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389 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
what is an example of analog to digital and digital to analog techniques?
Pulse code modulation and continuously variable slope delta (CVSD) modulation.
What modulation technique is a complete digitization process since it converts an analog signal into one that is discrete with respect to both time and amplitude (or polarity)?
Pulse-code modulation (PCM)
Amplitude modulation (AM) requires a bandwidth that is...
Twice that of the modulating signal
We can express the 6-to-1 improvement of the single-sideband suppressed carrier (SSBSC) modulation over conventional amplitude modulation (AM) as...
8 dB of improvement
A modulated wave form that contains a carrier plus two sidebands for each modulation frequency is a description of...
An Amplitude Modulation (AM)
If 100 percent modulation is exceeded and there is distortion in the modulating signal
additional sidebands are generated. We identify these sidebands as...
To prevent Frequency Modulation (FM) radio stations from interfering with each other
the Federal Communications Commission (FCC) has set limits that allow each station to cause its oscillator frequency to deviate no more than...
The amount of phase shift in a phase modulation (PM) signal is directly proportional to the...
Amplitude of the modulating signal
Quadrature-phase shift keying (QPSK) requires...
Half the bandwidth as does bi-phase shift keying (BPSK)
What is the main advantage of differential phase shift keying (DPSK)?
It requires a less complex receiver than a basic phase shift keying (PSK) signal
All of these are considered analog modulation techniques except...
Pulse-code modulation (PCM)
The form of pulse modulation that requires the pulse width to be varied to convey intelligence is...
Pulse-duration modulation (PDM)
Quantized analog modulation is actually...
Analog-to-digital conversion
Which type of pulse modulation is least affected by noise?
Pulse-code modulation (PCM)
Pulse-code modulation (PCM) code words are assigned to each sample and correspond to its...
Amplitude
How many bits per character of a 16-step Pulse-Code Modulation (PCM) system are used to describe the quantized analog sample?
4
The process of coding Pulse Code Modulation (PCM) quantized pulses to make them a constant duration and amplitude is...
Encoding
Noise in Delta Modulation (DM) can be reduced by varying the approximation signal step size in accordance with the input signals'...
Amplitude
What modulation technique varies the step size in accordance with the magnitude of the input signals' amplitude?
Delta Modulation (DM)
Continuous Variable Slope Delta (CVSD) modulation circuitry includes a pulse-amplitude modulator and a...
Low-pass filter
Which modulation technique was developed to reduce signal loss and noise in a tactical environment?
Conditioned Diphase Interface modulation (CDI)
Up to what percent of speech is redundant?
75
The accepted standard for the voice frequency band is...
300 to 3
Noise may be introduced into speech signals by thermal agitation and...
Black body radiation
Bits taken from an input channel data stream at a rate atleast twice the highest frequency appearing in the intelligence signal we call...
The Sampling rate
Which of these sampling rates is correct for a Time Division Multiplexing (TDM) channel if the highest frequency appearing in the channel is 4 kHz?
8 kHz
Having marker pulses at the beginning of each frame of a Time-Division Multiplexing (TDM) signal is one method of...
Synchronization
What modulation format is usually used with Time Slot Interchange (TSI)?
Pulse-code modulation (PCM)
How are incoming and outgoing channels connected within the time slot interchange?
By Time
How are channels connected in space division multiplexing?
By a Switch Matrix
Which multiplex scheme periodically redefines the length of its frames?
Asynchronous Time Division Multiplexing (TDM)
In Pulse-Code Modulation (PCM) systems
synchronizing bits may be inserted...
Which type of Time-Division Multiplexing (TDM) synchronization recovers clock from the traffic signal?
Asynchronous
In a synchronous system
performance of all operations is controlled by a...
A synchronizing technique used to overcome propagation delay in Time-Division Multiplexing (TDM) systems is...
Pulse stuffing
Which module supervises AN/FCC-100 (V) 9 operation and communicates with all the other AN/FCC-100 (V) 9 modules and subassemblies?
Processor Module
Which module transforms data between the local AN/FCC-100 (V) 9 internal high-speed data bus and the transmission path to the remote AN/FCC-100 (V) 9 unit?
Aggregate Module
Which module provides the interface and termination capability for two pieces of data terminal equipment (DTE) and is designed to accept four plug-in sub modules which interface the DTEs to the multiplexer?
Port Carrier Module
Which module is the communication link between the AN/FCC-100 (V) 9 and operator's panel or an external control terminal?
Interface Module
Wave-Division Multiplexing (WDM) creates the virtual channels for multiplexing them together for transmission by using different...
Wavelengths or Lambdas
What Wave-Division Multiplexing (WDM) technology sends a large number of optical signals closely together?
Dense wave division multiplexing (DWDM)
What unit is most commonly used in data systems to express signaling speed?
