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124 Cards in this Set
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1. DNA has a preservation limit of about a million years, even under ideal conditions, so we cannot get genetic data from the extinct homonins such as Homo neanderthalensis. a. True b. False |
b. False |
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2. Australopithecus afarensis a. DNA evidence suggests that there was introgression between this species and modern humans b. Paleontological evidence supports the idea that these were the first homonins to use primitive stone tools, Lucy is the most complete specimen of this species c. The first homonin to migrate out of Africa and establish populations in Europe and Asia. d. Part of a “side-branch” of the human evolutionary tree with large cranial crest and robust chewing jaw. |
b. Paleontological evidence supports the idea that these were the first homonins to use primitive stone tools, Lucy is the most complete specimen of this species |
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3. Homo neanderthalensis a. DNA evidence suggests that there was introgression between this species and modern humans b. Paleontological evidence supports the idea that these were the first homonins to use primitive stone tools, Lucy is the most complete specimen of this species c. The first homonin to migrate out of Africa and establish populations in Europe and Asia. d. Part of a “side-branch” of the human evolutionary tree with large cranial crest and robust chewing jaw. |
a. DNA evidence suggests that there was introgression between this species and modern humans |
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4. Paranthropus boisei a. DNA evidence suggests that there was introgression between this species and modern humans b. Paleontological evidence supports the idea that these were the first homonins to use primitive stone tools, Lucy is the most complete specimen of this species c. The first homonin to migrate out of Africa and establish populations in Europe and Asia. d. Part of a “side-branch” of the human evolutionary tree with large cranial crest and robust chewing jaw. |
d. Part of a “side-branch” of the human evolutionary tree with large cranial crest and robust chewing jaw. |
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5. Homo erectus a. DNA evidence suggests that there was introgression between this species and modern humans b. Paleontological evidence supports the idea that these were the first homonins to use primitive stone tools, Lucy is the most complete specimen of this species c. The first homonin to migrate out of Africa and establish populations in Europe and Asia. d. Part of a “side-branch” of the human evolutionary tree with large cranial crest and robust chewing jaw. |
c. The first homonin to migrate out of Africa and establish populations in Europe and Asia. |
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6. Where did modern humans originate? a. In Europe b. In Africa c. In Asia d. As a large population across the entire old world |
b. In Africa |
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7. What evidence refutes the multiregional hypothesis regarding the origin of modern humans? a. Human populations from Africa have much more mitochondrial diversity than populations from other areas of the world. b. There is evidence of introgression between modern humans and other hominin species. c. Not all hominin species are part of the direct lineage leading to modern humans. d. Fossils of homonin species dating to nearly 2 million years ago can be found at various sites across the old world. |
a. Human populations from Africa have much more mitochondrial diversity than populations from other areas of the world. |
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8. What are the odds that you are genetically identical to a full sibling who is not your monozygotic (identical) twin? a. 1 out of 23 b. 1 out of 32.6 million c. 1 out of 7.1 billion d. > 1 out of 70 trillion |
d. > 1 out of 70 trillion |
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9. Besides random assortment of chromosomes, what other biological mechanism adds to the amount of recombination produced during meiosis? a. genetic drift b. clonal interference c. migration d. crossing over |
d. crossing over |
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10. Because the genetic code is degenerate ________________________________. a. it's necessary that cells have proof-reading mechanisms to prevent rampant mutation b. human genes can be inserted into bacterial genomes c. multiple codons are synonymous: they code for the same amino acids d. cells with too many mutations go through apoptosis |
c. multiple codons are synonymous: they code for the same amino acids |
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11. The lower the mutational rate of a species the more successful it is. a. True b. False |
b. False |
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12. Given enough time even small differences in fitness can cause large shifts in phenotype. a. True b. False |
a. True |
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13. On average, which of the following types of point mutations would have the largest effect on the phenotype of an organism? a. An in/del in the protein coding sequence of a gene b. A synonymous substitution in the coding sequence of a gene c. An in/del in the non protein coding sequence of an organisms genome d. A missense substitution in the coding sequence of a gene |
a. An in/del in the protein coding sequence of a gene |
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14. Which of the following mutations would be the most likely to lead significant changes in the size of two different chromosomes? a. A synonymous substitution in the coding sequence of a gene b. Translocation c. Inversion d. Duplication |
d. Duplication |
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15. In a protein coding sequence which position of the codon tends to accumulate the most mutations?
