Bio 152 Test 3

Front 1

1) What is the maximum number of oxygen molecules that one fully-loaded hemoglobin molecule can transport?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
E) 6

Back 1

D

Front 2

2) TRUE or FALSE: Peristalsis involves the contraction of circular, but not longitudinal, muscle.
A) TRUE
B) FALSE

Back 2

False

Front 3

3) What tissue joins muscles to bones?
A) ligaments
B) tendons
C) loose connective tissue
D) Haversian systems
E) spindle fibers

Back 3

B

Front 4

4) The affect of the hormone ADH (antidiuretic hormone) is to
A) Increase the rate of filtration in the lacteals
B) Make the collecting duct release more water to the surrounding tissues
C) Make the descending arm of the loop of Henle less permeable to salt
D) Increase the rate of active transport of nutrients out of the Malpighian tubules
E) Increase heartbeat rate

Back 4

B

Front 5

5) Which example best describes an example of homeostasis?
A) The core body temperature of a runner gradually rises from 37°C to 45°C.
B) The kidneys excrete excess salt into the urine in response to an increase in dietary salt intake.
C) A red blood cell shrinks when it is placed in a solution of salt and water.
D) The blood volume increases in response to an increase in fluid intake.
E) Peristalsis in the trachea ceases following ingestion.

Back 5

B

Front 6

6) In their response to gravity, roots display
A) Positive gravitropism
B) Negative gravitropism

Back 6

A

Front 7

7) The apical bud of a pine tree inhibits the growth of lateral buds through the production of
A) abscisic acid
B) ethylene
C) cytokinin
D) gibberellin
E) auxin

Back 7

E

Front 8

8) Which of these conclusions is supported by the research of both Went and Charles and Frances Darwin on shoot responses to light?
A) When shoots are exposed to light, a chemical substance migrates toward the light.
B) Agar contains a chemical substance that mimics a plant hormone.
C) A chemical substance involved in shoot bending is produced in shoot tips.
D) Once shoot tips have been cut, normal growth cannot be induced.
E) Light stimulates the synthesis of a plant hormone that responds to light.

Back 8

C

Front 9

9) Which of the following hormones is associated with the “foolish seedling” disease?
A) brassinosteroids
B) cytokinin
C) gibberellin
D) abscisic acid
E) ethylene

Back 9

C

Front 10

10) Both the ripening of fruit, and the dropping of leaves and fruit, are mainly controlled by
A) auxins
B) cytokinins
C) brassinosteroids
D) ethylene
E) carbon dioxide in the air

Back 10

D

Front 11

11) All of the following are movements plants can accomplish except
A) growth movements up or down in response to gravity.
B) folding and unfolding of leaves using muscle-like tissues.
C) growth movements toward or away from light.
D) changes in plant growth in response to touch.
E) rapid leaf movements in response to mechanical stimulation

Back 11

B

Front 12

12) Under what conditions would asexual plants have the greatest advantage over sexual plants?
A) an environment that varies on a regular, predictable basis
B) an environment with irregular fluctuations of conditions
C) a constant environment with very few disturbances
D) an environment maintained by fire
E) an environment with many seed predators

Back 12

C

Front 13

13) Which of the following is true in plants?
A) Mitosis occurs in gametophytes to produce gametes.
B) Meiosis occurs in sporophytes to produce spores.
C) The gametophyte is within the flower in angiosperms.
D) A and B only
E) A, B, and C

Back 13

E

Front 14

14) Which of the following are characteristic of most angiosperms?
A) a triploid endosperm within the seed.
B) an ovary that becomes a fruit.
C) a small, reduced, sporophyte
D) A and B only
E) A, B, and C

Back 14

D

Front 15

15) Which of the following is the correct order of floral organs from the outside to the inside of a complete flower?
A) petals – sepals – stamens – carpels
B) sepals – stamens – petals – carpels
C) spores – gametes – zygote – embryo
D) sepals – petals – stamens – carpels
E) male gametophyte – female gametophyte – sepals – petals

Back 15

D

Front 16

16) What is the first structure to emerge from a germinating eudicot seed?
A) plumule (embryonic leaves)
B) hypocotyl
C) epicotyl
D) radicle (embryonic root)
E) shoot

Back 16

D

Front 17

17) Where does meiosis occur in flowering plants?
A) megasporocyte
B) microsporocyte
C) endosperm
D) pollen tube
E) A and B

Back 17

E

Front 18

18) What is the difference between pollination and fertilization in flowering plants?
A) Fertilization precedes pollination.
B) Pollination occurs between plants of different species, whereas fertilization occurs
within plants of the same species.
C) Pollen is formed within megasporangia so that the male and female gametes are
near each other.
D) Pollination is the transfer of pollen from an anther to a stigma. Fertilization is
the fusion of haploid nuclei.
E) If fertilization happens, pollination is not necessary.

