonin, bombesin, glucagons
2. neuropeptide Y, galanin, opioids
Genes involved in obesity:
ob gene
leptin gene
leptin receptor gene

Congenital leptin deficiency: before and after treatment
Risk of obesity in offspring:
1. lean x lean
2. lean x obese
3. obese x obese
1. 10%
2. 41-50%
3. 66-80%
Neuroendocrine causes of obesity (<1% of obese population)

-8 causes listed
Hypothyroidism, Cushing's syndrome, castration and ovarian failure (PCOS), insulinoma, hypothalamic lesions, and, much rarer Prader-Willi, Frohlich's and Laurence-Moon-Biedl Syndromes

-This baby has obesity and hypotonia, as are seen in Prader-Willi syndrome.
T/F: Energy metabolism abnormalities have been supported as a cause of obesity.
False: There is variability in basal metabolic rate and thermic expenditure, however the correlation with obesity is inconsistent.
T/F: Average fat and energy intake has decreased since 1970, while rate of obesity has risen.
True - reduction in physical activity may be the cause of increased obesity.
Environmental factor influences on obesity include (list 3)

- This is the Guinness Book of World Records Largest Burger
1. Variety of foods available
2. Easier access to foods
3. Increased package and portion size
Three habits, beliefs, and attitudes that affect diet and nutrition are:
1. Belief about the appropriateness of food (not biological need)
2. Habitual timing of meals (set by custom starting 6 mo of age)
3. Pleasure - sensory aspects of food
T/F: Mortality (in the absence of co-morbid conditions) is due more to obesity than to sedentary lifestyle.
False: Moderately overweight but otherwise healthy individuals who are fit have lower risk than unfit, lean persons.
Obesity is a risk factor for surgery are due to retarded rate of healing. In excessive obesity this may be caused by... (2)
Metabolic inertness of adipose tissue
Excess mass of tissue
T/F: Effectiveness of caloric restriction in diet is independent of food source (i.e. protein, carbohydrate, fats)
True
Adipose tissue is approximately ______ kcal/lb.
3500 kcal
How will the body respond to a diet with inadequate amounts of glucose intake?
Gluconeogenesis will be initiated and cause breakdown of lean mass.
How is it possible that very-low-calorie diets (i.e. protein-sparing modified fasts) result in significant initial weight loss? What are the risks of such diets?
There is a loss of lean mass in order to make adequate energy. Loss of lean mass, which is 73% water, and risk of cardiac arrhythmias are hazards of starvation and water fasting diets.
T/F: Exercise, in conjunction with reduced caloric diets, has no effect on weight lost as fat-free mass (FFM).
False: exercise decreases loss of lean tissue during diet
T/F: In critical illness, decreased body weight is mostly due to loss in water and muscle (not fat).
True
Anorectics (fluoxetine, sertraline, phenteramine, diethylpropion, phenylpropanolamine, and sibutramine)

What are their effects on neurotransmitters? (3)
What side effects do they have? (6)
Mechanism: Increase brain levels of serotonin, norepinephrine, and dopamine.

Side effects: tachycardia, hypertension, xerostomia, headache, insomnia, and constipation

Continued use is required to sustain weight loss
Surgical procedures for obesity treatment:

Indications:
Procedures:
Criteria for surgical procedures include:
1) severely obese (>100 lbs or 100% above IBW) for at least 3 years
2) serious medical conditions related to obesity
3) repeated failed attempts at weight loss

Procedures include:
1. Gastric reduction to 100cc
2. Esophageal banding
How does Orlistat work?
Indications (BMI)?
Side effects on GI function and nutrient absorption?
Orlistat (pentanoic acid ester) is a gastric and pancreatic lipase inhibitor that reduces fat absorption by about 30%.

It is indicated for patients with BMI of 30 or more or BMI >27 with other risk factors.

Side effects include oily spotting, flatulence, fecal urgency and increased defecation, decreased absorption of fat-soluble vitamins, beta-carotene, and carotenoids.
Vitamin B12 (hydroxycobalamin, cyanocobalamin) is a _________ soluble vitamin that is synthesized by _________. It is detached from dietary proteins by _________ in the saliva and _________ in the stomach, and _________ in the intestine.
Water
Bacteria
R protein
Gastric acid
Proteases
Intrinsic factor is secreted by ________ cells in the _______, which promotes vitamin B12 absorption in the _________ by a specific receptor. It is transported to peripheral cells by __________ (B12-binding proteins).
Parietal
Stomach
Ileum
Holotranscobalamins I, II, and III
Cobalamin:
Sources?
Storage?
Comes from intestinal bacteria, animal foods. Synthetic cyanocobalamin supplements.
Stored in liver (efficient resportion via enterohepatic circulation)
Conversion of homocysteine to methionine requires: (two nutrients)
Methyl-B12 (Cobalamin) and N-5-methyl THF
What is the methylmalonyl-CoA mutase cofactor for conversion of methyl malonyl CoA to succinyl CoA in mitochondria in branched chain amino acid fatty acid catabolism (odd number of carbons).
5-deoxyadenosyl derivative of B12
Pteridine ring-based water soluble molecules with varying substitutions at positions 5 and 10 and different number of glutamate residues.
Folates and folic acid - pteroylmonoglutamic acid and polyglutamate derivatives
Folates:
Structure absorbed in intestine and enzyme needed?
Reduced by ______ to ______.
Food sources?
Functions?
Absorbed at monoglutamate level by pteroylpolyglutamate hydrolase (brush border enzyme).

Reduced to THF by DHFR.

Widely distributed in foods: green leafy vegetables, liver, kidney, and meats. Cereals supplemented with folic acid. Synthetic folic acid supplements.

Required in biosynthesis of choline, serine, glycine, methionine, purines, and TMP. Participates in homocysteine metabolism.
Folate trap hypothesis:
Folate interconverts between many forms. The N5-methyl THF and cobalamin are cofactors in conversion of homocysteine to methionine, regenerating THF.
Pernicious anemia:
Histology?
Causes?
Symptoms?
Macrocytic anemia with megaloblastic changes

Vitamin B12 deficiency: autoimmune reaction against parietal cells of stomach (ab against hydrogen pump) or IF.