Bits per second (bps)
Bit count integrity problems are primarily caused by...
System Timing Faults
Three categories of synchronization used in digital data circuits are...
Synchronous
In synchronous data operation...
All data bits are the same length in time
A digital signal that contains synchronizing bits within the signal stream describes...
Asynchronous Operation
In communications
what is essential for continuous error-free performance?
While timing ensures the equipment is sending and receiving bits at the same time intervals
synchronization ensures that the...
How many signal levels does an return-to-zero alternate mark inversion (RZ AMI) signal have?
3
In what type of signal is the information contained in the transition
and there is a transition from one state to the other only when a mark bit is sent?
In what type of signal does the signal level move to one of the discrete signal levels
but returns to the zero level after a predetermined time?
Which statement best describes an alternate mark inversion (AMI) signal?
A logic one is transmitted as positive voltage if the previous logic one was negative
Digital coding techniques such as binary with eight-zero substitution (B8ZS) are becoming more popular because they are designed to...
Maintain ones density standards
Which statement best describes a binary with eight-zero substitution (B8ZS) signal?
Bipolar violations are intentionally inserted into a data signal to break up long strings of zeros
How many bits are in the D4 framing sequence?
12
How many bits are in the extended superframe format (ESF) framing sequence?
24
The signaling equipment has three types of communications signals that act as functions to...
Control and process calls
What communications control signal uses a two frequency dialing combination?
Tone Dialing
What communications information signal could use a continuous 350- and 440- Hz frequency pair?
Dial Tone
What communications information signal could use a signal cycled on and off for 0.5 second and contains the generation of a 480 and 620 Hz frequency pair?
Busy signal
What communications information signal could use a signal cycled on for 1.0 seconds and off for 1.0 seconds and contains the generation of a multifrequency howl?
Off-hook alert
What communications supervisory signal could use a continuous application of direct current voltage for signaling?
Loop-start
When is the voltage applied in loop-start signaling?
Off-hook condition
In common associated signaling (CAS)
the seventh bit in frames 6 and 12 are used to convey signaling information. This is known as...
How is supervisory signaling info transferred in Common Channel Signaling (CCS)?
Separate Network Channel
What Common Channel Signaling (CCS) signaling mode transfers the messages relating to signaling between two points
and are conveyed directly interconnecting these signaling points?
Why are wire pairs twisted together with other pairs to form a twisted pair cable?
To cancel out induced signals that can interfere with the communication signals
In telephone terminology
the resistance of a line is stated in terms of ohms per...
The flow of current through insulation to other wires or ground is called...
Shunt Conductance
What do loading coils equalize to reduce the amount of line loss in a voice-frequency-cable transmission line?
Capacitive and inductive reactance
A signal reflection on a wire line may be caused by...
a mismatch of impedance when equipment is inserted into the line
How is phase jitter generated on a wire line?
Additive amplitude noise is introduced
What has made very high data rate transmission possible on a fiber optics cable?
The broad bandwidth of the cable
What is the current practical bandwidth limitation for a 10km fiber optic cable?
50 Mhz
What property of fiber optic cable provides high security for communication networks?
Fiber optic cable is virtually untappable without detection
How much loss is expected in the short optical fiber wavelength region per kilometer of cable?
3.0 to 4.0 dB
What is an advantage of using an avalanche positive-intrinsic-negative diode (APD)?
It generates a current gain many times that of a PIN diode
What are the three sections of fiber optic cable called?
Core
What is the bandwidth of multi-mode step-index optical fiber cable?
10 Mhz to 100 Mhz/km
What causes absorption loss in a fiber optic cable?
Impurities in the fiber
Combined distribution frames encompass the functions of a main distribution frame and...
An intermediate distribution frame
Patch panels containing clear text classified data circuits are connected with local equipment using...
A Red distribution frame
Which type of distribution frame is used to connect unclassified data circuits and local equipment?
Black
Within distribution frames
Permanent wiring is connected to the...
Within distribution frames
Temporary wiring is connected to the...
What length of shine is required for a wire lead being prepared for a wire wrape terminal connection?
1 1/4 to 1 1/2 inch
When creating a wire wrapped terminal connection
what is done with the wire lead after is is stripped of insulation?
For a wire-wrapped termination to be considered an efficient connection
you must wrap the wire lead at least...
Which of these is NOT an advantage of the punch-on terminal block?
They require less wiring than other types
What tool(s) are required to complete a punch-on terminal connection?
714B quick-connect tool only
Which of the following is NOT a procedural step for creating a punch-on looping termination?
Remove the scrap end of the wire
Which pair is the first pair in a typical four-pair cable?
White/Blue
Which color is considered an additional ring color in a typical 25 pair cable?
Slate
What cable type is typically used to manage network equipment?
Rollover
Pin 1 on a typical Electronics Industry Association / Telecommunications Industry Association (EIA / TIA) 568A connector is what color?
