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87 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
RNA polymerases (do/do not) require a primer.
do not

*must recognize a start point for transcription and a DNA strand to use as a template
RNA polymerases synthesize mRNA from DNA in the _________ direction.

What building blocks does this require (4)?
5' to 3'


ATP, GTP, CTP, & UTP
RNA polymerases lack a ____________________ activity.
3' to 5' exonuclease activity
Bacterial cells have (a single/multiple) RNA polymerase(s).
a single
What are the 4 subunits of the E.coli core RNA polymerase enzyme? What binds to this core enzyme and directs the enzyme to bind at a promoter?
alpha2-beta-beta prime

sigma
Describe the three eukaryotic RNA polymerases.
1. Polymerase I produces rRNA
2. Polymerase II produces mRNA
3. Polymerase III produces tRNA and 5s rRNA

They all have the same mechanism of action but recognize different promoters
RNA polymerase binds to the _________ on DNA.
promoter

*promoter, promoter-proximal elements, & enhancers are all regulatory sequences on genes
The start point and termination signal on DNA are contained in the...
coding region, located after the promoter
What DNA strand, coding or template, is used by RNA polymerase to make mRNA?
template strand
The _________ strand of DNA is the same sequence as the mRNA strand except T's are replaced with U's (there are no T's in RNA).
coding
During translation, where can you find the codons?
they are the sequence of 3 nucleotides found on the mRNA, read from 5' to 3'
The AT rich consensus sequence in E. coli that determines the start of transcription is called the...
Pribnow box
The AT rich consensus sequence in eukaryotes that determines the start of transcription is called the...
TATA box
In addition to the TATA box, you can find consensus sequences such as the _______, ________, and _________ in eukaryotes.
CAAT box, GC-rich sequences, enhancers
When DNA is unwound by the RNA polymerase holoenzyme, what enzyme is used to remove supercoils?
DNA topoisomerase
Termination of transcription at the termination signal through the formation of a hairpin loop in DNA is called...
Rho-independent transcription termination
Termination of transcription through the binding of rho factor is called...
Rho dependent transcription termination
The unit of a promoter and all the genes it controls is called an
operon
mRNA generated from an operon containing many genes produces a _____________ transcript.
polycistronic

*cistron is a region of DNA that encodes a single polypeptide chain
In bacteria, ___________ allows the coupling of transcription and translation.
the absence of a nucleus
Many transcription factors, nucleosome-modifying complexes, chromatin remodeling complexes, elaborate transcript modification through splicing are all processes found in...
eukaryotic cells (more elaborate than bacterial cells)
Eukaryotic mRNA usually contains information for (one/many) polypeptides.
one
____________ interact w/ each other and RNA pol II to initiate transcription.
General transcription factors (GTFs)

*promoters contain GTF binding sites
____________ bind elements to help stimulate transcription initiation.
Enhancers

*can be far from promoter
Pol II synthesizes a primary transcript of mRNA. The initial mRNA transcript is capped at the _____ end.
5'
The 5' end cap of mRNA serves as a...
recognition site for binding to ribosome and decreases degradation
The initial mRNA transcript is processed to have a poly A tail at the _____ end (for stability). The poly A tail is added by the ____________ enzyme.
3' end

poly(A) polymerase
Toxin alpha-amanitin blocks _________ and is fatal at low doses.
RNA polymerase II
Introns are removed from premature mRNA by...
splicing
Describe the progression of rRNA transcripts to their final cleaved forms.
First you make a 45S precursor rRNA strand from a set of tandemly repeated genes on DNA. This large transcript gets cleaved into 18S, 28S and 5.8S rRNAS.
What 4 things must be done to immature tRNAs before they can leave the nucleus?
1. cleavage of 5' and 3' ends
2. splicing of intron
3. replacement of 3' UU with CCA
4. Modification of bases
Thalassemias are caused by mutations that affect the synthesis of __________.
alpha or beta chains of hemoglobin
Mutations that cause beta thalassemias are found in the...
TATA box (w/i promoter), reducing the accuracy of the transcription starting point
There is only one codon combination for ___________ and ___________.
-Trp
-Met (start codon)
tRNA's bind amino acids at their ______ end and transport them to the ribosome.
3'

tRNA is a link btwn mRNA codon and specific AA
The ________ of the tRNA interacts with the codon of mRNA.
anticodon
tRNAs recognize (one/more than one) codon per amino acid. This property is called the ____________
more than one

wobble hypothesis
*reason fewer than 61 tRNAs required
In a silent mutation, a changed codon may code for

(point mutation, one base altered)
the same amino acid
In a missense mutation, a changed codon may code for

(point mutation, one base altered)
a different amino acid
In a nonsense mutation, the changed amino acid may code for

(point mutation, one base altered)
termination (stop codon)
Sickle-cell anemia is caused by a (missense/nonsense/silent) mutation.
missense
In sickle-cell anemia, the amino acid _____ replaces the normal amino acid ______.
Val replaces Glu
(GAG) (GTG)
In translation, ATP is used to...
attach AA onto the tRNA
In translation, GTP is used to...
bind the aminoacyl-tRNA to the A site and for subsequent translocation
mRNA is translated from its 5' end, producing a polypeptide synthesized from its _______ terminal.
amino
Prokaryotic mRNA is polycistronic while eukaryotic mRNA is __________.
monocistronic
(mRNA codes for only one polypeptide chain)
The attachment of amino acids to tRNA is catalyzed by specific ______________ and requires _______.
aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases, requires ATP
Aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases have a high fidelity of translation due to their ________ and ______ activities.
specificity

proofreading
(only enzyme that proofreads)
In order, the 3 sites where tRNA binds on the ribosome are the..
1. A site (initial binding)
2. P site
3. E site (exit)
In prokaryotes, the 16S rRNA contains a sequence that is complementary to the ___________ sequence of mRNA. The binding of these 2 sequences positions mRNA on the _________.
-Shine-Delgarno