Peripheral neuropathy via progressive demyelination (permanent)
T/F: Folate deficiency is frequently noted in infants and pregnant women?
True
Folate deficiency:
Inhibition of DNA synthesis (limited purine and TTP levels), macrocytic anemia, NTDs in fetus of deficient mothers.

Common in chronic alcoholics and individuals with intestinal disorders (i.e. celiac disease).
Nutrient needs for 19-50 yrs:
Used for?
1. Protein
2. Calories, carbs, fats, proteins, and alcohol
3. Vitamin/mineral
Maintenance + activity increment
1. maintain nitrogen balance, EAA = 20% intake
2. Maintain weight
3. Replace losses/maintain pools
T/F: Bone density increases up to age 40.
False - increases to about age 30.
Pregnancy:
Nutrients used for:
1. Weight changes (fetus, maternal organ hypertrophy, other)
2. Energy cost is increased due to ________.
3. What is the effect of increased RBF (40%) and GFR (60%)?
4. What changes occur in the intestinal mucosa?
5. What changes occur in GI tract smooth muscle and what effect does it have?
altered maintenance + altered activity + growth increment + storage

1. De novo synthesis of ~18 lbs fetal (9-11 lbs) and maternal (4-7 lbs), mostly in 2nd and 3rd trimesters. ~11 lbs "unaccounted weight gain".
2. Increased mass
3. Increased nutrient loss in urine
4. Hypertrophy of small intestinal mucosa - increased absorption of some nutrients
5. Reduced GI tract smooth muscle: slowed gastric emptying time, constipation, decreased LES competency (pyrosis)
Lactation (4-6 mos of breast feeding, then weaning):
Nutrient needs used for:
1. Milk production in first 6 months = _____ ml/day. During weaning this decreases to _____ ml/day.
2. Lactation increases energy need by ______ cal/day and protein need by _____ g/day to support milk production.
normal maintenance + activity + milk production increment

1. ~750 ml/day; ~600 ml/day
2. 500-700 kcal/day; 12-15 g protein/day
1. Colostrum
2. Transitional milk
3. Mature milk

a. produced in first month during change of nutrient content
b. Contains Vit A, C, E and D, lipases, immunologic components. Beyond 6 mos, fat content can increase and protein decreases.
c. Yellowish, thin fluid of initial 3 days. 67 kcal/100 ml, high in viable cells, protein, carotene, and salts. Low in lactose and fat.
1 - c
2 - a
3 - b
Infancy (0-1 yr)
1. Nutrient needs - used for:
2. BMR is higher because...
3. Weight doubles by ___ and triples by ___. Brain size doubles by ___. Fat deposition required ____ kcal/g and protein requires ____ kcal/g. At birth ___% of energy intake is used for growth. At 12 months this has decreased to ___%.
4. Renal function at birth
5. GI
6. Hematopoiesis
7. Caloric recommendations (% from protein, CHO, fat, vitamins)
1. maintenance + activity + growth increment
2. Surface area:mass ratio is large
3. Weight: 4 mos; 1 yr. Brain size: 1 yr. Fat: 10.9 kcal/g. Protein: 13.4 kcal/g. Birth = 27%; 12 mos = 5%.
4. Renal - reduced ability to excrete high acid load and concentrate urine at max of ~600 mOsm/L.
5. GI: at birth - no teeth, reduced coordination of swallowing and esophageal peristalsis, decreased LES pressure, gastric volume, bile acid formation/release, pancreatic exocrine function, delayed GET
6. Hematopoietic function: low at birth, then increases. Fe from fetal stores and milk are adequate for 4-6 mos.
7. 7-16% cal from protein, 35-65% cal from carbohydrates, 30-55% cal from fat, vitamin K injection at birth.
Childhood (1-8 yrs) - reduced growth rate and change in body composition

1. Toddlers need ____ kcal/kg and ____ g/kg protein.

2. Early childhood: Compared to earlier, growth is _______.
Increased maintenance + activity + small growth increment.

1. Toddlers (1-3 yrs) decline in weight/height gain rates and nutrient needs: 100 kcal/kg energy; 1.2 g/kg protein
2. Early childhood (4-8 yrs) - slow/sporadic growth; appetite parallels growth
An 18 month old child needs 1180 kcal/day and 14.5 g high quality protein/day. A child receiving 350 g cassava (338 kcal and 1.6 g protein/100 g) is deficient in _____ and _____ of protein.
Quality and quantity are deficient. Growth will slow or stop.
Puberty/adolescence (9-13 yrs and 14-18 yrs)
1. Nutrient needs are used for...
2. Weight gain is about ____ kg/yr. Height gain is about ____ cm/yr.
3. Female puberty starts around _____ years old. Hormone changes caused increased rate of _____ deposition. Linear growth stops at age ___.
4. Male puberty starts at _____ years. Compared to females, growth period is ______ and the rate is ______. Testosterone and anabolic adrenal androgens lead to _______ in lean body mass, but smaller increase in fat, bone growth, and skeletal mass.
5. Other effects on:
Blood volume?
RBC count?
Neural tracts?
1. increased maintenance + increased activity + growth increment
2. ~2-4 kg/yr; ~5-6 cm/yr
3. ~10-13: anabolic adrenal androgens, estrogen, and progesterone increase fat deposition; 17.
4. ~12-15 yrs; longer; more rapid (ends at 21); double lean body mass
5. Increased blood volume and RBC number, elongation of neural tracts (spastic activity)

There are also altered hormonal balance and metabolic pathways, menstruation (females), and acne
Timing of puberty is related to _________.
Sexual maturity, not age
Older adults (51+ yrs)

1. Bone density changes for men and women?
2. Changes in energy use/body composition
3. Changes in renal activity?
4. Changes in B12?
5. Other changes in GI tract and GI smooth muscle?
6. Other health risks
Frailer, chronic diseases, nutritional deficiency risk

1. Decreased bone density from 40 yrs; women increase more rapidly in first year after menopause
2. Decreased activity, lower BMR (about -2% per decade), increased total body fat, decreased lean body mass, decreased protein absorption/use
3. Decreased renal function: clearance of substances and hydroxylation of vitamin D
4. Reduced gastric IF and release of bound B12, increased bacterial use of B12 in intestine
5. Decreased smooth muscle motor (constipation), decreased taste/smell/salivation, risk of protein, B6, and B12 malabsorption
6. Decreased thirst, decreased sunlight (low provitamin D synthesis), decreased iron requirement in women after menopause, decreased mental acuity, vision, mobility, money, transportation, access to kitchen
Macronutrients provide _______ for metabolic processes and _________ the body cannot synthesize.