White/Green
Pin 1 on a typical Electronics Industry Association / Telecommunications Industry Association (EIA / TIA) 568B connector is what color?
White/Orange
When building a modular cable
you need to arrange the wires in a flat row...
Screw-on connectors are generally unreliable because they...
Can be pulled off with relative ease
While using a cable stripper how much of the jacket on the cable is removed to access the inner core?
5/8 inch
What is a stable pattern
or path
The majority of fiber-optic connectors use what method to connect onto fiber because of the ease of installation without loss of quality?
Epoxy Connectors
When using a polishing cloth
remove a little bit of the protruding fiber at a time
The considerations for selecting electrical connectors are...
Electrical
Two characteristics of rectangular connectors are that they are...
Used in rack panel applications and have no coupling mechanism
Which of the following is a TRUE statement concerning the effects temperature has on electrical connectors?
As temperature increases
The three basic components of electrical connectors are the...
Shell
Insulators used in connectors are rated for their...
Electrical resistance and ability to withstand breakdown
Guide pin plates are used in connectors to...
Provide polarization and float-mount action for rectangular connectors
A purpose of moisture proofing connectors is to provide a moisture seal between...
The connector and equipment
The characteristics of electrical connector contacts are contact...
Retention
Which contact retention method for electrical connectors is used for full hermetic seal applications?
Nonremovable contacts
The correct procedure for creating a crimped contact termination for an electrical connector with a hand-held crimping tool is to...
Insert a prestripped wire lead into the contact crimp pot
A disadvantage of a crimped connection is it...
Requires extra space around the contact area to create
The purpose of a multimeter is to...
Measure electrical voltage
When a multimeter has three input terminal jacks
which jack is always used?
When using a multimeter
which mode should be used if the reading is unreadable due to fluctuations?
When using a multimeter
which mode should be used if the reading fluctuates and a more accurate reading is desired?
When using an ohmmeter to take a resistance reading
what preliminary precaution should you take?
When using a multimeter to take a voltage reading greater than 100 volts
what safety precaution should you take?
What metallic-line characteristic is indicated by current leakage between two conductors?
Shunt
When grounding a communications cable
use the poorer of two grounds if it...
Which test equipment is BEST for checking equipment grounds?
Multimeter
Before checking for shorts on a base cable pair...
Disconnect the other end from the communications device
What is indicated by an interruption that results in an incomplete path for current flow?
Open
What device is used to input and display data?
A Terminal
What device is a terminal with significant computing and processing capability?
A Client
What device modulates digital data onto an analog carrier for transmission?
Modem
What network device is certified to secure all classification levels and categories and is able to encrypt trunk-level high-speed circuits?
The TSEC/KIV-19
What network device provides high-speed secure data transfers up to 38.4 kilobits per second (kbps) for asynchronous or 128 kbps for synchronous?
The Secure Terminal Equipment (STE)
What type of resistor is wired between the tip and ring of the monitor jack of the audio patch panel that makes it possible for you to monitor the signal?
22 - ohm
Which patch bay provides a circuit monitoring and testing capability for T-1 circuits?
DS-X
Which patch bays(s) can accommodate DB-25 modules wired for the RS-232
RS-530
As related to the red/black concept
which type of separation is the isolating of batteried circuits from each other?
What is the maximum number of days an on-call patch should be activated?
7
Who does the Systems Control Facility (SCF) contact for assistance when on-call service cannot be established within the means available to the SCF?
Regional Network Operations and Security Center (RNOSC)
Where does power distribution within the systems control facility begin?
Main Power Panel
Which Uninterruptible Power Supply (UPS) component takes the Direct Current (DC) voltage input and changes it to Alternating Current (AC) voltage?
Inverter
Which auxiliary generator component connects the generator to the load by changing the facility's power feed from the commercial source to the generator?
Switchgear
The difference between a Promina trunk and link is that a trunk is a...
Physical connection between two nodes and a link is a logical connection that can consist of one or more trunks
What is an important feature of dynamic bandwidth allocation in the Promina?
Bandwidth is assigned to a pool and is allocated to a 9.6 kbps circuit as needed
What is an important feature of dynamic routing in the Promina?
If a path to a connected node is down
How does the Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA) ensure there are some standards of operation throughout the Promina network?
Centralized management
What feature of the Promina allows users to be unconcerned with the exact circuit path?
Transparency to users
Which module is common equipment for the Promina?
Processor
How many Promina Processor Modules can be installed in a Promina 800 node?
1 to 4
Which device provides clocking-functions to the Promina 800 nodes?
Switching Exchange
Which module is the central point of data storage for Promina nodes?
Server
A Promina node can have how many links?
64
Which Promina module only supports one T-1 trunk
DS-1 rate (1.544 Mbps) transmission facilities?
