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429 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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1. Isoimmunization to platelet antigen (P1^A1) and the placental transfer of maternal antibodies would be expected to cause newborn:
a. erythroblastosis b. leukocytosis c. leukopenia d. thrombocytopenia |
d. thrombocytopenia
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2. Following plasmapheresis, how long must a person wait before being eligible to donate a unit of whole blood?
a. 8 weeks b. 2 weeks c. 48 hours d. 24 hours |
c. 48 hours
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3. Each unit of Whole Blood will yield approximately how many units of cryoprecipitated AHF?
a. 40 b. 80 c. 130 d. 250 |
b. 80
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4. Addition of which of the following will enhance the shelf life of whole blood?
a. heparin b. adenine c. hydroxyethyl starch d. lactated Ringer's solution |
b. adenine
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5. Pretransfusion compatibility tersting must include:
a. antibody screening by antiglobulin test b. autocontrol c. minor crossmatch d. Du test on recipient |
a. autocontrol
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6. Severe intravascular hemolysis is most likely caused by antibodies of which blood group system?
a. ABO b. Rh c. Kell d. Duffy |
a. ABO
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7. Under extreme emergency conditions when there is no time to determine ABO group for transfusion, the technologist should:
a. refuse to release any blood until the patient's sample has been typed b. release O, Rh-negative whole blood c. release O, Rh-negative red blood cells d. release O,Rh-positive red blood cells |
c. release O,Rh-negative red blood cells
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8. An obsterical patient has had three previous pregnancies. Her first baby was healthy, the second was jaundiced at birth and required an exchange transfusion, while the third was stillborn. Which of the following is the most likely cause?
a. ABO incompatibility b. immune deficiency disease c. cogenital spherocytic anemia d. Rh incompatility |
d. Rh incompatibility
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9. With regard to inheritance, most blood group systems are:
a. sex-linked dominant b. sex-linked recessive c. autosomal recessive d. autosomal codominant |
d. autosomal codominant
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10. The optimum storage temperature for Cryoprecipitated AHF is:
a. 22 C b. 4 C c. -12 C d. -20 C |
d. -20 C
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11. The optimum storage temperature for Platelets is:
a. 22 C b. 4 C c. -12 C d. -20 C |
a. 22 C
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12. The optimum storage temperature for Red Blood Cells, Frozen is:
a. 4 C b. -12 C c. -20 C d. -80 C |
d. -80 C
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13. The optimum storage temperature for Whole Blood is:
a. 4 C b. -12 C c. -20 C d. -80 C |
a. 4 C
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14. Qualitycontrol tests must be performed daily on:
a. reagent red blood cells b. opal thermometers c. banked whole blood d. centrifuge timers |
a. reagent red blood cells
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15. Criteria determining Rh immune globulin eligibility include:
a. mother is Rh-positive b. infant is Rh-negative c. mother has not been previously immunized to the D antigen d. infant has a positive direct antiglobulin test |
c. mother has not been previously immunized to the D antigen
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16. Which of the following constitutes permanent rejection status of a donor?
a. a tattoo 5 months previously b. recent close contact with a patient with viral hepatitis c. two units of blood transfused 4 months previously d. confirmed positive test for HBsAg 10 years previously |
d. confirmed positive test for HBsAg 10 years previously
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17. The major crossmatch will detect a(n):
a. group A patient mistyped as group O b. irregular antibody in the donor unit c. Rh-negative donor unit mislabeled as Rh-positive d. recipient antibody directed against antigens on the donor red cells |
d. recipient antibody directed against antigens on the donor red cells
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18. Cells of the A3 subgroup will:
a. react with Dolichos biflorus b. not be agglutinated by anti-A c. give a mixed field reaction with anti-A,B d. not be agglutinated by anti-H |
c. give a mixed field reaction with anti-A,B
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19. Mixed-field reactions with anti-A and anti-A,B and negative reactions with anti-B and anti-A1 lectin (Dolichos biflorus) are observed. Without further testing, the most likely conclusion is that the patient is group:
a. A1 b. A2 c. A3 d. Ael |
c. A3
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20. Anti-Fy^a is:
a. usually a cold-reactive agglutinin b. more reactive when tested with enzyme-treated red blood cells c. capable of causing hemolytic transfusion reactions d. often an autoagglutinin |
c. capable of causing hemolytic transfusion reactions
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21. A patient received two units of Red Blood Cells and had a delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction. Pretransfusion records indicate a negative antibody screen. Repeat testing of the preftransfusion specimen detected an antibody at the antiglobulin phase. What is the most likely explanation of the original results?
a. red cells were overwashed b. centrifugation time was prolonged c. patient's serum was omitted from the original testing d. antiglobulin reagent was neutralized |
c. patient's serum was omitted from the original testing
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22. Which of the following is an indicator of polyagglutination?
a. RBCs typing as D^u positive b. presence of red cell autoantibody c. decreased serum bilirubin d. agglutination with normal adult ABO-compatibible sera |
d. agglutination with normal adult ABO-compatibible sera
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23. Anti-Sd^a is strongly suspected if:
a. the patient has been previously transfused b. the agglutinates are mixed-field and refractile c. the patient is group A or B d. only a small number of panel cells are reactive |
b. the agglutinates are mixed-field and refractile
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24. Mixed-field agglutination at the anti-human globulin phase of a crossmatch may be attributed to:
a. recently transfused cells b. intrauterine exchange transfusion c. an antibody such as anti-Sd^a d. feotomaternal hemorrhage |
c. an antibody such as anti-Sd^a
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25. In suspected cases of hemolytic disease of the newborn, what significant information can be obtained from the baby's blood smear?
a. estimation of WBC, RBC and platelet counts b. marked increase in immature neutrophils (shift to the left) c. a differential to estimate the absolute number of lymphocytes present d. determination of the presence of spherocytes and elevated numbers of nucleated red blood cells |
d. determination of the presence of spherocytes and elevated numbers of nucleated red blood cells
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26. As a preventive measure against graft-versus-host disease, red blood cells prepared for infants who have received intrauterine transfusions should be:
a. saline-washed b. irradiated c. frozen and deglycerolized d. group and Rh compatible with the mother |
b. irradiated
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27. Which of the following is the preferred specimen for the initial compatibility testing in exchange transfusion therapy?
a. maternal serum b. eluate prepared from infant's red blood cells c. paternal serum d. infant's postexchange serum |
a. maternal serum
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28. When the main objective of an exchange transfusion is to remove the infant's abtibody-sensitized red blood cells and to control hyperbilirubinemia, the blood product of choice is ABO compatible:
a. Fresh Whole Blood b. Red Blood Cells washed c. Fresh Frozen Plasma d. Heparinized Red Blood Cells |
a. Fresh Whole Blood
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29. Which of the following histories represents an acceptable donor?
Hct/BP/Temp/Pulse/Age/Sex a. 39/(110/70)/99.8/75/40/F b. 37/(135/85)/98.6/80/35/M c. 41/(90/50)/99.4/65/65/M d. 45/(115/80)/98.6/102/17/M |
c. 41/(90/50)/99.4/65/65/M
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30. According to AABB standards, 75% of all Platelet, Pheresis units tested shall contain how many platelets per microliters?
a. 5.5 X 10^10 b. 6.5 X 10^10 c. 3.0 X 10^11 d. 5.0 X 10^11 |
c. 3.0 X 10^11
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31. Following the second spin in the preparation of Platelets, the platelets should be:
a. allowed to sit undisturbed for 1 hour b. agitated immediateley c. pooled immediateley d. transfused within 48 hours |
a. allowed to sit undisturbed for 1 hour
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32. Which of the following is proper procedure for preparation of Platelets from Whole Blood?
a. light spin followed by a hard spin b. light spin followed by two hard spins c. two light spins d. hard spin followed by a light spin |
a. light spin followed by a hard spin
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33. The purpose of a low-dose irradiation of blood components is to:
a. prevent posttransfusion purpura b. prevent graft-versus host (GVH) disease c. sterilize components d. prevent noncardiogenic pulmonary edema |
b. prevent graft-versus host (GVH) disease
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34. Platelets prepared in a polyolefin type container, stored at 22 C-24 C in 50 mL of plasma, and gently agitated can be used for up to:
a. 24 hours b. 48 hours c. 3 days d. 5 days |
d. 5 days
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35. The enzyme responsible for conferring H activity on the red cell membrane is alpha-:
a. galactosyl transferase b. N-acetylgalactosaminyl transferase c. L-fucosyl transferase d. glucosyl transferase |
c. L-fucosyl transferase
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36. Refer to the following data:
Forward Type: Anti-A: 4+ Anti-B: neg Anti-A1 Lectin: 4+ Reverse Group: A1 Cells: neg A2 Cells: 2+ B Cells: 4+ a. anti-A1 b. rouleaux c. anti-H d. unexpected IgG antibody present |
c. anti-H
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37. Refer to the panel.
A 25-year-old Caucasian women, gravida 3, para 2, required two units of whole blood. The antibody screen was positive. Which of the following antibodies may be the cause of the positive antibody screen? a. anti-M and anti-K b. anti-c and anti-E c. anti-s and anti-c d. anti-Fy^b and anti-c |
b. anti-c and anti-E
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38. Refer to the panel.