a. First
b. Second
c. Third d. Fourth |
c. Third |
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16. A trait that is affected by many different genes is ________________. a. pleiotropic b. polygenic c. always in H-W equilibrium d. not subject to natural selection |
b. polygenic |
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17. What is the ultimate source of all the DNA variation that we see in natural populations? a. Mistakes (mutations) during DNA replication b. Viral mediated proofreading of germ line genomes c. Random assortment of chromosomes d. Variation in populations size e. Natural selection caused by the environment |
a. Mistakes (mutations) during DNA replication |
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18. Having leaves modified into spines is an adaptation. a. True b. False c. Impossible to tell without further information. Adaptations are determined by the environment, so what might be an adaptation in one area could be detrimental in another. |
c. Impossible to tell without further information. Adaptations are determined by the environment, so what might be an adaptation in one area could be detrimental in another. |
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19. What are the three components of a population that must be present for evolution via natural selection? (mark all three) a. Variation between individuals in the population b. Fitness difference between genetic variants c. Effective population size larger than census population size d. Meiotic cell division in at least some cells e. Some of the variation must be heritable |
a. Variation between individuals in the population b. Fitness difference between genetic variants e. Some of the variation must be heritable |
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20. Evidence from long running selection experiments in E. coli bacteria suggests that two independent, but identical evolutionary experiments would _____________________. a. have significantly different outcomes due to the unpredictability of mutations b. have the exact same outcome c. have significantly different outcomes due to low fidelity of RNA translation d. violate the Heisenberg uncertainty principle |
a. have significantly different outcomes due to the unpredictability of mutations |
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21. Which of the following is the best example of antagonistic pleiotropy? a. When two organisms compete for the same resource rather than sharing. b. A mutation in a gene that allows a bacterium to resist an antibiotic, but makes it grow slightly slower. c. An individual that has a higher level of fitness due to an exaptation. d. Two species adapted to different environments due to a different number of chromosomes. |
b. A mutation in a gene that allows a bacterium to resist an antibiotic, but makes it grow slightly slower. |
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22. Which of the following statements best describes the ability of an owl to turn its head 180 around? a. This is an exaptation for its nocturnal life style. b. This is not an adaptation and is present in all birds. c. This is an adaptation that compensates for the trade-off imposed by good binocular vision. d. This is a pleiotropic effect of genes that control the development of feather morphology. |
c. This is an adaptation that compensates for the trade-off imposed by good binocular vision. |
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23. Which of the following structures is a clear example of an exaptation? a. The wings of insects b. The human skull composed of different bones that are not completely fused together at birth c. Extra vertebrae in the snakes vertebral column d. The gills of fish |
b. The human skull composed of different bones that are not completely fused together at birth |
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24. Which of the following would not violate H-W equilibrium? a. Natural selection for one allele b. A small population size c. Immigration of individuals with a particular genotype d. Non-random mating e. Independent assortment of alleles during meiosis . Non-random mating e. Independent assortment of alleles during meiosis |
e. Independent assortment of alleles during meiosis |
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25. Which of the following populations would suffer the most from inbreeding depression? a. A population of frogs with strong disassortative mating. b. A population of captive bred lizards that originated from 8 captured individuals. c. Human descendants of 50 individuals who originally colonized a remote Pacific atoll. d. A bacteria population founded by a single bacterium. |
b. A population of captive bred lizards that originated from 8 captured individuals. |
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26. In addition to genetics, which of the factors below has a major impact on the speed at which a beneficial allele will become fixed in a population? a. Whether or not it is located in the mitochondria b. The rate of metabolism of the organism c. The strength of selection for the beneficial allele d. The number of chromosomes for individuals in the population |
c. The strength of selection for the beneficial allele |
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You randomly sample one thousand individuals from a population of butterflies (sexually reproducing, diploid animals) and find the following distribution of genotypes: AA: 160 Aa: 360 aa: 480 27. What are the allele frequencies for this population? a. A: 0.2 a: 0.8 b. A: 0.45 a: 0.55 c. A: 0.9 a: 0.1 d. A: 0.34 a: 0.66 e. A: 0.4 a: 0.6 |
d. A: 0.34 a: 0.66 |
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You randomly sample one thousand individuals from a population of butterflies (sexually reproducing, diploid animals) and find the following distribution of genotypes: AA: 160 Aa: 360 aa: 480 28. The above population is in Hardy-Weinberg Equilibrium. a. True b. False |
b. False |
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You come back after three years and find the following distributions of genotypes in the population of butterflies from above:AA: 160 Aa: 480 aa: 360 29. What are the allele frequencies in the population now? a. A: 0.2 a: 0.8 b. A: 0.45 a: 0.55 c. A: 0.9 a: 0.1 d. A: 0.34 a: 0.66 e. A: 0.4 a: 0.6 |
e. A: 0.4 a: 0.6 |
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You come back after three years and find the following distributions of genotypes in the population of butterflies from above:AA: 160 Aa: 480 aa: 360 30. Evolution occurred for this gene between the original population and the population three years later. a. True b. False |
a. True |
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A random sample from a population of vines (sexually reproducing, diploid) has a genotype and phenotype distribution of: AA: 250, red flowers Aa: 500, pink flowers aa: 250, white flowers 31. If each flower color has a different species of bee acting as a pollinator what is the most likely distribution of phenotypes in the next generation? a. 100 red flowering vines, 100 pink flowering vines, 800 white flowering vines b. 375 red flowering vines, 250 pink flowering vines, 375 white flowering vines c. 250 red flowering vines, 500 pink flowering vines, 250 white flowering vines d. 50 red flowering vines, 900 pink flowering vines, 50 white flowering vines |
b. 375 red flowering vines, 250 pink flowering vines, 375 white flowering vines |
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A random sample from a population of vines (sexually reproducing, diploid) has a genotype and phenotype distribution of: AA: 250, red flowers Aa: 500, pink flowers aa: 250, white flowers 32. What type of natural selection has occurred in this population of flowering vines? a. diversifying selection b. stabilizing selection c. directional selection d. incomplete selection |
a. diversifying selection |
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33. Which of the following represents a Hardy-Weinberg equation that has been modified to model the effect of natural selection on a population? a. p2 + q2 + r2 + 2pq + 2pr + 2qr = 1 b. p2 + 2pq + q2 = 2 c. (p-3s)2 + 2(p-s)q + q2 = 1 d. p4 + 2p2q2 + q4 = 1 |
c. (p-3s)2 + 2(p-s)q + q2 = 1 |
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34. The bright, aposematic coloration of poison dart frogs is the result of __________________. a. positive frequency dependent selection b. epistatic interactions of multiple genes c. negative frequency dependent selection d. inbreeding |
