Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;
Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;
H to show hint;
A reads text to speech;
153 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
Arteries are sometimes called the _____ vessels of the cardiovascular system because they can sand high blood pressure.
|
Resistance
|
|
____ have the thickest tunica media
|
Large Arteries
|
|
The outermost wall of an artery or vein is called the _____ and in large arteries and veins contains the _____.
|
tunica externa; vasa vasorum
|
|
Most blood is in the _______
|
Veins
|
|
This figure shows variations in circulator pathways. The pathway labeled ____ shows alternative routes of blood supply found in the heart.
|
5
|
|
These are all possible circulatory routes from the heart except
|
heart → arteries → capillary bed → vein → capillary bed → arteries → heart
|
|
Vasomotion is associated with the presence of
|
smooth muscle in the tunica media.
|
|
In people who stand for long periods, blood tends to pool in the lower limbs and this may result in varicose veins. Varicose veins are caused by
|
failure of the venous valves.
|
|
This figure shows changes in blood pressure relative to distance from the heart. What would be the approximate blood pressure in a blood vessel leaving the stomach for a person lying on her back (not standing)?
|
below 20 mm Hg
|
|
What is the mean arterial pressure for a person with 110 and 65 mm Hg as systolic and diastolic pressure, respectively?
|
80 mm Hg
|
|
The velocity of blood flow decreases when
|
viscosity increases
|
|
The medullary ischemic reflex results in
|
increased circulation to the brain
|
|
_____ has the most important effect on blood velocity.
|
Vessel radius
|
|
Reactive hyperemia is a result of ______ to increase perfusion into a tissue.
|
local control
|
|
All of these increase blood pressure except
|
atrial natriuretic peptide.
|
|
The vasomotor center of the _______ controls blood vessels throughout the body.
|
Medulla Oblongata
|
|
Hypertension is commonly considered to be a chronic resting blood pressure higher than
|
140/90
|
|
_______ are powerful vasoconstrictors, and _______ also increased heart rate.
|
Epinephrine and angiotensin II; epinephrine
|
|
These are all mechanisms of movement through the capillary wall except
|
Secretions
|
|
The most important force driving filtration at the arterial end of a capillary is
|
blood hydrostatic pressure.
|
|
______ by the capillaries at their venous end.
|
Ammonia is taken up
|
|
The most important force driving reabsorption at the venous end of a capillary is
|
blood colloid osmotic pressure
|
|
All these can lead to edema except
|
hyperproteinemia
|
|
_____ would not increase capillary filtration
|
Dehydration
|
|
A mean arterial pressure (MAP) below 60 mmHg can cause ____, whereas a MAP above 160 mmHg can cause _______.
|
syncope; cerebral edema
|
|
_____ does not contribute to venous return
|
Widespread vasodilation
|
|
_____ shock can be produced by hemorrhage, severe burns, or dehydration
|
Hypovolemic
|
|
_____ shock occurs when bacterial toxins trigger vasodilation and increase capillary permeability.
|
Septic
|
|
A bee sting can trigger a massive release histamine, which cause _____ and a(n) _____ in arterial blood pressure.
|
vasodilation; decrease
|
|
Blood flow to the ____ remains quite stable even when mean arterial pressure (MAP) fluctuates from 60 to 140 mm Hg.
|
Hypothalamus
|
|
Myocardial infarction can lead to ____ shock.
|
Cardiogenic
|
|
The most important force in venous flow is
|
the pressure generated by the heart.
|
|
Pulmonary arteries have _____ blood pressure compared to systemic arteries
|
considerably lower
|
|
How many pulmonary arteries empty into the right atrium of the heart?
|
0 Zero
|
|
The lungs receive a systemic blood supply by way of the
|
bronchial arteries
|
|
There are no ______ in humans.
|
right and left brachiocephalic arteries
|
|
The ______ supplies 80% of the cerebrum
|
internal carotid artery
|
|
This figure shows the aorta and its major branches. What label shows the artery on the right side of the body with the most extensive distribution of all the head-neck arteries?
|
1
|
|
The cerebral arterial circle (circle of Willis) is
|
an anastomosis surrounding the pituitary gland
|
|
This figure shows the superficial veins of the neck and head. What does “8” represent?