A 25-year-old Caucasian women, gravida 3, para 2, required two units of whole blood. The antibody screen was positive. What is the most probable genotype of this patient? a. rr b. r^1 r^1 c. R0r d. R1R1 |
d. R1R1
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39. Refer to the panel. A 25-year-old Caucasian women, gravida 3, para 2, required two units of whole blood. The antibody screen was positive. Which common antibody has not been ruled out by the panel?
a. anti-S b. anti-Le^a c. anti-Jk^a d. anti-K |
d. anti-K
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40. A patient's serum reacted weakly positive (1+^w) with 16 of 16 group O panel cells at the AHG test phase. The autocontrol was negative. tests with ficin-treated panel cells demonstrated no reactivity at the AHG phase. Which antibody is most likely responsible for these results?
a. anti-Ch b. anti-k c. anti-e d. anti-Js^a |
a. anti-Ch
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41. Use of EDTA plasma prevents activation of the classical complement pathway by:
a. causing rapid decay of complement components b. Chelating Mg++ ions, which prevents the assembly of C6 c. Chelating Ca++ ions, which prevents assembly of C1 d. preventing chemotaxis |
c. Chelating Ca++ ions, which prevents assembly of C1
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42. A Kleihauer-Betke stain of a postpartum blood film revealed 0.3% fetal cells. What is the estimated volume (mL) of the fetomaternal hemorrhage expressed as whole blood?
a. 5 b. 15 c. 25 d. 35 |
b. 15
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43. The most effective component to treat a patient with fibrinogen deficiency is:
a. fresh frozen plasma b. platelets c. fresh whole blood d. cryoprecipitated AHF |
d. cryoprecipitated AHF
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44. An assay of plasma from a bag of cryoprecipiated AHF yields a concentration of 9 international units (IU) of factor VIII per mL of cryoprecipitated AHF. If the volume is 9 mL, what is the factor VIII content of the bag in IU?
a. 9 b. 18 c. 27 d. 81 |
d. 81
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45. The approximate percentage of the original plasma contents of factor VIII recovered in cryoprecipitated AHF is:
a. 10%-20% b. 20%-40% c. 40%-80% d. 80%-100% |
c. 40%-80%
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46. a newborn demonstrates petechiae, ecchymosis, and mucosal bleeding. The preferred blood component for this infact would be:
a. RBC b. fresh frozen plasma c. platelets d. cryoprecipitated AHF |
c. platelets
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47. A 65 year old women experienced shaking, chills, and a fever of 103 F approximately 40 minutes following the transfusion of a second unit of RBC. The most likely explanation for the patient's symptoms is:
a. transfusion of bacterially contaminated blood b. congestive heart failure due to fluid overload c. anaphylactic transfusion reaction d. severe febrile transfusion reaction |
d. severe febrile transfusion reaction
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48. An Acid elution stain was made using a 1-hour postdelivery maternal blood sample. 2,000 cells were counyed and 30 of these cells appeared to contain fetal hemoglobin. It is the policy of the medical center to add one vial of RhIg to the calculated dose when the estimated volume of the hemorrhage exceeds 20 mL of whole blood. Calculate the number of vials of RhIg that would be indicated under these circumstances.
a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5 |
c. 4
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49. The liley method of predicing the severity of hemolutic disease of the newborn is based on the amniotic fluid:
a. bilirubin concentration by standard method b. change in optical density measured at 450 nm c. Rh determination d. ratio of lecithin to sphingomyelin |
b. change in optical density measured at 450 nm
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50. A unit of fresh frozen plasma was inadvertently thawed and then immediately refrigerated at 4C on Monday morning. On tuesday evening this unit may still be transfused as a replacement for:
a. all coagulation factors b. factor V c. factor VIII d. factor IX |
d. factor IX
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51. According to AABB standards, which of the following donors may be accepted as a blood donor?
a. hip replacement 5 months prior b. spontaneous abortion at 2 months of pregnancy, 3 months ago c. resides with a known hepatitis patient d. received a blood transfusion 22 weeks previously |
b. spontaneous abortion at 2 months of pregnancy, 3 months ago
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52. Which of the following is the correct storage temperature for the component listed?
a. cryoprecipitated AHF, 4C b. Fresh frozen plasma, -20C c. RBC frozen, -40C d. platelets, 37C |
b. Fresh frozen plasma, -20C
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53. Refer to the following data:
Antisera: Reaction: Anti-C + Anti-D + Anti-E + Anti-c + Anti-e + Which of the following is a possible genotype for an individual whose red cells give the reactions shown above? a. R1R1 b. R1r^1 c. R0r^11 d. R1R2 |
d. R1R2
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54. Which of the following blood components contains the most factor VIII concentration relative to volume?
a. single-donor plasma b. cryoprecipitated AHF c. Fresh frozen plama d. Platelets |
b. cryoprecipitated AHF
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55. Which of the following blood components must be prepared within 8 hours after phlebotomy?
a. RBC b. Fresh Frozen Plasma c. RBC, frozen d. cryoprecipitated AHF |
b. Fresh Frozen Plasma
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56. Although ABO compatibility is preferred, ABO icompatibility product may be administered when transfusing:
a. single-donor plasma b. cryoprecipitated AHF c. fresh frozen plasma d. granulocytes |
b. cryoprecipitated AHF
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57. Which of the following blood components is the best source of factor IX?
a. Platelets b. Prothrombin complex c. cryoprecipitated AHF d. single-donor plasma |
b. Prothrombin complex
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58. Coughing, syanosis, and difficulty breathing are symptoms of which of the following transfusion reactions?
a. febrile b. allergic c. circulatory overload d. hemolytic |
c. circulatory overload
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59. Hypotension, nausea, flushing, fever, and chills are symptoms of which of the following transfusion reactions?
a. allergic b. circulatory overload c. hemolytic d. anaphylactic |
c. hemolytic
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60. Hives and itching are symptoms of which of the following transfusion reactions?
a. febrile b. allergic c. circulatory overload d. anaphylactic |
b. allergic
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61. Hemoglobinuria, hypotension, and generalized bleeding are symptoms of which od the following transfusion reactions?
a. allergic b. circulatory overload c. hemolytic d. anaphylactic |
c. hemolytic
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62. Fever and chills are symptoms of which of the following transfusion reactions?
a. citrate toxicity b. circulatory overload c. allergic d. febrile |
d. febrile
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63. Cold agglutinin syndrome is best associated with which of the following blood groups?
a. Duffy b. P c. I/i d. Rh |
c. I/i
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64. The following results were obtained:
Infant: Mother: Anti-A: 4+ 0 Anti-B 0 0 Anti-D 2+ +w(mf) Rh Control 0 0 DAT 0 0 ABS NT 0 Which of the following is the most probable explaination for these results? a. hemolytic disease of the newborn due to antibody against a high-frequency antigen b. large fetomaternal hemorrhage c. hemolytic disease of the newborn due to anti-D d. mother's cells are polyagglutinable |
b. large fetomaternal hemorrhage
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65. Antibodies involved in warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia are often associated with which blood group system?
a. Rh b. I c. P d. Duffy |
a. Rh
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66. The following results were obtained:
Infant: Mother: Anti-A 0 4+ Anti-B 0 0 Anti-D 0 0 Rh Control NT 0 DAT 4+ NT ABS NT Anti-D Which of the following is the most probable explaination for these results? a. ABO hemolytic disease of the newborn b. Rh hemolytic disease of the newborn, infant has received intrauterine transfusion c. Rh hemolytic disease of the newborn, infant has a false-negative Rh typing d. large fetomaternal hemorrhage |
c. Rh hemolytic disease of the newborn, infant has a false-negative Rh typing
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67. The use of RBC, deglycerolized would be most beneficial when transfusing a patient:
a. with sickle cell anemia b. who is at high risk for hepatitis B infection c. who is sensitized to platelet antigens d. with warm autoantibody |
c. who is sensitized to platelet antigens
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68. A method currently in routine use for freezing RBC is:
a. low concentration of glycerol (5% w/v) b. low concentration of glycerol (10% w/v) c. high concentration of glycerol (40% w/v) d. high concentration of glycerol (70% w/v) |
c. high concentration of glycerol (40% w/v)
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69. Rejuvenation of a unit of RBC is a method used to:
a. remove antibody attached to RBC b. inactivate viruses and bacteria c. restore 2,3-DPG and ATP to normal levels d. filter blood clots and other debris |
c. restore 2,3-DPG and ATP to normal levels
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70. A unit of RBC is issued at 9:00AM. At 9:10 AM the unit is returned to the blood bank. The container has NOT been entered, but the unit has NOT been refrigerated during this time span. The best course of action for the technologist is to:
a. culture the unit for bacterial contamination b. discard the unit if not used within within 24 hours c. store the unit at room temperature d. record the return and place the unit back into inventory |
d. record the return and place the unit back into inventory
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71. Cryoprecipitated AHF, if maintained in the frozen state at -18 C below, has a shelf life of:
a. 42 days b. 6 months c. 12 months d. 36 months |
c. 12 months
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72. The quality assurance program for RBC, Deglycerolized should include regularly scheduled monitoring to determine:
a. sterility b. hematocrit c. potassium concentration d. acceptable glycerol removal |
d. acceptable glycerol removal
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73. Which of the following is a characteristic of polyaddlutinable red cells?
a. can be classified by reactivity with Ulex europaeus b. are agglutinated by most adult sera c. are always an acquired condition d. autocontrol is always positive |
b. are agglutinated by most adult sera
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74. Which of the following situations could result in an ABO discrepance that is caused by problems with the patient's red cells?
a. an unexpected antibody b. rouleaux c. agammaglobulinemia d. Tn activation |
d. Tn activation
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75. Which of the following is characteric of Tn polyagglutinable red cells?
a. If group O, they may appear to have acquired a group A antigen b. They show strong reactions with anti-A1 lectin c. They react with Arachis hypogaea lectin d. They polyagglutination is a transient condition |
a. If group O, they may appear to have acquired a group A antigen
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76. Mix field agglutination encountered in ABO grouping would most likely be due to:
a. Bombay phenotype (Oh) b. T activation c. A3 red cells d. positive indirect antiglobulin test |
c. A3 red cells
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77. The use of leukocyte-deplected RBC and Platelet concentrates is indicated for which of the following patient groups?
a. CMV-seropositive postpartum mothers b. victims of acute trauma with massive bleeding c. patients with history of febrile transfusion reactions d. burn victims with anemia and low serum protein |
c patients with history of febrile transfusion reactions
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78. Blood selected for exchange transfusion must:
a. lack red blood cell antigens corresponding to maternal antibodies b. be less than 3 days old c. be irradiated to prevent graft-vs-host disease d. be ABO compatible with the father |
a. lack red blood cell antigens corresponding to maternal antibodies
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79. ABO-hemolytic disease of the newborn:
a. usually requires an exchange transfusion b. most often occurs in the firstborn children c. frequently results in stillborn d. is usually seen only in the newborns of group O mothers |
d. is usually seen only in the newborns of group O mothers
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80. While performing routine postpartum testing for an RhIg candidate, a weakly positive antibody screening test was found. Anti-D was identified. This antibody is most likely the result of:
a. massive fetomaternal hemorrhage occuring at the time of this delivery b. antenatal administration of RhIg at 28 weeks' gestation c. contamination of the blood sample with Wharton's jelly d. mother having a positive direct Coombs' test |
b. antenatal administration of RhIg at 28 weeks' gestation
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81.A blood component used in the treatment of hemophilia A is:
a. Factor VIII concentrate b. Fresh Frozen Plama c. Platelets d. Whole blood |
a. Factor VIII concentrate
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82. A 24 year old man with hemophilia is involved in an auto accident and is actively bleeding. Factor VIII assay results are 8%. The blood product of choice is:
a. Singe-donor plasma b. fresh frozen plasma c. whole blood d. cryoprecipitated AHF |
d. cryoprecipitated AHF
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83. Refer to the other paper.