Micronutrients
Carbohydrates, proteins, and fats: body needs large amounts (grams). Provide energy and compounds.

Vitamins and minerals: body needs small amounts
What is the energy store in alcohol?
7 kcal/gram.
Energy output: four forms
1. Resting metabolic rate (RMR)
2. Thermic effect of food
3. Physical activity
4. Thermogenesis
Energy equilibrium:
Causes of positive energy balance?
Causes of negative energy balance?
Positive: growth, pregnancy, rebound from starvation, disease, or injury, unhealthy weight gain

Negative: Body uses energy stored in body-fat and muscle for shortfall in energy intake - leads to weight loss
The _________ categorizes foods according to digestibility and absorbability of carbohydrates; low _________ foods have greater satiety and lower average insulin levels. A major shortcoming is...
Glycemic index

Based on a serving of food that provides 50 g of carbohydrate.
Glycemic load =
(glycemic index x mass of carbohydrate/serving) / 100
RDA for carbohydrates is _______ g/day. Inadequate intake is compensated by gluconeogenesis at the expense of ________ and leads to _________.
130 grams/day
Expense of dietary and body proteins.
Leads to ketosis
Fibers are nondigestible carbohydrates and lignins. They are NOT a source of carbohydrates - their role is in digestion, absorption, and elimination.

1. Soluble fiber is processed by ________ and releases _______.
2. Effects of insoluble fiber on a) water, b) fecal bulk, c) colonic transit
3. Effects of dietary fiber on: a) satiety, b) fat/cholesterol absorption, c) cholesterol excretion, d) glucose absorption
4. Adverse effects are due to _______ which bind to dietary constituents (i.e. zinc, EFAs) and prevent their absorption. Fiber may also cause ________ and ________.
5. Dietary recommendations for men and women:
1. Gut bacteria; short chain fatty acids
2. attract water, increase fecal bulk, accelerate colonic transit
3. Decreases GET -> satiety, decrease fat/cholesterol absorption, increase cholesterol loss, decrease rate of glucose absorption
4. Phytates; bloating and flatus
5. 38 g/day for men and 25 g/day for women
Name the essential amino acids for adults (9).

_________ is essential in infants and growing children.
Histidine, methionine, threonine, valine, isoleucine, phenylalanine, tryptophan, leucine, lysine.

Arginine

Trivia/Mnemonic:
A man was recently arrested in California after police discovered a soda pop can with Valium and crystal meth in a hidden compartment.

Lou tried his three meths. Liz is fine w/ valium.
T/F: Essential amino acids are called such because the body has increased need for them.
False
T/F: Proteins from animal sources have superior content of essential amino acids (compared to plant sources).
True. This is scored by the Protein Digestibility Corrected Amino Acid Score (PDCAAS)
Vegetarians may become deficient in essential amino acids. What is an excellent vegetable source of amino acids?
Soybeans - PDCAAS of 1.0 (equal to milk and egg).
T/F: Like carbohydrates (glycogen) and lipids (TAGs), amino acids can be stored in sufficient quantities.
False - there is no specific storage depot for amino acids
How can the amino acid pool be estimated? What is the meaning of positive or negative balance values?
Nitrogen balance: Amount consumed in diet vs amount lost as urea, ammonia, and sloughed off cellular materials

Positive - net uptake exceeds nitrogen loss (as in growth and expansion of muscle in response to exercise)
Negative - net loss exceeds nitrogen uptake (as in fasting, starvation, protein malnutrition, and recovery from trauma/burns)
What is the RDA for "high quality" protein for men and women in limited strenuous physical activity?
56 grams/day for men
46 grams/day for women
An 18 month old child presents with a swollen belly, thinning hair, and dermatitis. His mother tells you she is no longer breastfeeding and has been feeding him a diet consisting mostly of pureed vegetables and organic cereal puree. You suspect a chronic dietary protein insufficiency.

1. What is the disease?
2. Left untreated, what may occur?
3. T/F - Expedient intervention will undoubtedly allow the child to recover without sequelae and meat growth milestones?
1. Kwashiorkor
2. Retarded growth and development, weak immune response.
3. False - permanent failure to meet growth milestones is possible, despite intervention
A severely neglected child is rescued by social services and brought to the ER. He presents with wasting muscle and virtually no body fat. You suspect Marasmus.

1. What is deficient in the diet?
2. Why are muscle and fat mass lost in Marasmus?
3. T/F: Interruption of visceral organ function is less dramatic than in Kwashiorkor, resulting in a milder disease?
1. Deficient for both calories and protein
2. Catabolic turnover of protein and TAGs for energy
3. True - organ and tissue function is calorie limited; moderates adverse effects of deficient diet