a. positive frequency dependent selection |
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35. What is the result of negative frequency dependant selection, such as that observed among male morphotypes in some dung beetle species? a. Loss of genetic diversity due to fixation of one allele b. Strong inbreeding depression c. A balance point is reached and diversity of this behavior is maintained d. The species naturally splits into two populations. This may be the beginning of speciation. |
c. A balance point is reached and diversity of this behavior is maintained |
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36. Which of the three types of frequency independent selection is of most interest to scientists studying speciation? a. Underdominance, also called diversifying selection b. Directional selection c. Overdominance, also called stabilizing selection |
a. Underdominance, also called diversifying selection |
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37. A characteristic, such as height on humans, controlled by many different genes is an example of a(n) ____________. a. haplotype b. antagonistic pleiotropy c. epistatic interference d. polygenic trait |
d. polygenic trait |
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38. Polygeny, coupled with differing environmental effects, most often results in _______________. a. overdominance b. continuous traits c. fixation of deleterious alleles d. a reduction in the size of the genome |
b. continuous traits |
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39. Fixation of an advantageous allele in a population is the inevitable outcome of _______________ selection. a. diversifying b. natural c. directional d. stabilizing |
c. directional |
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40. What is genetic linkage? a. A high correlation of two specific alleles for different genes due to their proximity on a chromosome. b. The tendency of genetically similar individuals to mate with one another. c. The frequency of mutation that occurs in a subpopulation, this variability can then spread to the population as a whole. d. The way the genetic code is transferred from the nucleus of a cell to the mitochondria. |
a. A high correlation of two specific alleles for different genes due to their proximity on a chromosome. |
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41. In bacteria, all traits are genetically linked to one another because bacteria are haploid and therefore have no recombination. a. True b. False |
a. True |
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42. In addition to genetic linkage, which of the following things can cause an unusually high level of correlation of different traits? a. If one is a very ancient mutation and the other happened very recently. b. If the genes controlling those two traits are found on different chromosomes. c. If there is an imbalance in the number of males and females in the population. d. If they are only beneficial when both of them are present together. |
d. If they are only beneficial when both of them are present together. |
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43. Compensatory mutation a. Researchers notice an abnormally high level of genetic linkage in an area of the genome near an allele that is thought to be a strong adaptation. b. A bacterium gets a mutation that allows it to resist antibiotics and after a few hundred generations all bacteria in that population are descended from that bacterium and carry the new mutation. c. A bacterium gets a mutation that allows it to survive prolonged periods of drought, however this mutation also makes it reproduce more slowly. A second mutation at a different locus allows a descendent of the bacterium to partially overcome this detrimental effect of slower reproduction. d. Two bacteria in the same population have different beneficial mutations, these two strains compete against one another until one strain goes extinct. |
c. A bacterium gets a mutation that allows it to survive prolonged periods of drought, however this mutation also makes it reproduce more slowly. A second mutation at a different locus allows a descendent of the bacterium to partially overcome this detrimental effect of slower reproduction. |
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44. Clonal interference a. Researchers notice an abnormally high level of genetic linkage in an area of the genome near an allele that is thought to be a strong adaptation. b. A bacterium gets a mutation that allows it to resist antibiotics and after a few hundred generations all bacteria in that population are descended from that bacterium and carry the new mutation. c. A bacterium gets a mutation that allows it to survive prolonged periods of drought, however this mutation also makes it reproduce more slowly. A second mutation at a different locus allows a descendent of the bacterium to partially overcome this detrimental effect of slower reproduction. d. Two bacteria in the same population have different beneficial mutations, these two strains compete against one another until one strain goes extinct. |
d. Two bacteria in the same population have different beneficial mutations, these two strains compete against one another until one strain goes extinct. |
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45. Haplotype blocks a. Researchers notice an abnormally high level of genetic linkage in an area of the genome near an allele that is thought to be a strong adaptation. b. A bacterium gets a mutation that allows it to resist antibiotics and after a few hundred generations all bacteria in that population are descended from that bacterium and carry the new mutation. c. A bacterium gets a mutation that allows it to survive prolonged periods of drought, however this mutation also makes it reproduce more slowly. A second mutation at a different locus allows a descendent of the bacterium to partially overcome this detrimental effect of slower reproduction. d. Two bacteria in the same population have different beneficial mutations, these two strains compete against one another until one strain goes extinct. |
a. Researchers notice an abnormally high level of genetic linkage in an area of the genome near an allele that is thought to be a strong adaptation. |
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46. Selective sweep a. Researchers notice an abnormally high level of genetic linkage in an area of the genome near an allele that is thought to be a strong adaptation. b. A bacterium gets a mutation that allows it to resist antibiotics and after a few hundred generations all bacteria in that population are descended from that bacterium and carry the new mutation. c. A bacterium gets a mutation that allows it to survive prolonged periods of drought, however this mutation also makes it reproduce more slowly. A second mutation at a different locus allows a descendent of the bacterium to partially overcome this detrimental effect of slower reproduction. d. Two bacteria in the same population have different beneficial mutations, these two strains compete against one another until one strain goes extinct. |
b. A bacterium gets a mutation that allows it to resist antibiotics and after a few hundred generations all bacteria in that population are descended from that bacterium and carry the new mutation. |
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47. Sexually reproducing organisms are much more exposed to the effects of clonal interference. a. True b. False |
b. False |
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48. What was the original process of maping gene’s relative position on chromosomes? a. Fluorescent in situ hybridization (FISH) b. Quantitative trait loci (QTL) analysis c. Crossing experiments in fruit flies that counted rare recombinant phenotypes of linked alleles d. Genomic sequencing |
c. Crossing experiments in fruit flies that counted rare recombinant phenotypes of linked alleles |
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49. If I wanted to locate every gene in an organisms genome which of the following approaches would be best to use? a. Fluorescent in situ hybridization (FISH) b. Quantitative trait loci (QTL) analysis c. Crossing experiments in fruit flies that counted rare recombinant phenotypes of linked alleles d. Genomic sequencing |
d. Genomic sequencing |
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50. Quantitative trait loci (QTL) analysis allows us to find regions of the genome that contain genetic elements that play a role in a specific phenotype. This process relies on ________________.