Which of the following should be crossmatched for this patient while more blood is being ordered? a. 6 A positive b. 4 A negative and 2 A positive c. 4 AB positive and 2 A negative d. 4 A negative, 1 Onegative, and 1 B negative |
b. 4 A negative and 2 A positive
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84.Which of the following blood components is most appropriate to transfuse to an 8 year old male hemophiliac who is about to ungergo minor surgery?
a. cryoprecipitated AHF b. RBC c. Platelets d. heat-treated factor VIII concentrate |
d. heat-treated factor VIII concentrate
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85. According to AABB standards, platelets prepared from whole blood shall have at least:
a. 5.5 x 10^10 platelets per unit in at least 75% of the units tested b. 6.5 x 10^10 platelets per unit in 75% of all the units tested c. 7.5 x 10^10 platelets per unit in 100% of the units tested d. 8.5 x 10^10 platelets per unit in 95% of the units tested |
a. 5.5 x 10^10 platelets per unit in at least 75% of the units tested
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86. Based upon Kleihauer-Betke test results, which of the following formulas is used to determine the volume of fetomaternal hemorrhage in mL of whole blood?
a. % of fetal cells x 30 b. % of fetal cells x 50 c. % of maternal cells x 50 d. % of maternal cells x 30 |
b. % of fetal cells x 50
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87. According of AABB standards, what is the minimum pH required for platelets?
a. 4 b. 5 c. 6 d. 7 |
c. 6
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88. During the preparation of platelet concentrates from whole blood, the blood shall be:
a. chilled to 6 C b. kept at room temperature c. warmed to 37 C d. heated to 57C |
b. kept at room temperature
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89. A temperature rise of 1C or more occuring in association with a transfusion is usually indicative of which of the following transfusion reactions?
a. febrile b. circulatory overload c. hemolytic d. anaphylactic |
a. febrile
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90. Which of the following transfusion reactions is characterized by high fever, shock, hemoglobinuria, DIC, and renal failure?
a. bacterial contamination b. circulatory overload c. hemolytic d. anaphylactic |
a. bacterial contamination
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91. Which of the following transfusion reactions occurs after infusion of only a few milliliters of blood and gives no history of fever?
a. febrile b. circulatory overload c. anaphylactic d. hemolytic |
c. anaphylactic
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92. During initial investigation of a suspected hemolytic transfusion reaction, it was observed that the posttransfusion serum was yellow in color and the DAT was negative. What is the next step in this investigation?
a. Repeat compatibility testing on suspected unit(s) b. Perform plasma hemoglobin and haptoglobin determinations c. Use enhancement media to repeat the antibody screen d. No further serologic testing is necessary |
d. No further serologic testing is necessary
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93. A granulocyte transfusion is indicated if the patient has:
a. leukemia b. an absolute granulocyte count of 350/microliters or less c. a viral infection d. a leukocyte count of 1,000/microliters |
b. an absolute granulocyte count of 350/microliters or less
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94. Transfusion of which of the following is needed to help correct hypofibrinogenemia due to DIC?
a. whole blood b. Fresh frozen plasma c. Cryoprecipitated AHF d. Platelets |
c. Cryoprecipitated AHF
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95. According to AABB standards, fresh frozen plasma must be infused within what period of time following thawing?
a. 24 hours b. 36 hours c. 48 hours d. 72 hours |
a. 24 hours
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96. In a quality assurance program, at least 75% of the bags of cryoprecipitated AHF must contain a minimum of how many international units of factor VIII?
a. 60 b. 70 c. 80. d. 90 |
c. 80.
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97. In the liquid state, plasma must be stored at:
a. 56 C b. 37 C c. 22 C d. 1-6 C |
d. 1-6 C
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98. Cryoprecipitated AHF must be transfused within what period of time following thawing and pooling?
a. 4 hours b. 8 hours c. 12 hours d. 24 hours |
a. 4 hours
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99. In the autoadsorption procedure for the removal od cold autoagglutinins from serum, pretreatment of the patient's red cells with which one of the following reagents is helpful?
a. ficin b. phosphate-buffered saline at pH 9.0 c. low ionic strength saline (LISS) d. albumin |
a. ficin
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100. In an emergency situation, Rh-negative red cells are transfused into an Rh-positive person of the genotype CDe/CDe. The first antibody most likely to develop is:
a. anti-c b. anti-d c. anti-e d. anti-E |
a. anti-c
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101. A 10% red cell suspension in saline is used in a compatibility test. Which of the following would most likely occur?
a. a false-positive result due to antigen excess b. a false-positive result due to the prozone phenomenon c. a false-negative result due to the prozone phenomenon d. a false-negative result due to antigen excess |
d. a false-negative result due to antigen excess
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102. The most serious transfusion reactions are due to incompatibility in which of the followingg blodd group systems?
a. ABO b. Rh c. MN d. Duffy |
a. ABO
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103. A 29 year old male is hemorrhaging severely. He is AB, Rh-negative. Six units of blood are required stat. Of the following types available in the blood bank, which would be most preferable for crossmatch?
a. A,B Rh-positive b. A, Rh-negative c. A, Rh-positive d. O, Rh-negative |
b. A, Rh-negative
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104. The following results were obtained on a patient's blood group and type during routine ABO/Rh testing:
Anti-A: Neg Anti-B: 4+ Anti-D: neg Autocontrol: neg A1 cells: 4+ B cells: 2+ Select the course of action to resolve this problem: a. draw a new blood sample from the patient and repeat all test procedures b. test the patients serum with A2 cells and the patients red cells with anti-A1 lectin c. repeat the ABO antigen grouping using three-time washed saline suspended cells d. perform antibody screening procedure at immediate spin using group O cells |
d. perform antibody screening procedure at immediate spin using group O cells
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105. An antibody that causes in vitro hemolysis and reacts with the red cells of three of 10 crossmatched donor units is most likely:
a. Anti-Le^a b. anti-s c. anti-k d. anti-E |
a. Anti-Le^a
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106. In a delayed transfusion reaction, the causative antibody is generally too weak to be detected in routine compatibility testing and antibody screening tests but becomes detectable at what point after transfusion?
a. 3 to 6 days b. 1 to 5 days c. 60 to 90 days d. after 120 days |
b. 1 to 5 days
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107. The most frequent transfusion-associated disease complication of blood transfusion is:
a. cytomegalovirus (CMV) b. syphilis c. hepatitis d. AIDS |
c. hepatitis
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108. A 22 year old man is admitted to the emergency room in shock following massive hemorrhage from knife wounds to his chest and abdomen. An emergency transfusion is required. Which of the following is the product of choice?
a. O, Rh-positive RBC b. O, Rh-negative RBC c. O, Rh-positive whole blood d. O, Rh-negative whole blood |
b. O, Rh-negative RBC
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109. The following compatibility results were obtained:
22C / 37C / AHG Donor 0 / 0 / 0 Screening Cells 0 / 0 / 0 Autocontrol 0 / 0 / 0 The most probable explanation for these findings is that the: a. patient has an antibody directed against an antigen present on donor RBCs b. donor has an antibody directed against an antigen present on patient RBCs c. patient has a positive DAT d. donor has a positive DAT |
c. patient has a positive DAT
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110.. Refer to the other papers. An antibody ID study is performed with the five-cell panel shown below:
a. An antibody against which of the the following antigens could not be excluded? a. 1 b.2 c.3 d.4 |
a. 1
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111. A patient received 2 units of RBCs and had a delayed transfusion reaction. Antibody screening records indicate that no agglutination was detected during testing except after the addition of IgG-sensitized cells. Repeat testing of the pretransfusion specimen detected an antibody at the AHG phase. What is a possible explanation?
a. red cells were overwashed b. centrigugation time was prolonged c. patient;s serum was omitted from the origional testing d. antiglobulin reagent was neutralized |
c. patient;s serum was omitted from the origional testing
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112. A patient is group A2B, Rh-positive and has an antiglobulin reacting anti-A1 in his serum. He is bleeding profusely in the operating room and group A2B red cells are not available. Which of the following types of blood should be given as a first choice?
a. B, Rh-positive b. B, Rh-negative c. A1B, Rh-positive d. O, Rh-negative |
a. B, Rh-positive
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113. Which of the following might cause a false-negative indirect antiglobulin test (IAT)?
a. overreading b. IgG-coated screening cells c. saline washed stored in a glass container d. too heavy a cell suspension |
d. too heavy a cell suspension
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114. How many units of RBC are required to raise the hematocrit of a 70-kg nonbleeding man from 24% to 30%?
a. 1 b.2 c.3 d.4 |
b. 2
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115. After receiving a unit of whole blood, a patient immediately developed flushing, nervousness, fever spike of 102F, shaking, chills, and back pain. The plasma hemoglobin was elevated and there was hemoglobinuria. Lab investigation of this adverse reaction would most likely show:
a. an error in ABO grouping b. an error in Rh typing c. presence of anti-Jk^a antibody in patient's serum d. presence of gram-negative bacteria in blood bag |
a. an error in ABO grouping
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116. A patient whose saline and albumin crossmatches were compatible had a severe hemolytic reaction. Of the following antibodies, the one most likely present is anti-:
a. Le^b b. K c. M d. P |
b. K
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117. In the DAT and IAT techniques, false-negative reactions may result if the:
a. patient's blood specimen was contaminated with bacteria b. patient's blood specimen was collected into tubes containing silicon gel c. saline used for washing the serum/cell mixture has been stored in glass or metal containers d. addition of AHG is delayed for 40 minutes or more after washing the serum/cell mixture |
d. addition of AHG is delayed for 40 minutes or more after washing the serum/cell mixture
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118. Which of the following antigens gives enhanced reactions with its corresponding antibody following treatment of the red cells with proteolytic enzymes?
a. Fy^a b. E c. S d. M |
b. E
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119. A request is received to crossmatch 5 units of RBCs on a man who is group AB positive. The blood inventory shows the following:
A positive: 23 units A negative: 6 units B positive: 4 units AB positive: 2 units O positive: 30 units O negative: 4 units Assuming all the blood crossmatched is compatible, the desirable sequence of blood units that can be issued for transfusion would be: a. 5 units of O positive b. 5 units of A positive c. 2 units of group AB positive, 3 units of A positive d. 2 units of AB positive, 3 units of B positive |
c. 2 units of group AB positive, 3 units of A positive
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120. The results of a Kleihauer-Betke stain indicate a fetomaternal hemorrhage of 35 mL of whole blood. How many vials of Rh immune globulin would be required?