|
the subclavian v.
|
|
From superior the inferior, the major branches of the abdominal aorta are
|
celiac truck, superior mesenteric artery, renal arteries, gonadal arteries, inferior mesenteric artery, and common iliac arteries.
|
|
The principal venous drainage of the thoracic organs is accomplished by way of
|
the azygos system.
|
|
This figure shows the arteries of the abdomen and pelvic region. What does “6” represent?
|
the inferior mesenteric a.
|
|
These are all tributaries of the inferior vena cava except
|
the vertebral veins.
|
|
This figure shows the arteries of the abdomen and pelvic region. What does “2” represent?
|
the hepatic portal vein
|
|
This figure shows veins of the upper limb. What does “5” represent
|
the brachial vein(s)
|
|
This figure shows arteries of the lower limb. What does “6” represent
|
the femoral artery
|
|
These are all veins of the upper limb except
|
the great saphenous vein.
|
|
These are all vessels of the lower limb except
|
the anterior interosseous artery
|
|
This is the longest vein, and portions of this vein are commonly used as grafts in coronary bypass surgery.
|
the great saphenous vein
|
|
Lymphatic vessels recover about ____ of the fluid filtered by capillaries.
|
15%
|
|
Lymph is similar to blood plasma but very low in
|
Protein
|
|
Special lymphatic vessels called lacteals absorb dietary _____ that are not absorbed by the blood capillaries
|
Lipids
|
|
The ______ tonsils are the largest, and their tonsillectomy (surgical removal) used to be one of the most common surgical procedures performed in children.
|
Palatine
|
|
All these forces help lymph to flow except
|
the lymphatic node pump
|
|
_____ are the largest of the lymphatic vessels and they empty into the ________.
|
Collecting ducts; subclavian veins
|
|
Immune surveillance is a process in which _______ nonspecifically detect and destroy foreign cells and diseased host cells.
|
natural killer (NK) cells
|
|
This organ shows a remarkable degree of degeneration (involution) with age.
|
thymus
|
|
This is the only lymphatic organ with afferent lymphatic vessels.
|
lymph node
|
|
Removal of the _______ will be the most harmful of all for a one-year-old child.]
|
thymus
|
|
All these belong to the second line of defense except
|
the gastric juices.
|
|
______ are found especially in the mucous membrane, standing guard against parasites, and allergens.
|
Eosinophils
|
|
_____ employ a “respiratory burst” to produce bactericidal chemicals such as hydrogen peroxide (H202) and hypochlorite (HC1O).
|
Neutrophils
|
|
Complement fixation can lead to any of the following effects except
|
endogenous pyrexia.
|
|
_____ are secreted by cells infected with viruses, alerting neighboring cells and protecting them from becoming infected.
|
Interferons
|
|
This figure shows
|
the action of a natural killer cell.
|
|
A pyrogen is a substance that causes
|
fever.
|
|
This is the first of a serious of neutrophil behaviors in inflammation.
|
margination
|
|
_______ is not a cardinal sign characteristic of inflammation.
|
Impaired use
|
|
2Basophils of the blood help to get defensive leukocytes to the site quickly by releasing an anticoagulant called _____ and a vasodilator called _____.
|
heparin; histamine
|
|
All these cellular agents participate in inflammation except
|
cytotoxic T cells.
|
|
These are a group of proteolytic enzymes secreted by natural killer (NK) cells.
|
granzymes
|
|
Complement C3b protein coats bacteria and stimulates phagocytosis by _____ in a process called _____.
|
neutrophils and macrophages; opsonization
|
|
_______ are antimicrobial proteins.
|
Interferons
|
|
One characteristic of the immune response is specificity. This means that
|
immunity is directed against a particular pathogen.
|
|
Vaccination stimulates
|
artificial active immunity
|
|
Cellular (cell-mediated) immunity is effective against
|
Cancer cells
|
|
A(n) _________ is the region of the molecule that is recognized by antibodies.