a. genetic linkage of markers spread across the genome b. mitochondrial replication c. high levels of crossing over between homologous chromosomes d. antibiotic resistance of the bacteria being studied |
a. genetic linkage of markers spread across the genome |
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1. James Hutton and Charles Lyell a. First person to describe in detail the idea of natural selection, also supported the idea that all life on earth shares a common ancestor b. Largely responsible for the “Green Revolution” which has allowed us to provide enough food for the human population c. Described the concept of uniformitarianism, which is that we can understand what happened in the past by studying the world today d. Described a theory of evolution |
c. Described the concept of uniformitarianism, which is that we can understand what happened in the past by studying the world today |
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2. Norman Borlaug a. First person to describe in detail the idea of natural selection, also supported the idea that all life on earth shares a common ancestor b. Largely responsible for the “Green Revolution” which has allowed us to provide enough food for the human population c. Described the concept of uniformitarianism, which is that we can understand what happened in the past by studying the world today d. Described a theory of evolution |
b. Largely responsible for the “Green Revolution” which has allowed us to provide enough food for the human population |
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3. Jean Baptiste Lamarck a. First person to describe in detail the idea of natural selection, also supported the idea that all life on earth shares a common ancestor b. Largely responsible for the “Green Revolution” which has allowed us to provide enough food for the human population c. Described the concept of uniformitarianism, which is that we can understand what happened in the past by studying the world today d. Described a theory of evolution |
d. Described a theory of evolution |
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4. Charles Darwin a. First person to describe in detail the idea of natural selection, also supported the idea that all life on earth shares a common ancestor b. Largely responsible for the “Green Revolution” which has allowed us to provide enough food for the human population c. Described the concept of uniformitarianism, which is that we can understand what happened in the past by studying the world today d. Described a theory of evolution |
a. First person to describe in detail the idea of natural selection, also supported the idea that all life on earth shares a common ancestor |
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5. What are the two key differences between Lamarck hypotheses about the nature of evolution and Darwin’s? (mark the two best choices) a. Darwin hypothesized a common origin for all life on earth, while Lamarck hypothesized that each species had its own, unique origin. b. Darwin hypothesized that the earth was very old, while Lamarck hypothesized that it must be less than 10,000 years old. c. Lamarck hypothesized that traits gained during an individual organism’s life could be passed on to offspring, while Darwin hypothesized that individuals only passed on traits they themselves had inherited. d. Darwin was able to integrate Mendel’s ideas about genetics into his work, while Lamarck could never reconcile evolution and genetics. |
a. Darwin hypothesized a common origin for all life on earth, while Lamarck hypothesized that each species had its own, unique origin. c. Lamarck hypothesized that traits gained during an individual organism’s life could be passed on to offspring, while Darwin hypothesized that individuals only passed on traits they themselves had inherited. |
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6. A human couple are both heterozygous for gene A, a gene with only two different alleles. If they produce two offspring (not monozygotic twins) what are the odds that both of those offspring would also be heterozygous for gene A? a. 1 out of 2 b. 1 out of 4 c. 1 out of 8 d. 1 out of 23 |
b. 1 out of 4 |
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7. What are the odds that both of the offspring in the question above are genetically identical? a. 1 out of 23 b. 1 out of 32 million c. 1 out of 7.3 billion d. > 1 out of 76 trillion |
d. > 1 out of 76 trillion |
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8. Which of the following is not a reason that the Scala Naturae is a bad representation of connections between life on earth? a. All life on earth shares a common ancestor. b. Species are adapted to thrive in different niches and more complex does not necessarily mean better, or more advanced. c. Autotrophs such as plants and algae cannot be included on the Scala Naturae. d. Many, very different organisms are of equivalent complexity and it is impossible to objectively rank them and place them in order on a Scala Naturae. |
c. Autotrophs such as plants and algae cannot be included on the Scala Naturae. |
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9. Which of the following best describes the hypothesis of Thomas Malthus and his work on population growth when applied to the human population over the last two hundred years? a. The human population, unlike most populations, doesn’t grow exponentially and so we have avoided the problem of not having enough resources for our population. b. The “green revolution” has allowed our agricultural production to keep up with the exponential growth of the human population. c. Wars, famines and genocide have prevented the human population from growing exponentially. d. Because of disease and it’s impact on the early homonin species we are only now beginning to experience the conflict between population size and resource availability. |
b. The “green revolution” has allowed our agricultural production to keep up with the exponential growth of the human population. |
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10. What are the two key components of cell theory? (mark both answers) a. All living organisms are made up of cells b. Cell frequently spontaneously generate from dead, organic matter c. All cells come from the division of other, pre-existing cells d. Meiosis generates much less complexity of cells than mitosis e. Eukaryotic cells are much better adapted to harsh environments then bacteria cells |
a. All living organisms are made up of cells c. All cells come from the division of other, pre-existing cells |