-30S subunit
In eukaryotes, what subunit binds to the cap structure of mRNA?
40S
In prokaryotes, the initiator tRNA carries a ________________.
N-formylated methionine
In eukaryotes, the initiator tRNA carries a ______________.
regular methionine (not formylated)
During elongation, amino acids are added to the __________ terminus of the growing chain. This addition is catalyzed by the enzyme _________.
carboxyl

peptidyltransferase
During translation, the first tRNA (initiator tRNA of the AUG start codon) enters the ___ site.
P site (NOT A!)
Elongation of the amino acid chain continues until a _________ is read at the A site, causing _________ to hydrolyze the bond between the peptide and tRNA as well as the binding of _________.
stop codon

peptidyltransferase

release factors
Gene transcription is mostly regulated on the level of __________.
transcription
_____________ can target mRNA for degradation.
small interfering RNA
In prokaryotes, the chaperones that are members of the heat-shock protein family that help the growing protein to fold are __________ and _________.
DnaJ and DnaK
In eukaryotes, the chaperones that are members of the heat-shock protein family that help the growing protein to fold are __________ and _________.
Hsp40 and Hsp70
When a new protein is folding, disulfide bonds are formed between ______ residues by the __________ enzyme.
Cys

disulfide isomerase
Posttranslational modifications: Ser, Thr, and Tyr can be
phosphorylated or dephosphorylated

(phosphorylation most common modification)
Posttranslational modifications: Lys and Arg can be
methylated (methylation of histone is involved in regulation of transcription)
Posttranslational modifications: Pro and Lys can be
hydroxylated (Stabilization of collagen)
Posttranslational modifications: how is blood coagulated (clot formation)?
carboxylation
Posttranslational modifications: the attachment of fatty acids does what?
anchors proteins in membrane
Posttranslational modifications: Ser, Thr, or Asn residues of membrane or secreted proteins can be...
glycosylated
Posttranslational modifications: Lys in carboxylases can be
biotinylated
What is needed for the translation of proteins on the ER surface for insertion into the ER?
A signal peptide is translated--this attracts a SRP (signal recognition particle) that stops translation, binds the ribosome to the SRP receptor on the ER, and translation then resumes
Amino acids synthesized in the cytosol that are destined for the nucleus contain a...
nuclear localization signal
Amino acids synthesized in the cytosol that are destined for the mitochondria contain a...
mitochondria entry signal
Proteins destined for secretion outside the eukaryotic cell are synthesized on the...
ER surface and then released inside the ER
Why do we need transcription?
to protect DNA from cytoplasmic environment (eukaryotes)

cell does not have enough copies of genome to serve cell's metabolic needs

to regulate the rate of protein synthesis (control mRNA #, life-time, and RNA binding factors)
Describe the structural elements of the gene and their function in transcription
Promoter sequence of DNA binds RNA polymerase and proceeds coding region. Coding region contains start point and termination signal for transcription
Difference between template and coding strand
coding strand is used to determine AA sequence
template strand is used to produce mRNA
-they are complementary and antiparallel to one another
Describe the role of transcription factors in initiation of transcription
Transcription factors bind to promoters and interact with each other and RNA pol II to initiate transcription. Enhancers bind to transcription factors to make transcription MUCH more efficient.
Differences between eukaryotic and prokaryotic primary transcripts
In prokaryotes transcription & translation are coupled, no nucleus

In eukaryotes, more transcription factors, 3 RNA polymerases, modification of transcript, uncoupled, occurs in chromatin w/i nucleus
Eukaryotic Transcription:
1. initiation
2. elongation
3. termination
4. posttranslational modification
Explain the function of Cap structure and poly-A tail in eukaryotic mRNA
Cap structure decreases degradation (5' end)
poly A tail provides stability (3' end)

*coding region w/ introns & exons btwn cap and tail
Discuss the consequences of mutations in noncoding regions on the gene expression (use thallasemia as example)
promoter region mutation, reduces starting point accuracy, leads to lower level of mRNA
What do mutations in coding regions result in?
-nonsense, frameshift, missense mutations yeild unstable or inactive proteins
-splice-site mutations result in aberrantly spliced mRNA
-3' processing site mutations result in failure to polyadenylate mRNA
Characteristics of genetic code (4)
1. specificity
2. universality
3. redundancy
4. nonoverlapping and commaless
___________ binds to the 30S subunit and distorts its structure, interfering with the initiation of protein synthesis.
streptomycin
___________ interact w/ small ribosomal subunits, blocking access of the aminoacyl-tRNA to the mRNA-ribosome complex.
tetracyclines
____________ a component of the 50S ribosomal subunit, transfers the AA from the P site onto the AA at the A site & catalyzes peptide bond formation.
peptidyltransferase
_______________ inhibits prokaryotic peptidyltransferase. High levels may also inhibit mitochondrial protein synthesis.
Chloramphenicol
_________ and ________ bind irreversibly to A site on the 50S subunit of the bacterial ribosome, thus inhibiting translocation.
clindamycin and erythromycin
_________ inactivates the eukaryotic elongation factor, eEF-2, thus preventing translocation.
diptheria toxin