Trivia: This photograph, taken in Sudan, was first published in the New York Times in 1993. The photographer, Kevin Carter, was awarded a Pulitzer Prize in 1994. He stood by the "journalist as observer" stance and did not intervene and had no knowledge of what happened to this girl. Months after receiving the Pulitzer he commit suicide, unable to reconcile the horrors he had seen and his inaction. This has become a hallmark image in the debate of the journalist's role. A similar situation occurred for current NYTimes writer Nicholas Kristof, who's conscience troubled him after not intervening on behalf of a child prostitute in Cambodia who was sold in the sex trade and being held under debt bondage. On a subsequent trip to Cambodia he chose to break tradition and "purchase" the freedom of two young sex slaves and wrote a series of editorials documenting these experiences.
Triacylglycerol constitutes more than ___% of total dietary lipid, including the Essential Fatty Acids ________ and _______, the precursor of _________. They are required for membrane fluidity and synthesis of _______.
1. 90%
2. Linolenic [18:3 (9, 12, 15)]
3. Linoleic [18:2 (9, 12)]
4. Arachidonic acid [20:4 (5, 8, 11, 14)]
5. Eicosanoids
Where does dietary cholesterol come from? What is the most important determinant of total plasma cholesterol?
Cholesterol is from animal sources (not plants), but the effect is less important than the amount and types of fatty acids consumed, particularly saturated fat intake (mostly from dairy and meat products).
Plants have TAGs with mostly ___________ fatty acids, except coconut and palm oil. Animal source TAGs contain a higher proportion of ____________ fatty acids, except fish which contain many omega-___-fatty acids.
1. Unsaturated fatty acids
2. Saturated fatty acids
3. omega-3-fatty acids
The dietary goal of ___% total calories due to fat is recommended, with cholesterol consumption reduction from 600 mg/day to _____ mg/day.
1. 30% total calories
2. 300 mg/day (half of previous guideline)
Cholesterol - T/F:
1. Individuals with higher blood cholesterol have higher incidence of atherosclerosis.
2. Levels of LDL are inversely correlated with heart disease.
3. 60% of fasting blood cholesterol is carried as LDL.
4. HDL levels are associated with decreased risk of heart disease.
5. Before menopause, women have lower levels of HDL than men.
1. True
2. False - directly correlated
3. False - 80% of cholesterol is LDL
4. True
5. False - women have higher levels of HDL than men before cholesterol
What is cholestyramine?
A non-absorbable ionic resin that promotes excretion of bile acids and therefore decreases plasma cholesterol levels.
T/F:
All saturated fatty acids cause hypercholesterolemia.
False: Stearic acid (18:0) and short-chain saturated fatty acids (<10 carbons) don't raise blood cholesterol. Lauric (12:0), myristic (14:0), and palmitic (16:0) acids elevate blood cholesterol.
For each statement below, is it true for mono-unsaturated fatty acids, poly-unsaturated fatty acids, or both?

1. Decrease LDL
2. Decrease total cholesterol
3. Slightly increase TAG levels
4. Decrease HDL
5. Favor oxidation of LDL (causing formation of foam cells and CAD)
6. Little or no change in HDL
7. Reduce total mortality by 70%
8. Examples include omega-6 fatty acids.
9. Examples include omega-3 fatty acids
1. both
2. both
3. both
4. poly
5. poly
6. mono
7. mono
8. poly
9. mono
N-6 fatty acids:
1. Which EFA is an n-6 FA?
2. What are their effects on LDL and HDL?
3. What are some sources of n-6 fatty acids?
1. linoleic acid
2. lowers LDL and HDL
3. several plant oils (corn, safflower, sunflower)
N-3 Fatty acids
1. Effect on TAG, heart disease, LDL, and HDL?
2. Sources?
3. Effect on eisocanoid formation?
1. Lowers TAG, LDL, and risk of heart disease; raises HDL
2. Oily fish (SMASH = salmon, mackarel, anchovies, sardines, herring), soybean oil, canola oil, hazelnuts, almonds, pecans, cashews, walnuts, and macadamia (not peanuts and pines)
3. Inhibit conversion of AA to TXA2 by platelets; converted to TXA3, which is less thrombogenic
Trans Fatty Acids:
1. How are they synthesized?
2. Relative to cis isomers, what is their effect on plasma cholesterol?
3. T/F: Trans fat content is listed on the nutrition facts labels.
1. Hydrogenation of liquid vegetable oils (i.e. margarine)
2. Increased plasma cholesterol
3. False
Dietary methods to reduce LDL: What is the effect on HDL?

1. Soy products?
2. Garlic?
3. Fiber?
4. Alcohol?
1. lower HDL
2. small rise in HDL
3. may increase HDL
4. increase HDL (protective effect of alcohol against heart disease)
Match diet with description:
a. High fat/low carbohydrate
b. Low fat/high carbohydrate
c. "Mediterranean" diet

1. abundant fish/poultry, olive oil and dairy, moderate alcohol consumption, fruit, vegetables, beans, legumes, nuts, and complex carbohydrates
2. ad libidum consumption of beans, fruits, grains and vegetables in smaller/more frequent meals. No meats, poultry, seafood, or alcohol. Avoid dairy, oily foods. Exercise daily.
3. Reduce refined sugar and complex carbs except those from fresh vegetables and fruits. High protein/fat diet - fatty acit oxidation and mild ketosis.
1. c
2. b
3. a
Vitamin D:
1. RDA
2. UL
3. Food sources
4. Deficiency syndrome
1. 200 IU
2. 2000 IU
3. Skin - UV light, milk, cod liver oil, salmon, shiitake mushrooms
4. Rickets - children; Osteomalacia - adults
Vitamin K:
1. RDA
2. UL
3. Food sources
4. Deficiency syndrome
1. 90 micrograms
2. none
3. Intestinal bacteria, green leafy vegetables, egg yolk
4. Bleeding (coagulopathy)
Vitamin A:
1. RDA
2. UL
3. Food sources
4. Deficiency syndrome
1. 800 micrograms
2. 10 mg
3. Retinyl ester from egg yolk, liver, fish oil, milk, butter; beta-carotene from fruits, vegetables
4. Night blindness, xerophthalmia
Vitamin E (tocopherol)
1. RDA
2. UL
3. Food sources
4. Deficiency syndrome
1. 15 mg
2. 1000 mg
3. Vegetable oils, liver, eggs
4. Spinocerebellar degeneration