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11. What is the primary source of all genetic diversity found in populations? a. Errors during reverse transcription of ribosomal RNA b. Errors during DNA replication prior to mitosis of somatic cells c. Errors during DNA replication prior to meiosis in germ-line cells d. Recombination of alleles during meiosis in germ-line cells |
c. Errors during DNA replication prior to meiosis in germ-line cells |
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12. Which of the following is an example of the degeneracy of the genetic code? a. The amino acid methionine has only a single codon associated with it: AUG b. DNA contains the nucleic acid thyamine, while RNA contains the nucleic acid uracil c. Six different codons can code for the amino acid Serine d. Some mRNAs are translated on ribosomes in the endoplasmic reticulum, but others are translated on free-floating ribosomes e. In eukaryotes genes are composed of regions that are eventually translated into proteins (exons) and regions that are spliced out prior to protein translation (introns) |
c. Six different codons can code for the amino acid Serine |
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13. Synonymous mutation a. In protein coding regions these happen most frequently when a substitution occurs at the third position in a reading frame b. When these occur in protein coding regions they commonly lead to a frameshift mutation. c. This occurs every time there is a substitution at the second position in the reading frame of a protein coding region d. Occurs when a substitution changes an amino acid to a stop codon |
a. In protein coding regions these happen most frequently when a substitution occurs at the third position in a reading frame |
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14. In/del mutation a. In protein coding regions these happen most frequently when a substitution occurs at the third position in a reading frame b. When these occur in protein coding regions they commonly lead to a frameshift mutation. c. This occurs every time there is a substitution at the second position in the reading frame of a protein coding region d. Occurs when a substitution changes an amino acid to a stop codon |
b. When these occur in protein coding regions they commonly lead to a frameshift mutation. |
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15. Nonsense mutation a. In protein coding regions these happen most frequently when a substitution occurs at the third position in a reading frame b. When these occur in protein coding regions they commonly lead to a frameshift mutation. c. This occurs every time there is a substitution at the second position in the reading frame of a protein coding region d. Occurs when a substitution changes an amino acid to a stop codon |
d. Occurs when a substitution changes an amino acid to a stop codon |
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16. Missense mutation a. In protein coding regions these happen most frequently when a substitution occurs at the third position in a reading frame b. When these occur in protein coding regions they commonly lead to a frameshift mutation. c. This occurs every time there is a substitution at the second position in the reading frame of a protein coding region d. Occurs when a substitution changes an amino acid to a stop codon |
c. This occurs every time there is a substitution at the second position in the reading frame of a protein coding region |
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17. Which of the following mutations would be the most likely to lead to the creation of paralogous gene copies? a. A synonymous substitution in the coding sequence of a gene b. Translocation c. Inversion d. Duplication |
d. Duplication |
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18. Determine the reading frame for the alignment of homologous genes below and select the true statement. a. There is a stop codon at amino acid #12 in the Bee gene b. The first complete codon for the Bee is AAC c. The first complete codon for the Bee is ACA d. The first complete codon for the Bee is CAA |
b. The first complete codon for the Bee is AAC |
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19. The phenotype of an organism is determined by both its genotype and its ________________. a. environment b. population size c. cellular dispersal rate d. adaptation coefficient |
a. environment |
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20. What would happen if I placed two genetically identical populations in separate, but identical environments for 5000 thousand years? a. They would be the same because five thousand years is not enough time for evolution to occur b. They would be the same because natural selection would be the exact same in both environment and therefore would cause each population to evolve identically c. They would be different because the random nature of mutations would create different patterns of diversity in the different populations d. They would be different because it is impossible to have genetically identical populations and the small difference between the two would be magnified over the years by natural selection |
c. They would be different because the random nature of mutations would create different patterns of diversity in the different populations |
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21. Which of the following statements best describes the trait of having a skull composed of different bones that are not fused tightly together until some time after birth? a. This is an exaptation for humans because it has been present for a long time in our ancestors, but only became an advantage fairly recently. b. This is an adaptation that is the main reason why mammals are the dominant large vertebrates on land. c. This is a vestigial feature that was once a key reason for the success of our ancestors, but no longer serves a function in humans. d. This is a pleiotropic trait that also helps to control the proteins that are used to form the crystalline lenses in mammalian eyes |
a. This is an exaptation for humans because it has been present for a long time in our ancestors, but only became an advantage fairly recently. |
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22. How many different groups of animals have independently evolved true flight? a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5 |
c. 4 |
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23. Which group serves as the best model for the evolution of the complex eye and why? a. Crustaceans, because their eyes have multiple lenses that work together to convey information to the brain. b. Annelids, because they are able to regenerate their eyes when they lose them. c. Vertebrates, because they have the most complex eye of any animal. d. Mollusks, because different species have photoreceptors that vary greatly in complexity and these demonstrate some of the intermediate steps from simple to complex. |