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 |
b. 2
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121. Which of the foloowing would be the component of choice for treatment of Von Willebrand's disease?
a. platelets b. factor IX concentrate c. cryoprecipitated AHF d. fresh frozen plasma |
c. cryoprecipitated AHF
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122. Which of the following blood components is the best source of fibrinogen for transfusion to a patient with hypofibrinogenemia?
a. fresh frozen plasma b. whole blood c. platelets d.cryoprecipitated AHF |
d.cryoprecipitated AHF
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123. Which of the following is consistent with standard blood bank procedure governing the infusion to a patient with hypofibrinogenemia?
a. only blood group-specific plasma may be administered b. group O may be administered to recipients of all blood groups c. group AB may be administered to AB recipients only D. group A may be administered to both A and O recipients |
D. group A may be administered to both A and O recipients
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124. Which of the following is an immediate nonimmunologic adverse effect of a transfusion?
a. hemolutic reaction b. febrile nonhemolytic reaction c. congestive heart failure d. urticaria |
c. congestive heart failure
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125. A 40 year old man with autoimmune hemolytic anemia due to anti-E has a hemoglobin level of 10.8 gm/dL. This patient will most likely be treated with:
a. whole blood b. RBC c. fresh frozen plasma d. no transfusion |
d. no transfusion
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126.Below are the results of the history obtained from a prospective female blood donor:
Age: 18 Temperature: 99.0 Pulse: 80 beats/minute Hct: 36% Hgb: 12.5 g/dL History: Tetanus toxoid immunization 1 week ago How many of the above results will exclude this donor from giving blood for a routine transfusion? a. none b. one c. two d. three |
b. one
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127. A group A, Rh-positive infant of a group O, Rh-positive mother has a weakly positive DAT and a moderately elevated bilirubin at birth. The most likely cause is:
a. ABO incompatibility b. Rh incompatibility c. blood group incompatibility due to an antibody to a low-frequency antigen d. neonatal jaundice NOT associated with blood group incompatibility |
a. ABO incompatibility
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128. Prior to blood donation, the intended venipuncture site must be cleaned with a scrub solution containing:
a. hypoclorite b. isopropyl alcohol c. 10% aceton d. PVP iodine complex |
d. PVP iodine complex
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129. When removed from the refrigerator, a unit of donor blood was observed to have an accumulation of cream-colored material at the top of the plasma. The most probable caause of the accumulation is:
a. ingestion of a fatty meal shortly before blood donations b. fungal contamination of the anticoagulant solution c. bacterial contamination during collection of the blood d. failure to mix the blood with antivoagulant during collection |
a. ingestion of a fatty meal shortly before blood donations
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130. A blood specimen from a pregant woman is found to be group B, Rh-negative and the serum contains anti-D with a titer of 512. What would be the most appropriate type of blood to have available for a possible exchange transfusion for her infant?
a. O, Rh-negative b. O, Rh-positive c. B, Rh-negative d. B, Rh-positive |
a. O, Rh-negative
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131. A patient who is group AB negative needs two units of FFP. Which of the following units of plasma would be MOST acceptable for transfusion?
a. group O negative b. group A negative c. group B positive d. group AB positive |
d. group AB positive
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132. Washed RBCs would be the product of choice for a patient with:
a. multiple red cell alloantibodies b. an increased risk of hepatitis infection c. warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia d. anti-IgA antibodies |
d. anti-IgA antibodies
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133. When evaluating a suspected transfusion reaction, which of the following is the ideal sample collection time for a bilirubin determination?
a. 6 hours posttransfusion b. 12 hours posttransfusion c. 24 hours posttransfusion d. 48 hours posttransfusion |
a. 6 hours posttransfusion
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134. The test for weak D is performed by incubating a patient's red cells with:
a. several different dilutions of anti-D serum b. anti-D serum followed by washing and antiglobulin serum c. anti-D^u serum d. antiglobulin serum |
b. anti-D serum followed by washing and antiglobulin serum
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135. Refer to the following date:
Rh Genotype Mother: cde/cde father: CDe/cde These parents would most likely have a child with the genotype: a. R1R1 b. R0r c. r^1r d. rr |
d. rr
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136. A 35 year old man with von Willebrand's disease has an acute nosebleed and a hemoglobin level of 9.9 gm/dL. From the following list, select the blood component that is the most appropriate choice for transfusion to this patient.
a. Platelets b. Fresh Frozen Plasma c. Cryoprecipitated AHF d. RBCs |
c. Cryoprecipitated AHF
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137. A patient's red cells are typed as follows:
Anti-D 4+ Anti-C 0 Anti-E 0 Which of the following genotypes would correspond to these results? a. R0R0 b. R1r c. R1R2 d. R2r |
a. R0R0
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138. Whole blood for exchange transfusion of a newborn with hemolytic disease due to ABO incompatibility should be:
a. group O with no hemolytic anti-A or anti-B b. same ABO group as the mother c. same ABO group as the baby d. group AB with no detectable antibodies |
a. group O with no hemolytic anti-A or anti-B
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139. Four units of blood are needed for elective surgery. The patient's serum contains anti-C, anti-e, anti-Fya, and anti-Jkb. Which of the following would be the best source of donor blood?
a. autologous donations b. test 100 group O negative donors c. test 100 group-compatible donors d. rare donor file |
a. autologous donations
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140. Refer to the diagram on the other paper. Given the most probable genotypes of the parents, which of the following statements best describes the most probable genotypes of the four children?
a. 2 are R1r, 2 are R1R1 b. 3 are R1r, 1 is rr c. 1 is R0r, 1 is R1r, 2 are R1R1 d. 1 is R0r^1, 1 is R1R1, 2 are R1r |
a. 2 are R1r, 2 are R1R1
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141. Which unit should be selected for exchange transfusion if the newborn is group A positive and the mother is group A positive with anti-c?
a. A, CDe/CDe b. A, cDE/cDE c. O, cde/cde d. A, cde/cde |
a. A, CDe/CDe
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142. Polyspecific reagents used in the DAT should have specificity for:
a. IgG and IgA b. IgG and C3d c. IgM and IgA d. IgM and C3d |
b. IgG and C3d
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143. In the DAT, tha antiglobulin reagent is used to:
a. mediate hemolysis if indirect RBC by providing complement b. precipitate antierythrocyte antibodies c. measure antibodies in a test serum by fixing complement d. detect preexiasting antibodies on erythrocytes |
d. detect preexiasting antibodies on erythrocytes
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144. Human blood groups were discovered around 1900 by:
a. Jules Bordet b. Louis Pasteur c. Karl Landsteiner d. P.L. Mollison |
c. Karl Landsteiner
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145. What increment of platelets/microliters, per m^2 body surface area, is expected to result from each single unit of platelets transfused into a non-HLA-sensitized recipient?
a. 3,000 b. 10,000 c. 20,000 d. 30,000 |
b. 10,000
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146. If the seal is entered on a unit of whole blood stored at 1C to 6 C, what is the maximum allowable storage period, in hours?
a. 6 b. 24 c. 48 d. 72 |
b. 24
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147. A Whole Blood unit from a donor that contains a clinically significant red cell alloantibody should be:
a. discarded b. adsorbed with antigen-positive red cells before issue c. processed into components containing minimal plasma d. labeled with antibody specificity |
c. processed into components containing minimal plasma
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148. Which of the following Rh antigens has the highest frequency in Caucasians?
a. D b. E c. c d. e |
d. e
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149. Which of the following blood group systems is most commonly associated with delayed hemolytic transfusion reactions?
a. Lewis b. Kidd c. MNS d. I |
b. Kidd
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150. Which of the following immunoglobulins is present in the highest concentration in normal human serum?
a. IgM b. IgG c. IgA d. IgE |
b. IgG
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151. A mother is group A, with anti-D in her serum. What is the preferred blood product if an intrauterine transfusion is indicated?
a. O negative RBC b. O negative RBC, IRRD c. A negative RBC, d. A negative RBC, IRRD |
b. O negative RBC, IRRD
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152. The most appropriate lab test for early detection of acute hemolysis is:
a. a visual inspection for free plasma hemoglobin b. plawsma haptoglobin concemntration c. examination for hematuria d. serum bilirubin contentration |
a. a visual inspection for free plasma hemoglobin
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153. Even in the absence of prior transfusion or pregnancy, individuals with the Bombay phenotype (Oh) will always have naturally occurring:
a. anti-Rh b. anti-K0 c. anti-U d. anti-H |
d. anti-H
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154. HLA antibodies are:
a. naturally occurring b. induced by multiple transfusions c. directed against granulocyte antigens only d. frequently cause hemolytic transfusion reactions |
b. induced by multiple transfusions
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155. Genes of the major histocompatibility complex (MHC):
a. code for HLA-A, HLA-B, and HLA-C antigens only b. are linked to genes in the ABO system c. are the primary genetic sex determinants d. contribute to the coordination of cellular and humoral immunity |
d. contribute to the coordination of cellular and humoral immunity
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156. During storage, the concentration of 2,3-diphosphoglycerate (2,3-DPG) decreases in a unit of:
a. platelets b. fresh frozen plasma c. RBC d. cryoprecipitated AHF |
c. RBC
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157. Which of the following antigens is MOST likely to be involved in hemolytic disease of the newborn?