Which trunk module is designed specifically for the high-speed shelf (HSS-2) on the Promina 800?
T-3
Which trunk module interconnects Promina nodes across an Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM) network?
Cell Xpress
Which protocol provides the path that carries node management data in between the nodes?
Signaling Channel Link
Which trunk module does NOT provide proprietary non-subrated interface signals that can only be interpreted by a Promina 800 series node?
TRK-3
Which Promina module accepts two DS-1 signals in the D3/D4 frame format
separates them into 48 separate 64-kbps channels
What type of Promina module supports two independent synchronous circuits at data rates from 9.6 kbps to 2.048 Mbps?
High-speed synchronous data
What type of Promina module supports subrate data multiplexing?
X.50
At status level 2 of the Promina Operator Interface
the operator has access to query all nodes and...
Which Promina menu contains commands for managing operators and the operator console?
Prolog Procedure
Which Promina menu contains commands for configuring the network?
Functional Area
Which Promina menu is used only with an operator status of level 3 or higher?
Action
What can you do to prevent Promina alarms from being overwritten and discarded?
Cancelled all alarms that have been resolved
Which Promina Operator Interface query command displays the voice compression available
software version installed
Which Promina Operator Interface query command displays a matrix depicting the network topology of the nodes connected within the local domain?
Network
After you have adjusted the oscilloscope intensity control to increase the readability of the display
what other control may you need to adjust?
What oscilloscope control do you need to adjust when a 'halo' appears on the display?
Intensity
When the spot is elliptical on the oscilloscope screen
what control should you adjust?
What oscilloscope height-to-width ratio provides optimum display proportions for general-purpose waveform examinations?
2:3
To center the trace on the cathode-ray rube (CRT) of an oscilloscope
what controls do you use?
What happens to the observed signal if you advance the oscilloscope synchronizing control too far?
Distortion
What are the two major sections of a Bit Error Rate Test (BERT) set?
Transmitter and Receiver
Which section of a bit error rate test (BERT) set generates a pseudo-random test pattern?
Transmitter
Which section of a bit error rate test (BERT) set measures the received test pattern?
Receiver
What type of framing format should you use to conduct a bit error rate test (BERT) on a T-1 circuit configured for binary with eight-zero substitution (B8ZS) coding?
Extended Superframe
What determines the size of a test pattern segment?
The number of bits that can represent the total number of bits in the test pattern
What type of error is the result of two successive logic one pulses of the same polarity in violation of alternate mark inversion coding rules?
Bipolar Violation
The purpose of a breakout box is to...
Monitor and provide access to multiple conductors
The purpose of the jumper cables and side switch pins on a breakout box is to...
Cross-patch individual interface conductors
At a receiving station
what can be the result of excessive timing jitter?
During the total peak-to-peak jitter test
the picture displayed on the oscilloscope screen is the...
Before starting the timing jitter test
you must determine whether the circuit you are testing is...
When you conduct the timing jitter test with an oscilloscope connected to a circuit carrying a signal
what triggers the sweep?
Besides amount of errors
what is another critical consideration in measuring bit error rate (BER)?
How many minutes should you conduct a bit error rate test (BERT) on a Z4
50 kbps circuit?
Which test determines whether the digital radio and multiplexer are operating in an optimum condition?
Average Bit Error Rate (BER) versus Receive Signal Level (RSL)
Which statement best describes the average Bit Error Rate (BER) for a digital radio?
It is related to the median received Radio-Frequency (RF) signal Receive Signal Level (RSL)
When determining the relationship of bit error rate (BER) versus receive signal level (RSL) for a digital radio
the attenuator may cause...
A stress pattern is a...
Predetermined sequence of logical ones and zeros used for testing and fault isolation
Which stress pattern test for T-1 circuits causes the pulse generator of the transmission equipment to consume the maximum amount of power?
All Ones
Which stress pattern test for T-1 circuits tests the ability of the transmission equipment to send bit sequences containing both minimum ones density and a maximum density of 15 consecutive zeros?
3-in-24
Stress patterns are used mainly to identify malfunctioning T-1 transmission equipment and...
Misoptioned network equipment
For circuits that use binary with eight-zero substitution (B8ZS) coding
which stress pattern test for T-1 circuits is useful for stressing the minimum ones density?
In most cases
the signal level for commercial data circuits is between...
Which digital test is categorized as either controlled or uncontrolled?
Timing slips
During a 45 minute Bit Error Rate Test (BERT)
the number of frame errors for a T-1 superframe circuit should be less than...
When T-1 equipment receives no input signal
what is transmitted to keep the repeaters operating and to maintain timing?
Of the four main causes of T-1 impairments
crosstalk is an example of...
Which T-1 impairment is sometimes the hardest to isolate?
An Environmental Factor
On T-1 circuits
dribbling errors are often caused by...