|
epitope
|
|
T cells achieve immunocompetence in
. |
the thymus
|
|
T cells undergo positive selection in the thymus, which means
|
they multiply and form clones of identical T cells
|
|
The serum used for emergency treatment of snakebites stimulates
. |
artificial passive immunity
|
|
The majority of T cells of the naïve lymphocyte pool wait for the encounter with foreign antigens in
|
the lymphatic tissues
|
|
All of the following can act as antigen-presenting cells except
|
T cells.
|
|
Helper T (TH) cells recognize antigens when they are bound to a(n)
|
major histocompatibility complex (MHC) protein.
|
|
Antigen-presenting cells usually display processed antigens to T cells in
|
lymph nodes
|
|
Helper T (TH) cells do not
|
secrete fever-producing chemicals.
|
|
_______ participate in both nonspecific resistance and immune response.
|
Helper T (TH) cells do not
|
|
Cytotoxic T (TC) cells are like a natural killer (NK) cell because they both
|
secrete granzymes and perform.
|
|
Memory T cells can live up to
|
decades.
|
|
Antibodies do not
|
differentiate into memory antibodies, which upon reexposure to the same pathogen would mount a quicker attack
|
|
This is the correct sequence of events in the humoral immune response.
|
antigen recognition → antigen presentation → clonal selection → differentiation → attack
|
|
Each immunoglobin (Ig) has ______ antigen-bonding site(s).
|
two
|
|
________ constitutes about 80% of circulating antibodies in plasma.
|
IgG
|
|
This is the class of immunoglobulin that provides passive immunity to the newborn.
|
IgA
|
|
Before B cells secrete antibodies they differentiate into
|
plasma cells.
|
|
The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) targets mainly
|
helper T cells
|
|
Most common allergies are the result of
. |
type I (acute) hypersensitivity
|
|
Beta cell destruction that causes type 1 diabetes mellitus is a(n)
|
type IV (delayed) hypersensitivity
|
|
A person who is HIV-positive and has helper T (TH) cells count lower than ______ has AIDS.
|
200 cells/µL
|
|
Autoimmune diseases are disorders in which the immune system fails to distinguish _____ from foreign ones.
|
self-antigens
|
|
Which of the following is not a function of the respiratory system?
|
It assists in the synthesis of vasodilators
|
|
The upper respiratory tract extends
|
from the nose through the larynx
|
|
The nose is divided into right and left halves termed the
|
nasal fossae
|
|
Which two ligaments extend from the thyroid cartilage to the arytenoids cartilages?
|
vestibular and vocal ligaments
|
|
One benefit from air passing by the turbinates is
|
the lower respiratory system remains humidified.
|
|
The most numerous cells in the lungs are called
|
dust cells
|
|
Each alveoulus is surrounded by a basket of blood capillaries supplied by
|
the pulmonary artery.
|
|
Which of the following does not have cilia?
|
respiratory bronchioles
|
|
What is the basic distinction between an alveolar duct and an alveolar atrium?
|
their shape
|
|
Which is more prominent in males than in females?
|
1
|
|
This structure is about 5cm long and slightly narrower and more horizontal than the one on the opposite side
|
4
|
|
Although the heart is not included in this illustration, its apex would lie at point
|
7
|
|
Compared to any other point on this figure, the highest ventilation-perfusion ratio would be found at point
|
3
|
|
Structure 2 is the
|
cricoid cartilage.
|
|
There is a total of five of these structures in the respiratory system
|
6 and 8
|
|
Crude sounds are formed into intelligible speech by all of the following except
|
the epiglottis.
|
|
Which of the following cartilages is largest?
|
the thyroid cartilage
|
|
1The Valsalva maneuver can assist in diagnosing a hernia by
|
decreasing intraabdominal pressure
|
|
___ states that the total pressure of a gas mixture is equal to the sum of the partial pressure of its individual gases.
|
Dalton’s law
|
|
In a healthy person, which of the following will have the greatest influence on resistance to pulmonary airflow?
|
bronchiole diameter
|
|
The amount of air in excess of tidal volume that can be inhaled with maximum effort is called
|
inspiratory reserve volume
|
|
Vital capacity consists of
|
expiratory reserve volume + tidal volume + inspiratory reserve volume.