a. Lea b. P1 c. M d. Kell |
d. Kell
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158. Fresh frozen plasma:
a. contains alllabile coagulative factors except cryoprecipitated AHF b. has a higher risk of transmitting hepatitis than does whole blood c.should be transfused within 24 hours of thawing d. need not be ABO-compatible |
c. should be transfused within 24 hours of thawing
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159. Cryoprecipitated AHF:
a. is indicated for fibrinogen deficiencies b. should be stored at 4C prior to administration c. will not transmit hepatitis B virus d. is indicated for the treatment of hemophilia B |
a. is indicated for fibrinogen deficiencies
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160. An important determinant of platelet viability following storage is:
a. plasma potassium concentration b. plasma pH c. prothrombin time d. activated partial thromboplastin time |
b. plasma pH
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161. According to AABB standards, platelets must be:
a. gently agitated if stored at room temperature b. seperated within 12 hours of whole blood collection c. suspended in sufficient plasma to maintain a pH of 5.0 or lower d. prepared only from whole blood units that have been stored at 4C for 6 hours |
a. gently agitated if stored at room temperature
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162. Platelet transfusions are most value in treating:
a. hemolytic transfusion reaction b. posttransfusion purpura c. functional platelet abnormalities d. immune thrombocytopenic purpura |
c. functional platelet abnormalities
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163. An unexplained fall in hemoglobin and mild jaundice in a patient transfused with RBCs 1 week ago would most likely indicate:
a. paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria b. posttransfusion hepatitis infection c. presence of HLA antibodies d. delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction |
d. delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction
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164. Fresh frozen plasma from a group A positive donor may be safely transfused to a patient who is group:
a. A negative b. B negative c. AB positive d. AB negative |
a. A negative
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165. The drug cephalosporin can cause a positive DAT by which of the following mechanisms?
a. immune-complex formation b. complement fixation c. autoantibody production d. membrane modification |
d. membrane modification
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166. Which of the following would most likely be responsible for an incompatible major crossmatch?
a. recipient's red cells possess a low-frequency antigen b. anti-K antibody in donor serum c. recipient's red cells are polyagglutinable d. donor red cells have a positive DAT |
d. donor red cells have a positive DAT
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167. Rh immune globulin administration would not be indicated in an Rh-negative women who has a(n):
a. first trimester abortion b. husband who is Rh-positive c. anti-D titer of 1:4096 d. positive direct Coombs' test |
c. anti-D titer of 1:4096
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168. A fetomaternal hemorrhage of 35 mL of fetal Rh-positive packed RBCs has been detected in an Rh-negative woman. How many vials of Rh immune globulin should be given
a. 0 b. 1 c. 2 d. 3 |
d. 3
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169. What information is essential on the label of recipient blood samples drawn for compatibility testing?
a. biohazard sticker for AIDS patients b. patient's room number c. patient's hospital ID number d. patient's date of birth |
c. patient's hospital ID number
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170. Which of the following red cell antigens are found on glycophorin-A?
a. M,N b. Lea, Leb c. S,s d. P, P1, Pk |
a. M,N
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171. Curent testing on all donor blood must include:
a. complete Rh phenotype b. indirect antiglobulin test c. DAT d. serological test for syphilis |
d. serological test for syphilis
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172. Irradiation of a unit of RBC is done to prevent the replication of donor:
a. granulocytes b. lymphocytes c. red cells d. platelets |
b. lymphocytes
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173. AHG (Coombs) control cells:
a. can be used as a positive control for anti-C3 reagents b. can be used only for the indirect Coombs' test c. are coated only with IgG antibody d. must be used to confirm all positive Coomb's reactions |
c. are coated only with IgG antibody
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174. During the issue of an autologous unit of whole blood, the supernatant plasma is observed to be dark red in color. What would be the best course of action?
a. The unit be issued only for autologous use b. Remove the plasma and issue the init as red blood cells c. Issue the unit only as washed RBCs d. Quarantine the unit until further testing determines disposition |
d. Quarantine the unit until further testing determines disposition
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175. An Rh-positive patient's serum is known to contain anti-LW. RBCs selected for crossmatch should be from which of the following genotypes?
a. R1R1 b. R2R2 c. R0R0 d. rr |
d. rr
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176. A first-time blood donor is noticed to experience rapid breathing and involuntaty twitching of his fingers shortly after starting phelotomy. The phlebotomist shoud:
a. raise his feet above his head b. administer oxygen c. have him rebreathe air from a paper bag d. have him inhale from an ammonia capsule |
c. have him rebreathe air from a paper bag
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177. The most important step in the safe administration of blood is to:
a. perform compatbility testing accurately b. get an accurate patient history c. exclude disqualified donors d. accurately ID the donor unit and intended recipient |
d. accurately ID the donor unit and intended recipient
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178. What is the most probable racial origin of this donor with the following typing results?
Le (a-b-); Fy(a-b-); Js(a+b+) a. Black b. Oriental c. American Indian d. Caucasian |
a. Black
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179. The Kell (K1) antigen is:
a. absent from the red cells of neonates b. strongly immunogenic c. destroyed by enzymes d. has a frequency of 50% in the random population |
b. strongly immunogenic
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180. The antibody in the Luthern system that is best detected at lower temperatures is:
a. anti-Lua b. anti-Lub c. anti-Lu3 d. anti-Lu |
a. anti-Lua
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181. Which of the following HTLA antibodies is considered to be most clinically significant?
a. anti-Yta b. anti0Ch c. anti-Yk d. anti-Cs |
a. anti-Yta
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182. A donor is tested with Rh antisera, with the following results: Anti-D +, Anti-C +, Anti-E =, Anti-c +, Anti-e +, Rh control =
What is his most prabable Rh genotype? a. R1R1 b. R1r c. R0r d. R2r |
b. R1r
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183. While performing an antibody screen, a test reaction is observed that is suspected to be rouleaux. A saline replacement test is done and the reaction remains. What is the best interpretation?
a. The original reaction was rouleaux and may be ignored b. The replacement test is invalid and should be repeated c. The original reaction was due to true agglutination d. The antibody screen is negative |
c. The original reaction was due to true agglutination
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184. Which of the following is a characteristic of anti-i?
a. often associated with hemolytic disease of the newborn b. frequently a cold agglutination c. reacts best at 37C d. is usually IgG |
b. frequently a cold agglutination
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185. The test currently used to detect donors who are infected with the AIDS virus is:
a. anti-HBc b. anti-HIV 1,2 c. HBsAg d. ALT |
b. anti-HIV 1,2
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186. What is/are the minimum pretransfusion testing requirement(s) for autologous donations collected and transfused by the same facility?
a. ABO and Rh typing only b. ABO/Rh type, antibody screen c. ABO/Rh type, antibody screen, crossmatch d. no pretransfusion testing is required for autologous donations |
a. ABO and Rh typing only
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187. For plateletpheresis donors, the pretransfusion platelet count must be at least:
a. 150 x 10^3/microliters b. 200 x 10^3/microliters c. 250 x 10^3/microliters d. 300 x 10^3/microliters |
a. 150 x 10^3/microliters
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188. A patient admitted to the trauma unit requires emergency release of fresh frozen plasma. His blood donor card states that he is group AB positive. Which of the following blood groups of FFP should be issued?
a. A b. B c. AB d. O |
c. AB
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189. Refer to the following date:
Hemoglobulin 7.4 g/dL Reticulocyte count 22% DAT ABS poly: 3+ SC1: 3+ IgG: 3+ SC2: 3+ C3: 0 SC3: 3+ which clinical condition is consistent with the lab results shown above? a. could hemagglutinin disease b. warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia c. penicillin-induced hemolytic anemia d. delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction |
b. warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia
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190. The mechanism that best explains hemolytic anemia due to penicillin is:
a. drug adsorption b. membrane modification c. immune complex formation d. autoantibody production |
a. drug adsorption
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191. Lab studies of maternal and cord blood yield the following results:
Maternal Blood Cord Blood O = B + Anti-E is serum DAT 2+ Anti-E in elute If exchange transfusion is necessary, the best choice of blood is: a. B =, E + b. B +, E+ c. O =, E = d. O +, E = |
d. O +, E =
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192. The blood sample of choice for the pretransfusion testing of neonates with HDN is:
a. maternal serum b. maternal eluate c. cord blood serum d. cord blood elute |
a. maternal serum
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193. What is the most likely cause of the following ABO discrepancy?
Patient cell patient serum Anti-A 0 A1 cells 0 Anti-B 0 B cells 0 a. recent transfusion with group O blood b. antigen depression due to leukemia c. false-negative cell typing due to rouleaux d. hypogammaglobulinemia due to advanced patient age |
d. hypogammaglobulinemia due to advanced patient age
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194. A patient is typed as group O positive and crossmatched with 6 units of blood. At the indirect antiglobulin phase of testing, both antibody screening cells and 2 crossmatched units are incompatible. What is the most likely cause of the incompatibility?
a. recipient alloantibody b. recipient autoantibody c. donors have positive DATs d. rouleaux |
a. recipient alloantibody
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195. Refer to the other paper.