(An early sign of vitamin E deficiency is lipofuscin or age spots)
Thiamine (Vitamin B1)
1. RDA
2. UL
3. Food sources
4. Deficiency syndrome
1. 1.1 mg
2. none
3. Whole wheat, peas, beans
4. Dry and wet beriberi; Wernicke Korsakoff syndrome
Riboflavin (Vitamin B2)
1. RDA
2. UL
3. Food sources
4. Deficiency syndrome
1. 1.1 mg
2. none
3. Liver, yeast, wheatgerm, milk, eggs, green leafy vegetables
4. Cheilosis, glossitis, dermatitis
Niacin (Vitamin B3)
1. RDA
2. UL
3. Food sources
4. Deficiency syndrome
1. 14 mg
2. 35 mg
3. Widely distributed: rich in meat; depends on Trp content
4. Pellagra - 4Ds (diarrhea, dermatitis, dementia, death)
Pyridoxine (vitamin B6)
1. RDA
2. UL
3. Food sources
4. Deficiency syndrome
1. 1.3 mg
2. 100 mg
3. widely distributed: germs of grains, seeds, egg yolk, yeast, meat
4. Cheilosis, glossitis, dermatitis, peripheral neuropathy
Biotin
1. RDA
2. UL
3. Food sources
4. Deficiency syndrome
1. 30 micrograms
2. none
3. Eggs, peanuts
4. none
Cobalamin (vitamin B12)
1. RDA
2. UL
3. Food sources
4. Deficiency syndrome
1. 2.4 micrograms
2. none
3. liver, whole milk, eggs, shrimp, chicken, pork
4. pernicious anemia; neuropathy
Folic acid
1. RDA
2. UL
3. Food sources
4. Deficiency syndrome
1. 400 micrograms
2. 1000 micrograms
3. widely distributed; supplemented
4. NTDs, megaloblastic anemia (without neuropathy)

Angelo was born with an encephelocele.
Pantothenic acid
1. RDA
2. UL
3. Food sources
4. Deficiency syndrome
1. 5 mg
2. none
3. yeast, liver, eggs
4. none
Ascorbic acid (vitamin C)
1. RDA
2. UL
3. Food sources
4. Deficiency syndrome
1. 75 mg
2. 2 g
3. fresh fruits, vegetables
4. scurvy
What is the most important cause of deficiency for water soluble vitamins?
Decreased intake
How does antibiotic treatment cause vitamin deficiency for vitamin K and biotin?
Synthesis by enteric bacteria is interrupted.
Kidney disease can lead to...
Vitamin D deficiency - renal rickets.
Liver damage (due to chronic alcoholism) can lead to...
Deficiency in storage and modification of vitamins.
What vitamins have enterohepatic circulation?
Folate, vitamin B12, vitamin A, and vitamin D
Cystic fibrosis and chronic cholestasis can cause...
deficiency in vitamins D, A, K, and E due to fat malabsorption.
Patients with bariatric surgery (roux-en-Y) may have vitamin malabsorption because...
the upper part of the intestine is the main site of most vitamin absorption.
During pregnancy and lactation there can be folic acid deficiency due to...
increased physiological need.
Newborns have particular vitamin needs:

1. Which two vitamins do not pass the placental membrane?
2. GI tract problems include...
3. How does the rate of cell growth affect nutrient requirement?
4. What is a common micronutrient supplement given at birth?
5. In cases of breast feeding, supplement with...
6. Infants in oxygen rich atmospheres are supplemented with...
1. E and K
2. GI tract not fully functional - malabsorption; sterile (biotin and vitamin K)
3. Increased rate of cell growth and division increases need for vitamins
4. Vitamin K injection at birth
5. Vitamin D supplement for breast fed newborns
6. Vitamin E supplement in Oxygen rich environment
Anticonvulsant drug effects:
1. Vitamin K
2. Vitamin D
3. Folate
4. Biotin
5. Vitamin B6

Isoniazid effects:
6. Pyridoxine
1. negatively interact with vitamin K
2. influence bioactivity of vitamin D
3. increased need for folate
4. increased need for biotin
5. increased need for vitamin B6
6. Isoniazid binds pyridoxine
1. Name the four fat-soluble vitamins.
2. Where are they absorbed in the GI tract?
3. Where are they stored? (2)
4. In order to pass into the epithelial cells, they need normal function of _________. Once in the cells, they must be absorbed twice in ____________ circulation. In the liver they can be conjugated to _________ for transport in the bloodstream and delivery to tissues.
1. D - calcium homeostasis
A - rhodopsin production; antioxidant
K - carboxylation of glutamic residues in prothrombin and clotting factors
E - antioxidant

2. Absorbed in the Ileum
3. Liver and adipose; bile salts; enterohepatic circulation; lipoproteins (delivery)
Cholecalciferol:
Ergocalciferol:
25-(OH)D:
1-alpha-25-(OH)2D:
24,25 (OH)2D:
Vitamin D3 - formed by UV light conversion in skin from a cholesterol synthesis intermediate; can be supplement - milk, OJ, yogurt, and cheese are fortified
Vitamin D2 - supplement in yeast, plants (less effective than D3)
25-(OH)D is hydroxylated form from liver
1-alpha,25-(OH)2D - further hydroxylation in proximal convoluted tubule of kidney to active form - transcription moderator
24,25(OH)2D - inactive form of metabolized vitamin
Requirement of Vitamin D is ____ minutes on area size of the hand. Deficiency may be due to increased melanin, sunscreen, and lack of sun.

Signs of vitamin D toxicity (100,000IU for weeks or months):
20 minutes

Toxicity - loss of appetite, nausea, thirst, stupor
Role of vitamin D:
1. Steroid hormone that binds receptors in...
2. Regulates _______ directly and _______ indirectly.
3. Active form effects:
1. intestine, bones, kidneys
2. calcium, phosphorus
3. stimulate intestinal absorption of calcium and phosphorus, mobilize bone calcium (with PTH), stimulate PTH dependent reabsorption of Ca in distal renal tubules
A child presents with improper mineralization of cartilage and osteoid matrix, leading to soft bones. There is lordosis of the spine and bowing of the legs. You suspect _______ due to inadequate synthesis, absorption, or intake of ______.