What can result from an impedance mismatch?
Excessive loss of signal power
Which alarms are used to monitor power and building conditions in the systems control element?
Station
Which condition activates a radio alarm at your station?
Low-transmitter output
The main function of fault alarm and status reporting is to assist you...
In isolating a failure to a specific location
A function of the transmission control (TRAMCON) system is...
monitoring the health of terrestrial digital transmission media and facilities
Where is the master terminal of a transmission control (TRAMCON) system located?
FCO
In any given system configuration employing two or more transmission control terminals
how many terminals have full monitoring and control capability?
The capabilities of a transmission control (TRAMCON) system are a key factor in...
Removing maintenance support at Defense Information Infrastructure (DII) sites
Which do you NOT rely on as a fault isolation aid?
Customer Complaints
Diagrams that are useful in circuit-rerouting and fault-isolation because they show transmission facilities
routing
Records that are maintained by telephone systems personnel and are useful for fault isolation describe what type of fault isolation aid?
Plant cabling cross reference files
What is the first thing you do when you find that a single channel of a T-1 is unusable or deteriorated?
Coordinate to transfer service to a spare channel or preempt a lower priority user
Where does the transmit output signal of the modem to the distant end station first appear on the patch bay?
The send equipment jack of the audio patch bay
Where does the output signal of the modem to the router first appear on the patch bay?
The equipment module of the digital patch bay
Which career field installs and maintains fixed and transportable low-frequency and high-frequency transmitters
receivers
What device is a combination transmitter/receiver in a single package?
A Transceiver
What device operates at the physical layer of the Open System Interconnection (OSI) model and is used in Ethernet networks to connect which device to a fiber or copper cable?
Transceiver
What device provides the physical
electrical
What layers of the open system interconnection (OSI) model do network interface cards (NIC) belong?
Physical and Data Link layer
The device that receives a digital signal and regenerates the signal along the next leg of the medium is a...
Repeater
A repeater with more than one output port is a...
Hub
What can be used to extend the size of a network?
Active Hubs
What is a device that subdivides a network into smaller logical pieces
or sements?
What is the time a switch takes to figure out where to forward a data unit called?
Latency
What network device is a combination of networking hardware and software that connect two dissimilar kinds of networks?
Gateway
What type of gateway can restrict the kind of access local area network (LAN) users have to the internet
and vice versa?
What type of gateway might include remote access servers that allow dial-up connectivity to a Local Area Network (LAN)?
A LAN Gateway
What is a router's strength?
It's Intelligence
What is the oldest routing protocol?
Routing Information Protocol (RIP)
What is the routing protocol of internet backbones?
Border Gateway Protocol (BGP)
Based on a specific input address
which Local Area Network (LAN) switch has the lowest delay and should be considered for supporting real-time applications?
What synchronous optical network (SONET) device aggregates or splits SONET traffic at various speeds so as to provide access to SONET without demultiplexing the SONET signal stream?
Add/drop multiplexer (ADM)
What Synchronous Optical Network (SONET) devices are configured to split SONET traffic and copy individual channels on two or more output links?
Drop-and-repeat node (D+R)
When tributary units are grouped together they form...
A Tributary Unit Group (TUG)
An OC-12's electrical signal is the same as a Synchronous Transport Signal level-12 (STS-12) frame and equal to what Synchronous Transport Modules (STM) frame?
STM-4
Because of its cost
Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM) is rarely used on small local area networks (LAN). What technology is better suited for LANs?
What topology defines the layout of network's devices and media?
Physical
What topology consists of devices connected to a common
shared cable?
What topology consists of cable segments from each computer connected to a centralized component?
Star
What topology has the stations connected in the form of a circle?
Ring
What topology combines two or more different physical topologies in a single network?
Hybrid
What is NOT an advantage of a logical bus topology?
There are no collisions
What is an advantage of a logical ring topology?
There are no collisions
What data communication protocol uses characters and symbols (character code set) to govern the flow and format of information between systems?
Character-Oriented
What data communication protocol uses character control or 'handshaking' to link and represent information?
Binary Synchronous Protocol
What data communication protocol is based on bits and the position of the bits?
Bit-Oriented
What data communication protocol ensures that the receiving station can distinguish information from garbage?
High-Level Data Link Control (HDLC)
Which network protocol has DOD chosen as its standard to govern the flow of information?
Transmission Control Protocol / Internet Protocol (TCP/IP)
Which TCP/IP Network layer protocol provides information about how and where data should be delivered
including the data's source and destination addresses?
Which TCP/IP Network layer protocol provides the service of matching a known IP address for a destination device to a Media Access Control (MAC) address?
Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)
Which TCP/IP Network layer protocol provides messaging that can help with troubleshooting?
Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP)
Which TCP/IP Application layer protocol is used to send and receive files via TCP/IP?