What should be done next: a. antibody ID b. neutralization c. cold autoadsorption d. elute |
c. cold autoadsorption
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196. For which of the following transfusion candidates would CMV-seronegative blood be MOST likely indicated?
a. renal dialysis patients b. pregnant women c. transplant candidates d. CMV-seropositive patients |
c. transplant candidates
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197. Posttransfusion purpura is caused by:
a. anti-A b. white cell antibodies c. ant-P1^1 d. platelet washout |
c. ant-P1^1
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198. Posttransufion anaphylactic reactions occur most often in patients with:
a. leukocyte antibodies b. erythrocyte antibodies c. IgA deficiency d. Factor VIII deficiency |
c. IgA deficiency
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199. The antibodies of the Kidd blood group system:
a. react best by the indirect antiglobulin test b. are predominantly IgM c. often cause allergic transfusion reactions d. do not generally react with antigen-positive, enzyme-treated RBCs |
a. react best by the indirect antiglobulin test
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200. Which of the following prospective donors would be accepted for donation?
a. 32y/o W who received a transfusion in a complicated delivery 5 months ago b. 19y/o sailor who has been stateside for 1 year & stopped taking his antimalarial meds 1 year ago c. 22y/o college student who has a temp of 99.2 F and states that he feels well but is nervous about donating d. 45y/o W who has recovered from a bladder infection and is still taking antobiotics |
c. 22 year old college student who has a temperature of 99.2 F and states that he feels well but is nervous about donating
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201. Transfusion of plateletpheresis products from HLA-compatible donors is the preferred treatment for:
a. recently diagnosed cases of TTP with severe thrombocytopenia b. acute leukemia in relapse with neutropenia, thrombocytopenia and sepsis c. immune thrombocytopenia purpura d. severly thrombocytopenic patients, known to be refractory to random donor platelets |
d. severly thrombocytopenic patients, known to be refractory to random donor platelets
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202. Why are donors deferred for 6 months following receipt of blood products?
a. to permit adequate screening for transfusion-acquired viral infections b. donation may cause recurrence of the condition that required transfusion c. to allow clearance of all transfused cells in the donor d. to allow donor recovery from the condition that required transfusion |
a. to permit adequate screening for transfusion-acquired viral infections
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203. A 37 year old female with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is admitted with anemia. Blood samples are received with a crossmatch request for 4 units of RBCs. The patient is group B negative. The following were obtained in pretransfusion testing:
IAT SC1 3+ SC2 3+ SC3 3+ The msot probable cause of these results is: a. rouleaux b. a warm autoantibody c. a cold autoantibody d. multiple alloantibodies |
b. a warm autoantibody
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204. A 42 year old female is undergoing surgery tomorrow and her physician requests that 4 units of RBCs be crossmatched. The following results were obtained:
IS / 37C / IAT SC1 0 / 0 / 0 SC2 0 / 0 / 0 Autocontrol 0 / 0 / 0 Crossmatch Donor 1 4+/1+/+ - Crossmatch Donor 2,3,4 0/0/0 What is the most likely cause of the incompatibility of donor 1? a. Single alloantibody b. multiple alloantibodies c. Rh incompatibilities d. Donor 1 has a positive DAT |
a. Single alloantibody
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205. Examine the following results of ABO typing tests and state the most probable cause of the discrepancy.
Pt's cells Pt's serum Anti-A= 0 A1= 2+ Anti-B= 0 B cells= 4+ Anti-A,B= +/- a. acquired B antigen b. the patient is a newborn c. chimerism d. weak subgroup of A with anti-A1 |
d. weak subgroup of A with anti-A1
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206. A 14 year old male trauma victim is in need to 3 units of RBCs. The following results were obtained during pretransfusion testing.
IS / 37C / IAT SC1 0 / 0 / 0 SC2 0 / 0 / 0 Autocontrol 0 / 0 / 0 Crossmatch Donor 1 0/0/0 Crossmatch Donor 2 0/0/+ - Crossmatch Donor 3 0/0/0 What is the FIRST step in resolving this problem? a. perform an enzyme panel on the patient's serum b. choose more donors to crossmatch c. repeat the crossmatch d. perform a DAT on donor 2 |
d. perform a DAT on donor 2
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207. The western Blot is a confirmatory test for the presence of:
a. CMV antibody b. anti-HIV-1 c. HBsAg d. serum protein abnormalities |
b. anti-HIV-1
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208. A commonly used screening method for anti-HIV-1 detection is:
a. latex agglutination b. radioimmunoassay (RIA) c. thin-layer chromatography (TLC) d. enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) |
d. enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)
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209. Which of the following red cell typings would most commonly be found in the black donor population?
a. Lu(a-b-) b. Jk(a-b-) c. Fy(a-b-) d. K-k- |
c. Fy(a-b-)
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210. An individual's RBC give the following reactions with Rh antisera:
Antisera Reaction Anti-D 4+ Anti-C 3+ Anti-E 0 Anti-c 3+ Anti-e 3+ Rh-control 0 The most probablt genotype of this indivual is: a. CDe/cDE b. cDE/cde c. cDe/cde d. CDe/cde |
d. CDe/cde
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211. A patient is typed with the following results:
Anti-A: 0 Anti-B: 0 Anti-A,B: 2+ A1 red cells: 2+ B red cells: 4+ Antibody Screening: negative The most probable reason for these findings is that the patient is group: a. O-confusion due to faulty group O antiserum b. O-with an anti-A1 antibody c. Ax-with an anti-A1 antibody d. A1-with an anti-A antibody |
c. Ax-with an anti-A1 antibody
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212. The primary indication for granulocyte transfusion is:
a. prophylactic treatment for infection b. additional supportive therapy in thise patients who are responsive to antibiotic therapy c. clinical situations where bone marrow recovery is not anticipated d. severe neutropenia with an infection nonresponsive to antibiotic therapy |
d. severe neutropenia with an infection nonresponsive to antibiotic therapy
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213. A patient in the immediate post-bone marrow transplant period has a hematocrit of 21%. The red cell product of choice for this patient would be:
a. packed b. saline washed c. microaggregated filtered d. irradiated |
d. irradiated
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214. A sample gives the following results:
Cells with Serum with Anti-A 3+ A1 cells 4+ Anti-B 4+ B cells neg. Which lectin should be used first to resolve this discrepancy? a. Ulex europaeus b. Arachis hypogaea c. Dolichos biflorus d. Vicia graminea |
c. Dolichos biflorus
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215. A man suffering from gastrointestinal bleeding has received 20 units of RBCs in the past 24 hours and is still oozing postoperatively. The following results were obtained:
PT: 20 sec (control, 12 sec) APTT: 43 sec (control, 31 sec) Platelet Count: 160 X 10 ^3/uL Hgb: 10 g/dL Factor VIII: 85% What blood product should be administered? a. Fresh frozen plasma b. RBC c. Factor VIII concentrate d. Platelets |
a. Fresh frozen plasma
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216. Anti-I usually results in a positive DAT because of:
a. anti-I agglutinating the cells b. C3d bound to the red cells c. T-activation d. C3c remaining on the red cells after cleavage of C3b |
b. C3d bound to the red cells
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217. B lymphocytes are associated with:
a. graft rejection b. macrophage stimulation c. delayed hypersensitivity reaction d. synthesis of antibody |
d. synthesis of antibody
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218. Plastic bag overwraps are recommended when thawing units of FFP in 37 C water baths because they prevent:
a. the FFP bag from cracking when it contacts the warm water b. water from slowly traveling across the bag membrane (dialysis) c. the entry ports from becoming contaminated with water d. the label from peeling off as the water circulates in the bath |
c. the entry ports from becoming contaminated with water
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219. A unit of RBCs expiring in 35 days is split into 5 small aliquots using a sterile pediatric quad set and a sterile connecting device. Each aliquot must be labeled as expiring in:
a. 6 hours b. 12 hours c. 5 days d. 35 days |
d. 35 days
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220. Refer to the following information.
Mother Newborn D: neg / 4+ Rh Control: neg / neg D^u: + micro / NT D^u Control: neg / NT Rosette Fetal Screen: 20 / NT What is the best interpretation for the lab data given? a. mother is Rh positive b. mother is D^u variant c. mother has had a fetal-maternal hemorrhage d. mother has a positive DAT |
c. mother has had a fetal-maternal hemorrhage
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221. A women who was requested to be a direct donor had a mastectomy with radiotherapy for breast carcinoma 5 years ago. Currently, she is well and has a hemoglobin of 14 g/dL and a hematocrit of 41%. The blood bank should:
a. accept the unit of blood for directed donation b. accept the unit of blood for general use c. accept the donor for only washed RBCs d. defer the donor permanently |
d. defer the donor permanently
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222. A cause for permanent deferral of blood donation is:
a. diabetes b. residence in an endemic malaria region c. history of jaundice of uncertain cause d. history of therapeutic rabies vaccine |
c. history of jaundice of uncertain cause
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223. Refer to the other paper for the reactions that were obtained.