Following treatment, what is the prognosis?
Rickets
Vitamin D
Complex clinical picture - may be permanent.
A 54 year old man with poor diet has had frequent bone fractures without gross changes in bone contour. You suspect ______ due to deficiency of ________, causing _________ of existing bone.
Osteomalacia
Vitamin D
Demineralization
Osteoporosis:
1. Skeletal growth modeling ends in the ______ decade of life.
2. Steady loss of bone mass begins in ______ decade in both men and women with average of ____% loss per year.
3. Menopause accelerates loss of bone mass in women, so the ratio in frequency for fracture is _____.
4. The most common fracture sites are___.
5. Treatments and their mechanism of action include
6. Primary risk factors include:
1. Third decade
2. Fourth decade
3. 1:40 ratio of men:women
4. vertebrae, femoral neck, pelvis
5. bisphosphonates and subcutaneous injections of PTH increase osteoblast activity
6. Diet, race, short stature, small bones, smoking, alcohol abuse, physical activity, leanness, genetics (alleles of vitamin D receptor)
Roles of vitamin D other than calcium homeostasis include:
low vitamin D increases mortality from CVD, type II diabetes, colon, breast, pancreatic, and prostate cancers, multiple sclerosis, autoimmune disease, cognitive loss in elderly, skeletal muscle and sports performance, immunity
Source and function of -

Retinol (pictured):
Retinyl esters:
Retinal:
Retinoic acid:
B-carotene:

Word bank:
Dietary
Epithelial differentiation
Storage
Transport
Vision
Retinol - transport form; hormone involved in differentiation of mucus-secreting epithelium

Retinyl esters - storage form; retinyl phosphate involved in glycoprotein and mucopolysaccharide synthesis

Retinal - vision; delta-11-cis retinal chromophore bound to opsin; bleaching releases opsin and all trans retinal with nerve impulse. Important for night vision.

Retinoic acid - epithelial differentiation and growth regulating hormone

B-carotene (dietary in vegetables) - cleaved and converted to retinol in intestinal mucosa; anti-oxidant

Also involved in immune function and bone remodeling
Vision problems and blindness, night blindness, xerophthalmia, acne, psoriasis, and susceptibility to infection are caused by deficiency of ___________.
Vitamin A
Vitamin A:
Stored in ______ as ______.
High doses over months or year result in toxicity, leading to _________.
Which form shows no toxicity?
What is the clinical utility of synthetic retinoids?
Stored in liver as retinyl-palmitate

Toxicity: bone pain, dermatitis, hepatosplenomegaly, nausea, diarrhea, birth defects

B-carotenes show no toxicity

Synthetic retinoids treat acne - reduced toxicity. Depress sebum production and inflammatory response.
Source:
K1 (phylloquinone, phytylmenaquinone)
K2 (menaquinone, multiprenylmenaquinone)
K3 (menadione)

What is the principal action of Vitamin K?

What is warfarin?

What is the effect on bone?
K1 - vegetables
K2 - intestinal bacteria
K3 - synthesized from synthetic precursor

Acts as coenzyme for gamma-glutamyl carboxylation of prothrombin and factors VII, IX, and X - carboxylated residues can bind calcium. Calcium-prothrombin complex can bind phospholipids on platelet surface.

Warfarin is a vitamin K antagonist - inhibits clotting

Favors calcification
Hypoprothrombinemia and increased coagulation times are due to deficiency of ________. This is uncommon except in __________.
Vitamin K deficiency
Newborns
Broad spectrum antibiotic treatment
Problems with fat absorption (i.e. CF)
Vitamin K toxicity:
T/F
1. Natural forms are not toxic.
2. Large amounts interfere with heparin action.
3. Infants receiving vitamin K3 can develop hemolytic anemia and jaundice due to toxic effects on bone marrow.
1. true
2. false - interfere with coumadin
3. false - toxic effects on RBCs
Vitamin E is a family of _________ compounds. It is absorbed into the __________ system by the small intestine and the biologically active form, ___________, is incorporated into ______ in the _______. It is the most effective lipid soluble antioxidant. ___________ are rich sources. _________ and _______ contain moderate amounts. As intake of polyunsaturated fatty acids increases, requirement _________. It is the least toxic fat soluble vitamin.
Tocopherol
Lymphatic system
Alpha-tocopherol
VLDL
Liver
Vegetable oils
Liver and eggs
Increases
Deficiency is rare except in infants. In children and adults it is associated with defective lipid absorption, abetalipoproteinaemia, chronic cholestasis, or transport defect. Deficiency causes spinocerebellar degeneration and axonal sensory neuropathy with ataxia, areflexia, and other symptoms after 10-20 years of deficiency.
Vitamin E
Free radical damage is implicated in aging, heart disease, alzheimer's disease, and diabetes.

Discuss reactivity, transportation, and synthesis of these compounds:
Superoxide-
Hydrogen peroxide-
Hydroxyl radical-
Superoxide - moderately reactive; penetrates membranes through anion channels

Hydrogen peroxide - moderately reactive oxygen intermediate (not free radical); formed by SOD; diffuses across cell membranes

Hydroxyl radical - very reactive; formed in Fenton reaction (iron and hydrogen peroxide); diffusion controlled rates
Effects of free radicals on:
1. Protein
2. Lipid
3. DNA