File Transfer Protocol (FTP)
Which protocol is a simpler way to transfer files between computers but is simpler or more trivial than FTP?
Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP)
Which TCP/IP Application layer protocol is a terminal emulation protocol used to log on to remote hosts?
Telnet
Which TCP/IP Application layer protocol is an automated means of assigning a unique IP address to every device on a network?
Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)
Which TCP/IP Application layer protocol is a simple protocol used to synchronize the clocks of computers on a network?
Network Time Protocol (NTP)
Which TCP/IP Application layer protocol is a utility that can verify that TCP/IP is installed and communicating with the network?
Packet Internet Groper (PING)
What is a group of computers and associated devices that share a common communications line within a small geographic?
Local Area Network (LAN)
The interconnection of several networks of computer resources in a city into a single larger network is a...
Metropolitan Area Network (MAN)
What type of network enables a group of two or more computer systems to communicate over the public internet?
Virtual Private Network (VPN)
What network model enables users to share resources
files
What network model is a centralized model for data storage
security
What is the physical address of any device on the network?
Media Access Control (MAC) address
What address is a 32-bit number?
Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4)
What address uses a 128 bit addressing scheme?
Internet Protocol version 6 (IPv6)
How many subnet bits are required to support 85 subnets on a Class B network?
7
What is Not a recommendation for planning networks using variable length subnet masking (VLSM)?
Re-address the entire network
What cable impairments can be detected by a time-domain reflectometer (TDR)?
Kinks
What type of cable property changes can be detected by a time-domain reflectometer (TDR) to identify problems?
Impedance
How is the Optical Time-Domain Reflectometer (OTDR) used to measure signal loss?
It should Not be used
When using the cable scanner wire-map feature
what action is required to prevent false readings?
How does a cable scanner identify crossover and straight-through cables?
It provides wiring maps at both ends of the cable
What test equipment provides a capability for digital network diagnostics and developing communications software?
A Protocol Analyzer
What component of a protocol analyzer discards frames based on its definition or activates a trigger based on the trigger definition?
Filter
What component of a protocol analyzer stores all frames based on the user configuration inputs?
Buffer
What protocol analyzer test window reports errors that occur at the physical layer such as bad frame check sequence (FCS)
short frames
What protocol analyzer test window provides information concerning the bandwidth utilization and the number of connections that are related to specific nodes?
Connection Statistics
What is the first LAN impairment error that occurs when bits are missing in one or more octets in a frame?
Alignment
What LAN impairment error occurs when network nodes in the same domain transmit at the same time?
Collision
What LAN impairment error occurs when an internet protocol (IP) data unit larger than 65
535 bytes is received?
What LAN impairment error occurs when an internet protocol (IP) data unit smaller than 28 bytes is received?
Undersize Packet
What LAN impairment error occurs when frames that are larger than the maximum size the network protocol requires are received?
Giant
What is a good indication of how well any two nodes can access the transmission media and transmit and receive data along the link or path in a reliable manner?
Round-trip delay
Jabbers manifest themselves on a LAN as...
Collisions
When using the trace route utility
round-trip delay is displayed in...
Which network management function provides the capability to initialize
operate
Which network management function obtains the utilization and error rates of network devices and provides statistical data about the network?
Performance Management
Which network management element is a type of node connected to the network such as a switch
router
What protocol allows products from different vendors to be managed by a single network management application?
Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)
What is the purpose of the community name that is used with network management systems (NMS)?
Authenticate Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) requests
When the network management software is first installed
what type of alarm threshold value is loaded into the management information base?
What led to the development of Very High Frequency (VHF) and Ultra High Frequency (UHF) radio systems during World War II?
The need for more reliable high-capacity communications
The two primary types of radio waves are...
Ground and Sky
What condition causes the downward bending of a radio wave as it grazes the top of an obstruction such as a mountain peak?
Diffraction
During periods of maximum sunspot activity
what is the density level and altitude effect of the F layer?
What type of frequency is the highest frequency that returns to earth when it is transmitted vertically under given ionospheric conditions?
Critical Frequency
A satellite system that requires numerous satellites in randomly spaced orbits to provide acceptable coverage is...
A passive system
What is a major disadvantage of a geostationary satellite?
The two-way propagation delay is about 0.6 seconds
Above what frequency does the propagation loss because of oxygen and water absorption become very serious in satellite communications?
10 Ghz
The reduction in amplitude of a radio signal as it travels away from the source through a propagation medium that's free of obstructing
scattering
The doppler effect
inherent to staellite communications
Which satellite communications subsystem consists of a satellite antenna array and a transponder?
Space
What satellite device receives
amplifies
At a minimum
a typical link involves...
Maintaining optimum performance of a satellites transponder is a function of...
Satellite control
What type of multiple-access service used in satellite communications provides each earth terminal exclusive use of the satellite transponder for a specified time interval?