d. Mollusks, because different species have photoreceptors that vary greatly in complexity and these demonstrate some of the intermediate steps from simple to complex. |
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24. Which of the following is not true of feathers? a. Different feathers are serially homologous: in ancestors they were all very similar, but have diversified so that different feathers can have different jobs b. Some feathers originally had a different function, most likely display, but evolved additional functions such as providing insulation for thermoregulation c. Some feathers no longer serve the function that originally provided their adaptive benefit, that’s why they were able to evolve in such a way to accommodate flight d. Feathers originally evolved in the ancestor of amniotes, but were lost in multiple descendant lineages |
d. Feathers originally evolved in the ancestor of amniotes, but were lost in multiple descendant lineages |
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25. Which of the following would violate H-W equilibrium and cause a population to evolve? (mark all that apply) a. Assortative mating b. Disassortative mating c. Very large population size d. Non-random mating e. Independent assortment of alleles during meiosis |
a. Assortative mating b. Disassortative mating d. Non-random mating |
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You randomly sample one thousand individuals from a population of stoats (sexually reproducing, diploid animals) and find the following distribution of genotypes for gene A: AA: 400Aa: 200aa: 400 26. What are the allele frequencies for this population? a. A: 0.25 a: 0.75 b. A: 0.5 a: 0.5 c. A: 0.9 a: 0.1 d. A: 0.4 a: 0.6 |
b. A: 0.5 a: 0.5 |
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You randomly sample one thousand individuals from a population of stoats (sexually reproducing, diploid animals) and find the following distribution of genotypes for gene A: AA: 400Aa: 200aa: 400 27. The above population is in Hardy-Weinberg Equilibrium. a. True b. False |
b. False |
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You come back after three years and find the following distributions of genotypes in the population: 28. Evolution occurred for this gene between the original population and the population three years later. a. True b. False |
a. True |
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You come back after three years and find the following distributions of genotypes in the population: 29. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for the pattern observed when comparing the original population of stoats above to the population three years later? a. No evolution occurred, because the forces keeping the population out of H-W equilibrium were constant. b. Evolution occurred, this was caused by random emigration of individual butterflies. c. No evolution occurred, the population was originally at H-W equilibrium and remained there. d. Evolution occurred, this was caused by a directional natural selection force e. Evolution occurred, this was caused because some underdominant force that was acting on the population was removed and H-W equilibrium was restored. |
e. Evolution occurred, this was caused because some underdominant force that was acting on the population was removed and H-W equilibrium was restored. |
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A random sample from a population of blackbirds (sexually reproducing, diploid) has a genotype and phenotype distribution of: AA: 250, red eyes Aa: 500, red eyes aa: 250, yellow eyes 30. If a behavioral change causes individuals with red eyes to only mate with individuals with yellow eyes and vice versa, what genotype frequencies would you expect in the next generation? a. 0.3 AA, 0.4 Aa, 0.3 aa b. 0 AA, 0.66 Aa, 0.33 aa c. 0.25 AA, 0.5 Aa, 0.25 aa d. 0.8 AA, 0.1 Aa, 0.1 aa |
b. 0 AA, 0.66 Aa, 0.33 aa |
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A random sample from a population of blackbirds (sexually reproducing, diploid) has a genotype and phenotype distribution of: AA: 250, red eyes Aa: 500, red eyes aa: 250, yellow eyes 31. For the population in the question above, if there was random mating with respect to eye color and the red-eyed phenotype had a fitness level of zero, how would the population evolve? a. After many generations the A allele would be reduced to only a small percentage of all the alleles in the population b. After a single generation the a allele would be fixed in the population c. No evolution would occur under the conditions described d. The species would become extinct within a few generations |
b. After a single generation the a allele would be fixed in the population |
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32. In addition to genetics, what other factor has a major impact on the speed at which a beneficial allele will become fixed in a population? a. Whether or not it is an adaptation b. The rate of metabolism of the organism c. The strength of selection for the beneficial allele d. The number of chromosomes for individuals in the population |
c. The strength of selection for the beneficial allele |
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33. The sneaker male phenotype, where one type of male takes advantage of a larger type of male and can only mate using this strategy is an example of ___________________. a. positive frequency dependent selection b. epistatic interactions of multiple genes c. negative frequency dependent selection d. inbreeding |
c. negative frequency dependent selection |
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34. What is the result of positive frequency dependent selection, such as that observed fore species with aposematic coloration? a. Loss of genetic diversity due to fixation of one allele. b. Strong inbreeding depression c. A balance point is reached and diversity of this behavior is maintained d. The species naturally splits into two populations. This may be the beginning of speciation. |
a. Loss of genetic diversity due to fixation of one allele. |
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35. A genetic mutation that may or may not lead to phenotypic diversity is an example of a new ____________. a. haplotype b. antagonistic pleiotropy c. epistatic interference d. polygenic trait |
a. haplotype |
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36. What is the main biological force that causes the dissipation of genetic linkage?