|
|
Deep, rapid breathing often seen in terminal diabetes mellitus is known as what?
|
Kussmaul respiration
|
|
A gangrenous diabetic ulcer can be treated with which of the following?
|
hyperbaric oxygen
|
|
Carbon dioxide is transported by all the following means except
|
carbonate.
|
|
Tom is in respiratory arrest due to an electrical shock. Why does a Good Samaritan have up to 4 to 5 minutes to begin CPR and save Tom’s life?
|
a venous reserve of oxygen in Tom’s blood
|
|
During exercise, which of the following directly increases respiratory rate?
|
anticipation of the needs of exercising muscle
|
|
2Which of the following would slow down gas exchange between the blood and alveolar air?
|
an increase in membrane thickness
|
|
The addition of CO2 to the blood generates ___ ions in the RBCs, which in turn stimulates RBCs to unload more oxygen.
|
hydrogen
|
|
Which of the following has no effect on oxyhemoglobin dissociation?
|
erythrocyte count
|
|
Which has the highest concentration in the air we breathe?
|
nitrogen
|
|
Each hemoglobin molecule can transport up to _____ oxygen molecules.
|
4
|
|
Norrmally the systemic arterial blood has Po2 of ___ mm Hg, and Pco2 of ___ mm Hg, and pH of ____.
|
95; 40; 7.4
|
|
Which of the following enzymes in an RBC breaks H2CO3 down to water and carbon dioxide?
|
carbonic anhydrase
|
|
In one passage through a bed of systemic blood capillaries, the blood gives up about what percentage of its oxygen?
|
20% to 25%
|
|
Which of the following is the term for a deficiency of oxygen or the inability to utilize oxygen in a tissue?
|
hypoxia
|
|
Congestive heart failure results in which of the following?
|
ischemic hypoxia
|
|
___ is a lung disease marked by a reduced number of cilia, reduced motility of the remaining cilia, goblet cell hypertrophy and hypersecretion, and thick sputum.
|
Chronic bronchitis
|
|
Which of the following would lead to anemic hypoxia?
|
sickle-cell disease
|
|
A lung disease marked by abnormally few but large alveoli is
|
emphysema
|
|
In ___, the lungs are infected with Mycobacterium and produce fibrous nodules around the bacteria, leading to progressive pulmonary fibrosis.
|
Tuberculosis
|
|
Which malignancy originates in the lamina propria of the bronchi?
|
adenocarcinoma
|
|
Polio can sometimes damage the brainstem respiratory centers and result in
|
Ondine’s curse
|
|
Which of these is most likely to result from contact between contaminated fingers and the nasal mucosa?
|
acute rhinitis
|
|
Scuba divers breathe a nitrogen-oxygen mixture rather than pure compressed oxygen in order to avoid
|
oxygen toxicity.
|
|
Nitrogen bubbles can form in the blood and tissues when a scuba diver ascends too rapidly, producing a syndrome called
|
cerebral embolism
|
|
The vagus and glossopharyngeal nerves carry afferent signals from peripheral chemoreceptors to a chemosensitive area in
|
the medulla oblongata
|
|
Mucus plays an important role in cleansing inhaled air. It is produced by __ of the respiratory tract.
|
goblet cells
|
|
The blood transports more CO2 in the form of __ than in any other form.
|
bicarbonate ions
|
|
Among its other purposes, the Valsalva maneuver is used
|
to aid in defecation and urination.
|
|
Blood banks dispose of blood that has low levels of bisphosphoglycerate. What would be the probable reason for doing so?
|
Erythrocytes low in BPG do not unload O2 very well.
|
|
Your breathing rate is 12 breaths/minute; your tidal volume is 500 mL; your vital capacity is 4700 mL; and your dead air space is 150 mL. Your alveolar ventilation rate is ___ mL/min.
|
4,2000
|
|
Your breathing rate is 14 breaths/minute; spirometric measurements reveal your tidal volume is 500 mL; your inspiratory reserve volume is 3000 mL; and your expiratory reserve volume is 1,200 mL. Your vital capacity is ____ mL.
|
4,7000
|