Time Division Multiple Access (TDMA)
Two system control problems with Time Division Multiple Access (TDMA) are in the area of network timing and...
Synchronization
What satellite access system lets several users occupy the same frequency spectrum in the transponder simultaneously?
Spread Spectrum Multiple Access (SSMA)
Which organization is responsible for the design
acquisition
How is survivability provided in the Defense Switched Network (DSN)?
End offices and multiple-homed
How is responsiveness provided in the Defense Switched Network (DSN)?
The DSN offers precedence access thresholding (PAT)
What type of DSN precedence call Cannot be preempted?
Flash Override
What type of precedence is assigned to (DSN) calls pertaining to situations that gravely affect the security of national and allied forces?
Intermediate
Which encryption device makes end-to-end encryption available to any user of the DSN?
Secure Telephone Unit-III (STU-III)
What is the primary difference in the DSN subsystems?
Internal call processing features and functions
Why should high-priority users not be terminated on a remote switching unit (RSU)?
RSU can become isolated from the parent switch
An end office is part of what subsystem of DSN?
Switching
Which DSN switch functions primarily as a tandem switch?
Stand-alone
What type of DSN switch provides services to a Private Branch Exchange (PBX)?
End Office (EO) and multifunction only
What type of connection provides the transmission links between two DSN switches?
Interswitch trunks only
Which type of connection is a single or multichannel connection that allows user equipment to gain access to the DSN?
Access lines only
Which organization provides theater-wide administration and network management in the DSN?
Regional Network Operations and Security Control Center (RNOSC)
In a digital multiplex switching system
what appears between the peripheral module and the network in addition to the 30 channels of encoded speech?
Which digital multiplex switch module encodes and multiplexes incoming speech from a maximum of 30 analog trunks into 8-bit PCM format?
Trunk module
Which digital multiplex switch module is used for direct interfacing with the T-1 office repeater?
Digital carrier
Which digital multiplex switch module consists of a duplicated central message controller?
Central Control (CC)
When a subscriber lifts the handset to make a dial pulse intra-office call
what process occurs in the DSN switch?
When a called DSN subscriber answers
what action is taken by the switch's central control module?
The Red Switch program provides which subscriber(s) a Red telephone?
Command and Control (C2) only
What is the major type(s) of terminal used in the Defense Red Switched Network?
STU-III and STE
What type of device is used to provide the cryptographic engine for the secure terminal equipment (STE) terminal?
FORTEZZA card
Which encryption device will support asynchronous secure voice modes up to 38.4 Kbps and high-speed secure data transfer up to 128 Kbps when connected to the 2B+D Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN)?
Secure Terminal Equipment (STE)
What is the maximum asynchronous data rate for the Defense Red Switch Network (DRSN)?
19.2 Kbps
What type of capability is provided by DRSN to define the needs
capabilities
Which piece of equipment is used to provide secure connectivity to the Red Switch via an attendant and local-site radio facilities?
Interface and control unit
What interface provides the red switch 24-channel digital interswitch trunk group service at 1.544 Mbps?
Digital trunk group circuits
The piece of equipment that allows a secure digital switch to interface with cryptographic equipment and passes supervisory and address signaling in setting up a secure call is the...
Interface ancillary device
The Non-Secure Internet Protocol Router Network (NIPRNET) is...
partially protected by encryption devices
What is the difference between a hub router and a premise router?
Interconnected via the Defense Information Systems Agency Asynchronous Transfer Mode (DATM) network
Which is an Internet Protocol (IP) encryption device that can be directly connected to Red Local Area Networks (LANs)?
Network Encryption System (NES)
In addition to fiber-optic and copper cables
what type of system is used to interconnect integrated communications access package access nodes on a deployed base within the same theater area?
What is the design architecture of Theatre Deployable Communications (TDC)?
Metropolitan Area Network (MAN) and hub spoke
What type of connectivity does theater deployable communications (TDC) provide to the voice backbone?
1.544 Mbps ISDN PRI connectivity
What equipment is included in the customer access node to provide the intra-site connectivity?
Voice switch and promina multiplexer
What is the major component(s) of the theater deployable communications (TDC) system that provides mobile units with flexible
lightweight
What is the long-haul transmission component of theater deployable communications (TDC)?
Lightweight Multiband Satellite Terminal (LMST)
What Integrated Communications Access Package (ICAP) module contains circuit switches that implement Private Branch Exchange (PBX)?
Basic access module (BAM)
What Integrated Communications Access Package (ICAP) module provides secure conferencing capability?
Secure voice module and STU-III
What's the difference between the Basic Access Module (BAM) and the Configurable Access Module (CAM)?
The BAM has a fixed capability
What Integrated Communications Access Package (ICAP) node module provides the radio frequency (RF) Line-Of-Sight (LOS) link function for internodal connectivity?