Antioxidant defenses:
4. enzymes
5. endogenous chemicals
6. exogenous chemicals
1. Protein oxidation - decreased activity; thermo-labile
2. Lipid peroxidation - loss of membrane integrity
3. Modification of DNA - strand breaks
4. Antioxidant enzymes: SOD, glutathione peroxidase, catalase
5. Endogenous antioxidant chemicals: glutathione, ubiquinol
6. Exogenous antioxidant chemicals: vitamin E, vitamin C, beta carotenes, lycopenes (from tomatoes - highest single oxygen quenching capacity)
Thiamine (vitamin B1):
1. coenzyme form and synthesis
2. Major reactions
3. Deficiency
1. Thiamine pyrophosphate (TPP) - transfer of pyrophosphate from ATP to thiamine (obtained from plants or microorganisms)
2. Oxidative decarboxylation of alpha-keto acids (pyruvate dehydrogenase, alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase); pentose-phosphate pathway (transketolase); synthesis of acetylcholine
3. Leads to buildup of pyruvate levels, reduced ATP, ribose, and NADPH
A patient who eats a large amount of polished rice presents with cardiovascular problems, causing edema in the legs, fluid in the lungs, and tachycardia.
Wet beriberi from thiamine deficiency
Patient has memory loss, mental confusion, pain in hands and feet, involuntary eye movements, and trouble standing and moving.
Dry beriberi due to thiamine deficiency
A chronic alcoholic presents with mental confusion, loss of eye coordination, and ataxia.
Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome due to thiamine deficiency
Riboflavin (Vitamin B2)
1. Synthesis of coenzymes
2. Major reactions
3. Deficiency
1. Obtained from green plants, bacteria, and fungi to synthesize flavin mononucleotide (FMN) by riboflavin kinase (with ATP) and is adenylated by FAD synthetase to flavin dinucleotide (FAD)
2. Used by 150 enzymes, including NADH dehydrogenase and succinate dehydrogenase (complex I and II of ETC), and methylenetetrahydrofolate reductase
3. Deficiency accompanies other vitamin deficiencies; leads to dermatitis, cheilosis, glossitis
Niacin (Vitamin B3)
1. Synthesis of coenzymes
2. Major reactions
3. Deficiency
4. Other uses - effect on VLDL and LDL
1. Synthesized in all organisms (conversion from tryptophan). Amidated to nicotinamide and converted to NAD or NADP.
2. Used by many enzymes for redox reactions (synthesis of fatty acids, cholesterol, steroid hormones)
3. Deficiency leads to pellagra
4. Combined with statin, decreases VLDL and LDL at high doses by inhibiting lipolysis in adipose tissue.
A patient presents with erythematous, desquamative dermatitis, chelitis, glossitis, loose stools, and mental confusion three months after Roux-en-Y bariatric surgery.
Pellagra due to Niacin deficiency. 4D's: dermatitis, diarrhea, dementia, death
Pyridoxine (Vitamin B6)
1. synthesis of coenzyme forms (3)
2. Major reactions
3. Deficiency
1. synthesized in green plants and microorganisms - 3 forms (derivatives of pyridine): pyridoxal, pyridoxine-P, pyridoxal-phosphate (PLP). PLP is the active cofactor form
2. Used by 112 enzymes: synthesis, interconversion, and catabolism of amino acids and heme; required for all known transaminases; used in deamination, decarboxylation, and condensation reactions; energy production from amino acids; synthesis of serotonin, norepinephrine, sphingolipids; glycogen phosphorylase; NAD synthesis; homocysteine metabolism. Cofactor forms covalent linkage (Schiff base) with lysyl residue in enzyme - converted to a substrate-PLP when attacked by substrate amino group.
3. Behavioral changes (neurotransmitters and myelination) and anemia. Deficiency can be induced by isoniazid.
A patient presents with a cough productive of sputum. CXR is shown. A PPD is positive and you begin treatment. Several weeks later, the patient presents with confusion and peripheral blood smear shows sideroblastic anemia.
Vitamin B6 deficiency due to inactive pyridoxine-isoniazid complex formation
Biotin (Vitamin B7)
1. Synthesis of coenzyme
2. Major reactions

3. Your patient is a boxer who had a serious bacterial infection which was treated with a prolonged course of broad spectrum antibiotics. He has been working to recover his strength, and after several weeks of vigorous training, he presents with xeroderma, seborrheic dermatitis, fungal infections, rashes including red, patchy ones near the mouth (erythematous periorofacial macular rash), fine and brittle hair and signs of alopecia. He informs you that he has been eating large amounts of raw eggs for protein. Explain the risk factors causing his biotin deficiency (a very rare micronutrient deficiency).
1. Made by enteric flora
2. coenzyme in carboxylation reactions; carrier of activated carbon dioxide. Binds epsilon-amino groups of lysine residues on enzymes. Pyruvate carboxylase (formation of oxaloacetate in gluconeogenesis); cytosolic acetyl-CoA carbosylase, mitochondrial propionyl CoA carboxylase
3. Deficiency is rare except in long antibiotic therapy or excessive consumption of raw eggs (avidin binds biotin -> decreased absorption)
Cobalamin (Vitamin B12)
1. Synthesis of coenzyme
2. Major reactions
3. Deficiency
1. Synthesized by microorganisms in intestine. Animal products are good source. Has corrin ring structure with a cobalt on 4 nitrogens of pyrrole groups and dimethylbenzimidazole on 5th position. 6th position has 5-deoxyadenosine in the 5-deoxyadenoxylcobalamine form and a methyl in methylcobalamin.
2. Homocysteine methyltransferase (homocysteine + 5-methyl-THF form methionine and THF); methylmalonyl CoA mutase (mitochondrial enzyme - isomerization of methylmalonyl CoA from amino acid and fatty acid degradation).
3. Low requirement - not obtained from plant diet. Deficiency results in N5-methyl-THF buildup in rapidly dividing cells and decreased THF needed for purine and thymine synthesis. Causes pernicious anemia. Demyelination of nerve cells due to decreased methylmalonyl CoA mutase (fatty acids accumulate in cell membranes and disrupt). Liver stores up to 6 years worth, so most deficiency is due to inadequate absorption (not diet). Can be caused by self-reactive Ab against IF or parietal cells.
Folic acid
1. Synthesis of coenzyme
2. major reactions
3. deficiency
1. From yeasts and leafy vegetables or animal liver. Polyglutamate form - ingestion and storage. Glutamate removed in intestinal mucosa by conjugase to make more soluble. Reduced within cells (liver) to THF by DHFR (requires NADPH). Pteridine ring linked to PABA forms pteroic acid. Glutamic acid residues conjugated to pteroic acid.
2. Involved in one-carbon metabolism; transfer of carbon for synthesis of amino acids purine and thymine.
3. Deficiency causes decreased purine and thymidine synthesis and leads to megaloblastic anemia. Need is increased in pregnancy and lactation -> deficiency causes NTD in fetus. Ala222Val polymorphism affects folate responsiveness
Pantothenic Acid (vitamin B5)
1. Synthesis of coenzyme
2. major reactions
3. deficiency
1. From green plants, eggs, liver, yeast, and microorganisms. Component of coenzyme A and phosphopantetheine in fatty acid synthase.
2. CoA used in over 70 enzymes. CoA - transfer of acyl groups (metabolism of fats, carbohydrates, proteins).
Phosphopantetheine - fatty acid synthesis
3. Deficiency rare
Ascorbic acid (vitamin C)
1. synthesis of coenzyme
2. major reactions
3. deficiency
1. Synthesized by all organisms except humans, primates, and guinea pig.
2. Prolyl hydrosylase (collagen stability); lysine hydroxylase (collagen cross-linking); catabolism of tyrosine; synthesis of epinephrine; synthesis of bile acids; reducing agent in many reactions (ferric -> ferrous iron in intestine); biosynthesis of corticosteroids, aldosterone, reducing agent for mixed-function oxidases; antioxidant (free radical scavenger)
3. Deficiency causes scurvy. Most unstable of vitamins (destroyed by long term storage and exposure to alkali)
A patient presents with easy bruising, muscle fatigue, soft swollen gums, decreased wound healing, and hemorrhaging, osteoporosis, and anemia.
Scurvy due to vitamin C deficiency
677C->A (A222->Val) in ______ leads to a ___________ enzyme with ___________ activity, lower binding of _______, and accumulation of _____________. It is associated with ______________ disease in adults and ____________ in infants.
Methylenetetrahydrofolate reductase (MTHFR)
Thermolabile
Reduced
FAD
Homocysteine
Cardiovascular
Neurtal tube defects
As many as 1/3 of mutations in enzymes result in increased ________________ (Km) (measure of how tightly the enzyme is bound to the coenzyme).