The results are consistent with: a. acquired immunodeficiency disease b. Bruton's agammaglobulinemia c. multiple myeloma d. acquired "B" antigen |
c. multiple myeloma
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224. Upon insepction, a unit of platelets is noted to have visible clots, but otherwise appears normal. The technologist should:
a. issue without concern b. filter to remove the clots c. centrifuge to express off the clots d. quarantine for Gram stain and culture |
d. quarantine for Gram stain and culture
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225. Which plateletpheresis product should be irradiated?
a. autologous unit collected prior to surgery b. random stock unit going to a patient with DIC c. a directed donation given by a mother for her son d. a directed donation given by an unrelated family friend |
c. a directed donation given by a mother for her son
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226. The following test results are noted for a unit of blood labeled group A negative:
Cells plus Anti-A= 4+ Anti-B= 0 Anti-D= 3+ Rh control= 0 What should be done next? a. transfuse as a group A negative b. transfuse as a group A positive c. notify the collecting facility d. discard the unit |
c. notify the collecting facility
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227. A technologist typed 10 units for c antigen. All 10 units test c-negative after a 37C incubation. The technologist should:
a. record the units as c-negative b. wash the antigen typings and add Ahg c. recheck the antisera with positive and negative controls d. titrate the antisera to check its avidity |
c. recheck the antisera with positive and negative controls
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228. Leukocyte-reduced RBCs are ordered for a newly diagnosed bone marrow candidate. What is the best way to prepare this product?
a. crossmatch only CMV seronegative units b. irradiate the unit with 1500 rads c. wash the unit with saline prior to infusion d. transfuse through a 3 Long leukocyte-removing filter |
d. transfuse through a 3 Long leukocyte-removing filter
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229. When platelets are stored on a rotator set on an open bench top, the ambient air temperature must be recorded:
a. one a day b. twice a day c. every 4 hours d. every hour |
c. every 4 hours
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230. Which of the following tests is the most commonly used to demonstrate antibodies that have become attached to a patient's red cells in vivo?
a. direct antiglobulin b. complement fixation c. indirect antiglobulin d. immunofluorescence |
a. direct antiglobulin
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231. Some blood group antibodies characteristically hemolyze appropriate red cells in the presence of:
a. complement b. anticoagulants c. preservatives d. penicillin |
a. complement
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232. The minimum hemoglobin concentration in g/dL in a fingerstick from a male blood donor is:
a. 12.0 b. 12.5 c. 13.5 d. 15.0 |
b. 12.5
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233. The purpose of testing with anti-A,B is to detect:
a. anti-A1 b. anti-A2 c. subgroups of A d. subgroups of B |
c. subgroups of A
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234. A mother is Rh-negative and the father Rh-positive. Their baby is Rh-negative. it may be concluded that:
a. the father is homozygous Rh-positive b. the mother is heterozygous Rh-negative c. the father is heterozygous Rh-positive d. at least one of the three Rh typings must be erroneous |
c. the father is heterozygous Rh-positive
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235. In performing an antibody screening test and/or compatibility test, the use of a patient's specimen collected in an EDTA tube will:
a. prevent the detection of all clinically significant antibodies b. require the use of LISS c. require an extended incubation time period d. prevent the detection of complement-dependent antibodies |
d. prevent the detection of complement-dependent antibodies
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236. Which of the following represents an acceptably identified patient for sample collection and transfusion?
a. a handwritten band with patient's name and hospital ID number is affixed to the patient's leg b. the addressographed hospital band is taped to the patient's bed c. an unbanded patientresponds positively when his name is called d. the chart transported with the patient contains his armband not yet attached |
a. a handwritten band with patient's name and hospital ID number is affixed to the patient's leg
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237.RhIg is requested for an Rh-negative mother who has the following results:
Mother's postpartum sample: D: 0 D Control: 0 D^u: 1+mf D^u control: 0 What is the most likely explanation? a. mother is a genetic weak D b. Mother had a fetomaternal hemorrhage of D+ cells c. mother's red cells are coated weakly with IgG d. anti-D reagent is contaminated with an atypical antibody |
b. Mother had a fetomaternal hemorrhage of D+ cells
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238. Samples from the same patient were received on 2 consecutive days. Test results are summarized below:
Day 1 Day 2 Anti-A: 4+ / 0 Anti-B: 0 / 4+ Anti-D: 3+ / 3+ Rh control: 0 / 0 A1 cells: 0 / 4+ B cells: 4+ / 0 Antibody Screen: neg / neg How should the request for crossmatch be handles? a. crossmatch A positive units with sample from day 1 b. crossmatch B positive units with samples from day 2 c. crossmatch AB positive units with both samples d. collect a new sample and repeat the tests |
d. collect a new sample and repeat the tests
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239. The following results are seen on a maternal postpartum sample:
Mother's cells: Rh: 0 Rh Control: 0 D^u: + (mf) D^u control: 0 The most appropriate course of action is to: a. report as Rh-negative b. report as D^u positive c. perform an elution d. investigate for a fetomaternal hemorrhage |
d. investigate for a fetomaternal hemorrhage
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240. The following tet reults were obtained on a patient sample. The anti-D used was a chemically modified reagent.
Anti-A: 4+ Anti-B: negative Anti-D: 4+ A1 cells: negative B cells: 4+ The best interpretation is that: a. the sample is Rh-positive b. the sample is Rh-negative c. the Rh results is invalid d. a high-protein Rh control must be run |
a. the sample is Rh-positive
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241. Review the following schematic diagram:
Patient serum + Reagent group 'O' cells Incubate -> read for agglutination Wash -> add AHG -> agglutination Observed The next step would be to: a. add check cells as a confirmatory measure b. ID the cause of the agglutination c. perform an elution technique d. perform a DAT |
b. ID the cause of the agglutination
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242, The most common cause of posttransfusion hepatitis can be detected in donors by testing for:
a. anti-HCV b. HBsAG c. anti-HAV IgM d. anti-HBe |
a. anti-HCV
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243. A unit of packed cells is split into 2 aliquots under closed sterile conditions at 8 am. The expiration time for each aliquot is now:
a. 4 pm on the same day b. 8 pm on the same day c. 8 am on the next morning d. the original date of the unsplit unit |
d. the original date of the unsplit unit
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244. A group B negative patient has a positive DAT. Which of the following situations would occur?
a. all major crossmatches would be incompatible b. the D^u test and control would be postive c. the antibody screening test would be positive d. the forward and reverse ABO groupings would not be agreed |
b. the D^u test and control would be postive
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245. Which blood component is most effective in treating a patient with von Willebrand's disease?
a. platelets b. stored plasma c. cryoprecipitated AHF d. whole blood |
c. cryoprecipitated AHF
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246. A group B negative patient in shock from acute blood loss would benefit most from a transfusion of:
a. group O positive RBC b. group B negative FFP c. group B positive RBC d. group B whole blood |
d. group B whole blood
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247. To qualify as a donor for autologous transfusion, a patient's hemoglobulin should be at least:
a. 8 g/dL b. 11 g/dL c. 13 g/dL d. 15 g/dL |
b. 11 g/dL
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248. After checking inventory, it was noted that there were no units on the shelf marked "may Issue as Uncrossmatched: For emergency only." Which of the following should the technician now place on this shelf?
a. one unit of each of the ABO blood groups b. units of group O positive whole blood c. units of group O negative RBC d. any unit expiring at midnight |
c. units of group O negative RBC
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249. Hydroxyethyl starch (HES) is a rouleaux-promoting agent used to:
a. increase the harvest of granulocytes in leukapheresis b. treat patients following hemolytic tranfusion reaction c. resolve ABO typing discrepancies d. stabilize the pH of stored Platelets |
a. increase the harvest of granulocytes in leukapheresis
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250. Refer to the other paper. Based on the results of the panel, the most likely antibodies are:
a. anti-M and anti-K b. anti-E, anti-Fy^a, and anti-K c. anti-Fy^a and anti-M d. anti-E and anti-Le^b |
b. anti-E, anti-Fy^a, and anti-K
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251. Refer to the other paper. Based on the results of the panel, which technique would be most helpful in determining antibody specificity?
a. proteolytic enzyme treatment b. urine neutralization c. autoadsorption d. saliva inhibition |
a. proteolytic enzyme treatment
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252. Which of the following medications is most likely to cause production of autoantibodies?
a. penicillin b. cephalothin c. methyldopa d. tetracycline |
c. methyldopa
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253. Which of the following is the best source of HLA-compatible leukocytes or platelets?
a. mother b. father c. siblings d. cousins |
c. siblings
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254. Leukocyte-poor RBCs would most likely be indicated for patients with a history of:
a. febrile transfusion of Rh-incompatible platelets b. iron deficiency anemia c. hemophilia A d. von Willebrand's disease |
a. febrile transfusion of Rh-incompatible platelets
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255. A patient has become refractory to platelet transfusion. Which of the following are probable causes?
a. transfusion of Rh-incompatible platelets b. decreased pH of the platelets c. development of an alloantibody with anti-D specificity d. development of antibodies to HLA |
d. development of antibodies to HLA
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256. Which of the following would most likely indicate that a patient's red cells are a subgroup of A?
a. positive autocontrol b. heavy rouleaux in the serum c. positive antibody screening test d. discrepancy between cell and serum ABO grouping |
d. discrepancy between cell and serum ABO grouping
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257. Transfusion of Ch+ (Chido-positive) red cells to a patient with anti-Ch been reported to cause:
a. no clinically significant red cell destruction b. clinically significant immune red cell destruction c. decreased 51Cr red cell survivals d. febrile transfusion reactions |
a. no clinically significant red cell destruction
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258. What happens to an antibody in an in vitro neutralization study when a soluble antigen preparation is added?
a. inhibition b. dilution c. complement fixation d. hemolysis |
a. inhibition
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259. Proteolytic enzyme treatment of red cells usually destroys which antigen?
a. Jka b. E c. Fya d. k |
c. Fya
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260. Results of a serum sample tested against a panel of reagent red cells gives presumptive evidence of an alloantibody directed against a high incidence antigen. Further investigation to confirm the specificty should include which of the following?
a. serum testing against red cells from random donors b. serum testing against red cells known to lack high incidence antigens c. serum testing against enzyme-treated autologous red cells d. testing of an eluate prepared from the patient's red cell |
b. serum testing against red cells known to lack high incidence antigens
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261. A test panel composed of HBsAg, anti-HAV-IgM, and anti-HBc is designed to:
a. indicate immunity to hepatitis b. estimate the degree of infectivity c. aid in the diagnosis of past hepatitis infection d. aid in the diagnosis of acute viral hepatitis |
d. aid in the diagnosis of acute viral hepatitis
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262. One of the most useful techniques in the ID and classification of high-titer, low-avidity (HTLA) antibodies is:
a. reagent red cell panels b. adsorption and elution c. titration and inhibition d. cold autoadsorption |
c. titration and inhibition
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263. Which of the following measures should be employed if a donor experiences perioral paresthesia during an apheresis procedure?
a. increase flow rate b. reduce flow rate c. elevate donor's feet d. have donor breathe into a paper bag |
b. reduce flow rate
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264. What precent of group O donors would be compatibile with a serum sample that contained anti-X and anti-Y if X antigen is present on red cells of 5 of 20 donors and Y antigen is present on red cells of 1 of 10 donors?
a. 2.5 b. 6.8 c. 25.0 d. 68.0 |
d. 68.0
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265. The following results were obtained when testing a sample from a 20 year old, first time blood donor. What is the most likely cause of the ABO discrepency?