Microwave
What is the maximum number of personnel a medium size integrated communications access package (ICAP) node can support?
150-200
What support does the multichannel standard tactical entry point provide to deploying forces?
Communications capability to connect to the DISN (Defense Information Systems Network)
Upon arrival in a theater
what frequency band does the Lightweight Multiband Satellite Terminal (LMST) use for initial communications connectivity to the defense satellite communications system?
What type of equipment is included in Theater Deployable Communications (TDC) sustaining packages and is deployed to the area of operations to form a large network?
The same versions of modules in the TDC initial communications support packages
What Lightweight Multiband Satellite Terminal (LMST) capability reduces the limitations of the Defense Satellite Communications System (DSCS)?
C- and Ku-Band access
What deployed system is used to provide secure/nonsecure routers and data packet capability?
TASDAC and TDC
What Theater Deployable Communications (TDC) system provides Defense Message System (DMS) message handling services?
Stand-alone message processing system
What must customers do to connect their own telephones and computer workstations to the Theater Deployable Communications (TDC) backbone network?
Adhere to various open system standards and interfaces such as Ethernet
Who must make the first entry and sign the DD Form 1753?
The shift supervisor
The circuit data record serves...
Primarily to assist the systems control facility in troubleshooting and circuit restoration
How long do you retain a circuit data record (DD Form 1441) after a circuit is deactivated?
6 Months
Use the Telecommunications Service Order (TSO) as a primary source document when you fill out...
DD Form 1441
What form is used as the primary source of information when preparing defense information infrastructure status reports?
DD Form 1443
You receive a Telecommunications Service Order (TSO) at your systems control to move a circuit to another channel. What DD Form must you fill out and put in the circuit history folder along with the TSO?
DD Form 1697
Which test results do you record on the reverse/backside of the DD Form 1697-Analog?
Frequency response and envelope delay
Envelope delay measurements are referenced to...
The fastest frequency
How long must an exception report be maintained in the ciruit history folder at an intermediate facility?
Until the condition causing the report to be rendered is cleared
Which Defense Information Systems Agency Circular (DISAC) governs defense information infrastructure status reporting?
DISAC 310-55-1
What type of report has historical information that is used for computer-assisted analysis of the performance of the defense information infrasturcture?
Formatted
Who does Not have the authority to designate special interest items?
Site Commanders
Which of these conditions is considered a hazardous condition and requires reporting IAW Defense Information Systems Agency Circular (DISAC) 310-55-1?
Loss of diversity on a radio link
What process obtains information for use in the preparation of communications services requirements documents using a record drawing
available data
Who serves as systems engineering technical advisors for the MAJCOMs and wing commanders?
Systems telecommunications engineering manager
Who is authorized to submit a request for service to a Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA)?
Telecommunications certification officer
What document is submitted to the national communications service for Telecommunications Service Priority (TSP) assignment?
Telecommunications Service Request (TSR)
The first position of a Telecommunications Service Order (TSO) number represents the...
Issuing office
What document identifies the leased service
the commercial carrier
Which Defense Information Systems Agency Circular (DISAC) provides guidance for circuit Quality Control (QC) parameters?
DISAC 300-175-9
Within how many normal duty hours of completion action on the TSO must the Circuit Control Office (CCO) submit an in-effect report?
72
What report must be sent if the circuit does not meet all required parameters and the TSO issuing authority advises that the circuit is accepted for service?
Exception
Which Defense Information Systems Agency Circular(s) (DISAC) contain information needed to assign a temporary Command Communications Service Designator (CCSD)?
DISAC 310-70-1 and DISAC 310-55-1
Within how many working days after a major change (e.g. activation/deactivation of a link) occurs do you have to report facility/link data to a DISA?
5
Within how many working days after a routine change (e.g. room numbers) occurs do you have to report facility/link data to the DISA?
15
What Table Of Allowance (TA) prescribes items and quantities of equipment authorized to perform the assigned systems control peacetime and wartime missions?
417
What type of document identifies test equipment that has not been updated and has exceeded its calibration date
is currently in maintenance
What plan do commanders in cheif in the overseas theaters to assign certain priority circuit requirements during stressed conditions use?
Minimum Essential Circuit List (MECL)
When DISA restoral plans (R-plan) are not sufficient or available
what plan is developed to provide continuous service to high priority users curing link and system failures?
When you must restore user service by rerouting
what is the second type of circuit you preempt?
Who has the authority to approve funding for the leasing of additional circuits during an authorized outage?
O+M Agency
The Defense Information Infrastructure Operations Control Complex (DOCC) element does Not require user release on circuits with Telecommunications Service Priority (TSP) of 3 and lower if the duration of scheduled service interruption is less than...
1 day
No less than how many days notification does the DISA provide the facility that is to receive a performance evaluation?
14