a. New mutations b. Migration of individuals from areas with high population density to areas with low population density c. Crossing over of homologous alleles during meiosis d. Dissassortative mating |
c. Crossing over of homologous alleles during meiosis |
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37. Selective sweep a. This happens commonly in asexually reproducing species and is the mechanism by which bacteria have gained resistance to multiple antibiotics. b. This doesn’t affect sexually reproducing organisms because two separate mutations with different adaptive advantages can be combined in offspring. c. This is caused by genetic linkage and strong directional selection for an advantageous allele. d. Occurs when a second mutational event at a different gene lessens the negative side effects of an overall beneficial trait. |
a. This happens commonly in asexually reproducing species and is the mechanism by which bacteria have gained resistance to multiple antibiotics. |
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38. Compensatory mutation a. This happens commonly in asexually reproducing species and is the mechanism by which bacteria have gained resistance to multiple antibiotics. b. This doesn’t affect sexually reproducing organisms because two separate mutations with different adaptive advantages can be combined in offspring. c. This is caused by genetic linkage and strong directional selection for an advantageous allele. d. Occurs when a second mutational event at a different gene lessens the negative side effects of an overall beneficial trait. |
d. Occurs when a second mutational event at a different gene lessens the negative side effects of an overall beneficial trait. |
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39. Clonal interference a. This happens commonly in asexually reproducing species and is the mechanism by which bacteria have gained resistance to multiple antibiotics. b. This doesn’t affect sexually reproducing organisms because two separate mutations with different adaptive advantages can be combined in offspring. c. This is caused by genetic linkage and strong directional selection for an advantageous allele. d. Occurs when a second mutational event at a different gene lessens the negative side effects of an overall beneficial trait. |
b. This doesn’t affect sexually reproducing organisms because two separate mutations with different adaptive advantages can be combined in offspring. |
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40. Haplotype block a. This happens commonly in asexually reproducing species and is the mechanism by which bacteria have gained resistance to multiple antibiotics. b. This doesn’t affect sexually reproducing organisms because two separate mutations with different adaptive advantages can be combined in offspring. c. This is caused by genetic linkage and strong directional selection for an advantageous allele. d. Occurs when a second mutational event at a different gene lessens the negative side effects of an overall beneficial trait. |
c. This is caused by genetic linkage and strong directional selection for an advantageous allele. |
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41. If I wanted to gather data to determine if two genes of interest were linked in a study organism with an undescribed genome, which of the following would not be a productive strategy? a. Examine differential expression of these two genes in at least three different tissue types b. Determine if there was an unusual association of phenotypes associated with traits controlled by these genes c. Sequence the entire genome and then locate the position of the genes of interest d. Perform a fluorescent in-situ hybridization (FISH) for both genes in a karyotype for the organism |
a. Examine differential expression of these two genes in at least three different tissue types |
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42. The process of Quantitative Trait Locus (QTL) mapping uses patterns generated by which biological process to identify regions of the genome that impact a trait of interest? a. Transfer of plasmids between prokaryotic cells b. Mitochondrial diversification following mitosis c. Inversion mutations during meiotic cell divisions d. Genetic linkage of haplotypes e. Disassortative mating based on behavioral reinforcement |
d. Genetic linkage of haplotypes |
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Why did it take so long to unify the ideas of natural selection and Mendelian genetics? o A. Darwin’s ideas were superseded by Lamarck’s until Weismann’s cell theory disproved the likelihood of common spontaneous generation. o B. Mathematical model of sufficient complexity couldn’t be developed before the advent of modern computers. o C. The importance of Mendel’s work on genetic inheritance was largely ignored for nearly 80 years. o D. The ideas are too disparate and common ground was impossible until the theory of uniformitarianism provided a way to merge the two. |
C. The importance of Mendel’s work on genetic inheritance was largely ignored for nearly 80 years. |
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Most natural populations have high levels of genetic diversity. o A. True o B. False |
A. True |
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Having leaves modified into species is an adaptation o A. True o B. False o C. Impossible to tell without further information. Adaptations are determined by the environment, so what might be an adaptation in one area could be detrimental in another. |
C. Impossible to tell without further information. Adaptations are determined by the environment, so what might be an adaptation in one area could be detrimental in another. |
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What is the best way to assess whether or not two complex structures are homologous? o A. Look at the fine details of the structure to see how similar they truly are. o B. Determine which genes are responsible for the development of the structure. o C. Estimate the genome size of each organism, if they are not significantly different in size than the structures are most likely homologous. o D. Map the evolutionary origin of the structures onto a well-supported phylogeny. |
D. Map the evolutionary origin of the structures onto a well-supported phylogeny. |
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What is the result of co-option of an already present gene to perform an additional new function? o A. This results in pleiotropy of the gene and an additional constraint on its evolution. o B. This results in a shift of the genetic code with a tendency to have fewer synonymous mutations. o C. This results in a reduction in the structure and complexity of the chromosomes. o D. This results in increased genetic diversity and is the first step towards speciation. |
A. This results in pleiotropy of the gene and an additional constraint on its evolution. |
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You randomly sample one thousand individuals from a population of butterflies (sexually reproducing, diploid animals) and find the following distribution of genotypes: AA: 160Aa: 480aa: 360The above population is in Hardy-Weinberg Equilibrium. o A. True o B. False |
A. True |
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You come back after three years and find the following distributions of genotypes in the population:AA: 50Aa: 700aa: 250Evolution occurred for this gene between the original population and the population three years later. o A. True o B. False |
A. True |