Thiamine for enzyme defect:
The ____ subunit (pyruvate decarboxylase) of the pyruvate dehydrogenase complex binds ____. Defects lead to lethal _____________, psychomotor retardation, CNS damage, Muscle fiber atrophy, and developmental delay due to ___________ buildup and decreased _____. Treatment with ________ leads to decreased serum __________ and amelioration of symptoms.
Michaelis constant (Km)
E1
TPP
Lactic acidosis
Lactate buildup
Decreased ATP
Thiamine
Lactate
A cross-country runner presents with anemia. What may be deficient in his diet? (3)
Iron, folate, B12
A gymnast sustains a stress fracture. You are concerned that her diet may be deficient in... (3)

In female gymnasts, amenorrhea is a common occurrence and suggests ___________. Disordered eating patterns are not uncommon in athletes; be alert for signs of distorted body image, unrealistic weight goals, and compulsive eating behaviors. Assess supplement use; many carry mild to severe health risks.
Energy intake, calcium, vitamin D

Inadequate energy intake or excessive energy expenditure.
1. T/F: Fat oxidation increases at higher levels of exertion.
2. Glycogen stores kick in when energy demands exceed ______ kcal/hour.
3. __________ are often the limiting macronutrient because large amounts are needed to quickly replenish glycogen stores after training sessions and exhausting competitions.
4. During the first seconds of muscle contraction, _____ provide the initial burst of energy.
5. T/F: When ATP stores run out after 2-3 minutes, creatine phosphate can recharge ATP supplies by transferring high-energy phosphates to ADP.
6. Fuel metabolism begins after approximately ______ seconds.
1. False: stays the same at most levels of exertion
2. 300-400 kcal/hr
3. Carbohydrates
4. Local ATP stores
5. False - ATP runs out after 2-3 seconds
6. 10-15 seconds
1. T/F: Glycogen stores are only depleted in vigorous exercise.
2. T/F: Glycogen stores are rapidly replenished following cessation of exercise.
3. Without glucose, anaerobic metabolism predominates but is extremely inefficient: it can utilize only about ____% of the energy content of glucose.
4. Critical micronutrients for the utilization of fat and glucose-derived intermediary metabolites through the Krebs cycle are... (7)
1. False: Maximal muscle exertion can deplete within minutes as much muscle glycogen as hours of a more moderate effort level.
2. False: Takes hours
3. 6%
4. thiamin, riboflavin, niacin, biotin, pantothenate, magnesium, and iron: Most athletes are likely to get enough of each, but young women, particularly vegetarians, may need extra iron
1. Carbohydrate loading requires intakes near ____ g/kg body weight and a carefully controlled pattern of exercise to boost muscle glycogen concentrations well beyond normal levels.
2. Repletion of glycogen stores requires ___ g of carbohydrate for every ___ kcal expended. Intake of about ____ g carbohydrate every two hours is optimal.
3. Top achievers in strength-based sports like weight-lifting require increased protein intake (_____ g/kg/d).
1. 10 g/kg: Most women can achieve this goal only by eating in excess of energy requirements. Repeated doses of carbohydrate during exercise spare some glycogen, but cannot provide the full amount that is expended by moderate- to high-intensity exercise.
2. 100 g; 400 kcal; 50 g (Athletes in endurance disciplines often benefit from a carbohydrate-rich diet (6-10 g/kg/d))
3. 1.6-1.7 g/kg/d
1. During exercise, heat is dissipated by... (3)
2. In a severely dehydrated athlete, what are the effects on:
a) sweat production
b) temperature regulation
c) sports performance
d) serum osmolality
e) blood volume
3. What is the most powerful stimulus for thirst and ADH release?
4. T/F: When blood volume drops 20% or more, baroreceptors stimulate thirst and water conservation.
1. Evaporation of sweat from the skin and water vaporization from the respiratory system (primary defense against overheating); conduction, convection, and radiations
2. a) decreased; b) impaired; c) declines; d) raised; e) decreased
3. Serum osmolarity (above 290 mOsm)
4. False: triggered at 10% drop in blood volume
A wrestler reports to you that he has been deliberately dehydrating by excessive sweating, spitting, limiting fluid and food intake, and using laxatives and OTC diuretics in order to make weight class.

You inform him that...

1. Even as little as ____% loss of body water harms performance.
2. Dehydration distresses regulatory systems can result in decreased blood flow to... (3)

Rank in order of increasing severity:
a) heat exhaustion
b) heat stroke
c) heat cramps

Reduced work capacity of muscles occurs around ______% loss of body water, often accompanied by spasms and cramping.
1. 1-2%
2. Muscle, skin, and kidney
3. c, a, b (Heat cramps < Heat exhaustion < Heat stroke)
4. 5 to 10%
Summary of guidelines for athletes:

Drink ___ ml of fluid ___ hours before activity, _____ ml every ____ minutes during the activity, and _____ ml for every _____ kg of weight loss after the activity. For events under 1 hour, both water and sports drinks work equally well. For longer duration, sports drinks with ____% carbohydrate and ____ g sodium/L are more effective.
~500 mL
2 hours
150-250 mL
15-20 minutes
450-675 mL
0.5 kg
4-8%
0.5 g