Back 18

D

Front 19

19) Which of the following statements regarding flowering plants is false?
A) The sporophyte is the dominant generation.
B) Female gametophytes develop from megaspores within the anthers.
C) Pollination is the placing of pollen on the stigma of a carpel.
D) The food-storing endosperm is derived from the cell that contains two polar
nuclei and one sperm nucleus.
E) Flowers produce fruits within the ovary.

Back 19

B

Front 20

20) Cardiac muscle is found in the
A) Heart
B) Gut
C) Muscles of the arms and legs
D) Muscles of the skeletal system
E) Tongue

Back 20

A

Front 21

21) Which of the following do not need a digestive system?
A) heterotrophs
B) autotrophs
C) herbivores
D) omnivores
E) carnivores

Back 21

B

Front 22

22) What is peristalsis?
A) the process of fat emulsification in the large intestine
B) voluntary control of the rectal sphincters regulating defecation
C) the absorption of nutrients by the liver through lacteal vessels
D) the process of secretion of salivary amylase
E) smooth muscle contractions that move food through the alimentary canal

Back 22

E

Front 23

23) The average tidal volume of adult human lungs is roughly
A) 0.5 liters
B) 1.8 liters
C) 2.5 liters
D) 6 liters
E) 12 liters

Back 23

A

Front 24

24) TRUE or FALSE: When comparing 2 different solutions, the one that has the higher concentration of solutes is said to be “hypertonic” in relation to the other.
A) TRUE
B) FALSE

Back 24

True

Front 25

25) Which of the following statements about the mammalian digestive system is true?
A) Proteins, carbohydrates, and lipids all begin their enzymatic digestion in the mouth.
B) After leaving the oral cavity, the bolus first enters the duodenum.
C) The epiglottis prevents food from entering the trachea.
D) Enzyme secretion begins in the esophagus.
E) The trachea leads to the esophagus and then to the stomach.

Back 25

C

Front 26

26) What part(s) of the digestive system are highly acidic because of the secretion of HCl?
A) large intestine
B) stomach
C) pancreas
D) A and B only
E) A, B, and C

Back 26

B

Front 27

27) Which of the following is not a zymogen?
A) chymotrypsinogen
B) pepsin
C) procarboxypeptidase
D) tripsinogen

Back 27

B

Front 28

28) Pepsinogen is secreted by ________ cells in the stomach wall.
A) Flame
B) Protonephridia
C) Chief
D) Parietal
E) Lacteal

Back 28

C

Front 29

29) TRUE or FALSE: Freshwater fish that are osmoregulators usually produce large amounts of very dilute urine.
A) TRUE
B) FALSE

Back 29

True

Front 30

30) Which of the following statement(s) about bile salts is (are) true? Bile salts
A) are zymogens.
B) are manufactured by the large intestine.
C) emulsify fats in the duodenum.
D) stop all peristalsis.
E) are normally an ingredient of saliva.

Back 30

C

Front 31

32) Which one of the following statements about digestion is false?
A) Digestion is catalyzed by enzymes.
B) Digestion cleaves nucleic acids into nucleotides.
C) Digestion cleaves fats into glycerol and fatty acids.
D) Digestion cleaves amino acids into polypeptides and polysaccharides.
E) During digestion disaccharides are split into simpler sugars.

Back 31

D

Front 32

33) How does the digestion and absorption of fat differ from that of carbohydrates?
A) Processing of fat does not require any digestive enzymes, whereas the processing of carbohydrates does.
B) Fat absorption occurs in the esophagus, whereas carbohydrates are absorbed from the small intestine.
C) Carbohydrates need to be emulsified before they can be digested, whereas fats do not.
D) Most absorbed fat first enters lacteal vessels in the lymphatic system, whereas carbohydrates enter blood capillaries.
E) Only carbohydrate digestion forms chyme.

Back 32

D

Front 33

34) In humans, about 7 liters of fluid are secreted each day into the intestinal tract. Which of the following organs does not secrete fluid?
A) salivary glands
B) stomach
C) liver
D) pancreas
E) large intestine

Back 33

E

Front 34

35) Human bloods cells include
A) erythrocytes
B) white blood cells
C) platelets
D) all of the above
E) A and B only

Back 34

D

Front 35

36) A substance that increases the volume of urine excreted is called a(n)
A) Anti-diuretic
B) Diuretic
C) Osmoconformer
D) Antidiuretic
E) Gibberellin

Back 35

B

Front 36

37) Which is a correct statement concerning the insect circulatory system?
A) The circulating fluid bathes tissues directly in an open vascular system.
B) Hemolymph is contained in and flows through a system of tubes called tracheae.
C) There is no heart, or pump.
D) Hemolymph flows in and out of pores called spiracles.
E) There is no blood, or circulating fluid.

Back 36

A

Front 37

41) A molecule of CO2 released into the blood in your left toe u
It must pass throu
A) right atrium.
B) pulmonary vein
C) alveolus.
D) trachea.

Back 37

B