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Which of the following is the most likely explanation for the pattern observed when comparing the original population of butterflies above to the population three years later? o A. No evolution occurred, because the forces keeping the population out of H-W equilibrium were constant. o B. Evolution occurred, this was caused by random emigration of individual butterflies. o C. No evolution occurred, the population was originally at H-W equilibrium and remained there. o D. Evolution occurred, this was caused by a directional natural selection force o E. Evolution occurred, this was caused by an overdominant natural selection force |
E. Evolution occurred, this was caused by an overdominant natural selection force |
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Which of the following population would suffer the most from inbreeding depression? o A. A population of frogs with strong disassortative mating. o B. A population of captive bred lizards that originated from 8 captured individuals. o C. Human descendants of 50 individuals who originally colonized an remote Pacific atoll. o D. A bacteria population founded by a single bacterium. |
B. A population of captive bred lizards that originated from 8 captured individuals. |
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If all other conditions are identical, adaptive mutations that are dominant will become fixed more quickly than adaptive mutations that are recessive. o A. True o B. False |
B. False |
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A. James Hutton and Charles Lyell [OPEN ENDED] |
Responsible for uniformitarianism |
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B. Alfred Wallace [OPEN ENDED] |
Darwin and this individual both independently came up with the theory of evolution via natural selection |
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C. Jean Baptiste Lamark [OPEN ENDED] |
Responsible for a theory of evolution that includes both the idea of the inheritance of physical traits acquired during an organism's life and the independent generation fo each species |
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D. Aristotle [OPEN ENDED] |
An early proponent of the idea of the scala naturae, an idea that depicts relationships among living organisms as a ladder with a progression of complexity from the bottom to the top |
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A. Role of serial homology [OPEN ENDED] |
A duplication of the cortisol gene resulted in tetrapod vertebrates with two paralogous gene copies with different function |
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B. New function for old traits [OPEN ENDED] |
Feathers originally functioned as structures for display and camouflage, and only later also took on the function of providing lift during flight |
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C. Release from ancestral function [OPEN ENDED] |
The forelimbs of bird ancestors were first used for locomotion, but later lost this function in the therapod dinosaurs |
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1. To which of the following taxa does the human species belong? a. Vertebrates b. Mammals c. Primates d. Homonids e. All of the above |
e. All of the above |
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2. Which of the following species is most closely related to humans? a. Pan paniscus b. Homo erectus c. Australopithecus afarensis d. Gorilla gorilla |
b. Homo erectus |
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3. DNA from extinct species cannot be used for modern analyses because DNA can only survive for a maximum of about 100 years even under ideal conditions. a. True b. False |
b. False |
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4. Which of the following is a synapomorphy for the homonins? a. Use of tools b. Ability to communicate using complex language c. Bipedalism d. Increased efficiency in digestive tract |
c. Bipedalism |
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5. Archaeological and genetic evidence support the ______________ hypothesis, which describes the biogeographical origin of the human species. a. multiregional b. out of Africa c. sinoindian d. Denisovian hybrid |
b. out of Africa |
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1. Humans are unique in that we are the only species with a sense of fairness. a. True b. False |
b. False |
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2. What is meant when we say that the genetic code is degenerate? a. It varies widely among organisms, particularly if you compare bacteria and eukaryotes. b. Over time mRNA are degraded and the components are transported into the nucleus so they can be reused. c. As an organism ages the genetic code has less fidelity so that there are more mistakes during replication of DNA. d. There are 64 possible codons and only 20 amino acids, so some amino acids are coded for by multiple codons. |
d. There are 64 possible codons and only 20 amino acids, so some amino acids are coded for by multiple codons. |
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3. On average, which of the following mutations would have the most impact on the phenotype of an organism? a. Substitution in a non-protein coding region b. Substitution in the first codon position of a protein coding region c. Insertion/Deletion in a non-protein coding region d. Insertion/Deletion in the first codon position of a protein coding region |
d. Insertion/Deletion in the first codon position of a protein coding region |
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4. Environmental conditions cause specific types of mutations that allow organisms to adapt to that environment. For example, organisms living in dry areas more often experience mutations that conserve water when compared to mutations for organisms living in wet areas. a. True b. False |
b. False |
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5. The most fit individual in a population would be assigned a relative fitness of ____. a. 1 b. 0.75 c. 0.5 d. 0 |
a. 1 |
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1. A gene in a population of sexually reproducing organisms with the following genotype frequencies is at Hardy-Weinberg Equilibrium: BB 100, Bb 800, bb 100 a. True b. False c. Impossible to determine |
b. False |
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2. Which of the following evolutionary forces would be the best explanation for the genotype frequencies in the population in the above question? a. There are no evolutionary forces acting on this gene in this population b. Overdominance (Heterozygote Advantage) c. Assortative mating d. Genetic Drift e. Directional Selection |
b. Overdominance (Heterozygote Advantage) |
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3. If a population is at Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, which of the following allele frequencies would yield the smallest number of heterozygotes? a. A=0.50, B=0.50 b. A=0.10, B=0.90 c. A=0.25, B=0.75 d. A=0.75, B=0.25 |
b. A=0.10, B=0.90 |
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4. Which of the following could be used to modify the H-W equilibrium to account for natural selection? a. An exponent of declension b. A coefficient of selection c. A genetic realigner d. A summation of alleles |
b. A coefficient of selection |
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5. Fixation occurs when one allele becomes the only allele for a gene in a population, meaning that all other alleles for that gene have been lost. a. True b. False |
a. True |