Forward group Reverse group Anti-A= 0 A1 cells= 0 Anti-B= 0 B cells= 3+ a. loss of antigen due to disease b. acquired B c. phenotype Oh "Bombay" d. weak subgroup of A |
d. weak subgroup of A
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266. A patient is group O negative with anti-D and anti-k in her serum. What % of the general Caucasian donor population would be compatible with this patient?
a. 0.5 b.2.0 c.3.0 d. 6.0 |
d. 6.0
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267. Refer to the other paper.
The most likely explanation for the presence of anti-C is that this antibody is: a. actually anti-Cw b. from the RhIg dose c. actually anti-G d. naturally occurring |
c. actually anti-G
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268. Which of the following phenotypes will rect with anti-f?
a. rr b. R1R1 c. R2R2 d. R1R2 |
a. rr
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269. A women types as Rh positive. She has an anti-c titer of 32 at AHG. her baby has a negative DAT and is not affected by hemolytic disease of the newborn. What is the father's most likely Rh phenotype?
a. rr b. r^11r c. R1r d. R2r |
a. rr
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270. Which red cell genotype has the least amount og LW antigen?
a. CDe/CDe b. Cde/cDE c. cDE/cde d. cde/cde |
d. cde/cde
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271. Plasma exchange is recommended in the treatment of patients with macroglobulinemia in order to remove:
a. antigen b. excess IgM c. excess IgG d. abnormal platelets |
b. excess IgM
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272. Glycophorin B is associated with the antigenic activity of:
a. MN b. Ss c. WraWrb d. Lea/Lub |
b. Ss
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273. Refer to the other paper.
ABO discrepancy was thought to be due to an antibody directed against acriflavine. Which test would resolve this discrepancy? a. A1 lectin b. wash patient's RBCs and repeat testing c. anti-A,B and extend incubation of the reverse group d. repeat reverse group using A2 cells |
b. wash patient's RBCs and repeat testing
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274. Refer to the following data:
Anti-A: 4+ Anti-B: neg Anti-A1 lectin: 4+ A1 cells: neg A2 cells: 2+ B cells: 4+ Which of the following antibody screen results would you expect with the ABO discrepancy seen above? a. negative b. positive with all screen cells at the 37C phase c. positive with all screen cells at the RT phase; autocontrol is negative d. positive with all screen cells and the autocontrol cells at the RT phase |
c. positive with all screen cells at the RT phase; autocontrol is negative
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275. To confirm the specificity of anti-Leb, an inhibition study using Lewis substance was performed with the following results:
Le(b+) cells pt serum + Lewis substance: + pt serum + Saline control: 0 What conclusion can be made from these results? a. Anti-Leb is confirmed b. anti-Leb is not confirmed c. A second antibody is suspected due to the positive control d. Anti-Leb cannot be confirmed due to the positive control |
b. anti-Leb is not confirmed
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276. Serologic results on an untransfused patient were:
Antibody Screen: neg DAT: 3+ Ether eluate: neg Which drug would most likely be involved? a. methyldopa b. aspirin c. insulin d. cephalothin |
d. cephalothin
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277. A weakly reactive anti-D is detected in a postpartum serum specimen from an Rh-negative woman. During her prenatal period, all ABS tests were negative. These findings indicate:
a. that she is a candidate for RhIg b. that she is NOT a candidate for RhIg c. a need for further investigation to determine candidacy for RhIg d. the presence of Rh-positive cells in her circulation |
c. a need for further investigation to determine candidacy for Rh immune globulin
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278. In the process of ID an antibody, the tech observed 2+ reactions with three of the ten cells in a panel after the immediate spin phase. These reactions disappeared following incubation at 37C and after the anti-human globulin test phase. The antibody most likely is:
a. anti-P1 b. anti-Lea c. anti-C d. ant-Fya |
b. anti-Lea
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279. The phenomenon of an Rh-positive person whose serum contains anti-D is best explained by antigen:
a. deletion b. mosaicism c. suppression d. inhibition |
b. mosaicism
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280. Mixed field agglutination is a characteristic observation for which of the following antibodies?
a. anti-K b. anti-Sda c. andti-Jsa d. anti-e |
b. anti-Sda
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281. Hemolysis of the red cell occurs when which components of complement are attached?
a. C1 b. C3 c. C4-C2 d. C8-C9 |
d. C8-C9
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282. The observed pheotypic frequencies at the Jk locus in a particular population are:
Phenotype # of persons Jk(a+b-) 122 Jk(a+b+) 194 Jk(a-b+) 84 What is the gene frequency of the Jka in this population? a. 0.31 b. 0.45 c. 0.55 d. 0.60 |
c. 0.55
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283. How many Caucasians in a population of 100,000 will have the following combination of phenotypes?
System Phenotype Frequency ABO O 45 Gm Fb 48 PGM1 2-1 37 EsD 2-1 18 a. 1 b. 14 c. 144 d. 1438 |
d. 1438
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284. In a random population, 16% of the people are Rh-negative (rr). What % of the Rh-positive population would be heterozygous for the Dantigen?
a. 36 b. 48 c. 57 d. 66 |
b. 48
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285. A patient presented with:
Decreased levels of Factor VIII antigen Decreased levels of Factor VIII clotting activity Prolonged template bleeding time Impaired aggregation of Platelets in response to ristocetin What is the treatment of choice for this disease? a. platelets b. lyophilized factor VIII concentrate c. Factor IX complex d. Cryoprecipitated AHF |
d. Cryoprecipitated AHF
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286. Which of the following is the 1st step in hemoglobin clearance from the plasma following an intravascular hemolytic transfusion reaction?
a. reduction in plasma haptoglobin concentration b. increase in plasma hemoglobulin c. urinary excretion of hemosiderin d. urinary excretion of hemoglobin |
a. reduction in plasma haptoglobin concentration
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287. A patient diagnosed as having mild hemophilia A (8% factor VIII:C) was tranfused with factor VIII concentration in preparation for abdominal surgery. it was calculated that he would require 1200 units of factor VIII to raise his plasma concentration to 50%. Following infusion his factor VIII concentration rose to 65% and remained at 50% for approximately 30 hours without further infusion. What would be the most likely explanation for this observation?
a. patient really had von Willebrand's disease b. Factor VIII concentrates had twice the specified Factor VIII concentration c. patient had a inhibitor to the Factor VIII complex d. patient had idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura |
a. patient really had von Willebrand's disease
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288. Which of the following would be the best source of platelets for transfusion in the case of alloimmune neonatal thrombocytopenia?
a. father b. mother c. pooled platelet-rich plasma d. polycythemic donor |
b. mother
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289. Which of the following patient groups is at risk for developing graft-vs-host disease?
a. full-term infants b. patients with history of febrile transfusion reactions c. patients with a positive DAT d. recipients of blood donated by immediate family members |
d. recipients of blood donated by immediate family members
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290. Inhibition testing can be used to confirm antibody specificity for which of the following antibodies?
a. anti-Lua b. anti-M c. anti-Lea d. anti-Fya |
c. anti-Lea
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291. Anti-N is ID in a patient's serum. If random crossmatches are performed on 10 donor units, how many would be expected to be compatible?
a. 0 b. 3 c. 7 d. 10 |
b. 3
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292. Resistance to malaria is best associated with which of the following blood groups?
a. Rh b. I/i c. P d. Duffy |
d. Duffy
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293. Paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria (PCH)is best associated with which of the following blood groups?
a. Kell b. Duffy c. P d. I/i |
c. P
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294. The linked HLA genes on each chromosome constitute a(n):
a. allele b. trait c. phenotype d. haplotype |
d. haplotype
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295. The mating of an Xg(a+) man and an Xg(a-) woman will produce ONLY:
a. Xg(a-) sons and Xg(a-) daughters b. Xg(a+) sons and Xg(a+) daughters c. Xg(a-) sons and Xg(a+) daughters d. Xg(a+) sons and Xg(a-) daughters |
c. Xg(a-) sons and Xg(a+) daughters
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296. When the red cells of an individual fail to react with anti-U, they usually fail to react with:
a. anti-M b. anti-Leb c. anti-S d. anti-Pa |
c. anti-S
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297. The HLA complex shows associations with which blood groups?
a. Mn b. Bg c. Duffy d. Rodgers |
b. Bg
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298. Which of the following is a characteristic of anti-i?
a. is often associated with warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia b. can often be found in the serum of patients with infectious mononucleosis c. can often be detected at lower temperatures in the serum of normal individuals d. is found only in the serum of group O individuals |
b. can often be found in the serum of patients with infectious mononucleosis
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299. In which of the following situations would the phthalate ester separation technique be most useful?
a. positive DAT due to methyldopa b. recently transfused patient with multiple alloantibodies c. incompatibility due to cold autoantibodies d. febrile transfusion reaction caused by leukocyte antibodies |
b. recently transfused patient with multiple alloantibodies
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300. DR antigens in the HLA system are:
a. significant in organ transplantation b. not detectable in the lymphocytotoxicity test c. expressed on platelets d. expressed on granulocytes |
a. significant in organ transplantation
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301. In a paternity testing, a "direct exclusion" is established when a genestic marker is:
a. absent in the child, but present in the mother and alleged father b. absent in the child, present in the mother, and absent in the alleged father c. present in the child, absent in the mother, and present in the alleged father d. present in the child, but absent in the mother and alleged father |
d. present in the child, but absent in the mother and alleged father
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302. Granulocytes for transfusion should:
a. be administered through a microaggregate filter b. be ABO and Rh compatible with the recipient's serum c. be infused within 72 hours of collection d. never be transfused to patients with a history of febrile transfusion reactions |
b. be ABO and Rh compatible with the recipient's serum
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303. A patient has life-threatening anemia due to warm anutoantibodies. The patient's serum was reactive 2+ in the antiglobulin phase of testing with all cells on a routine panel. A technique that would be beneficial in preparing the patient's serum for compatibility testing is:
a. autoadsorption using the patient's ZZAP-treated red cells b. autoadsorption using the patient's LISS-treated red cells c. adsorption using enzyme-treated red cells from a normal donor d. adsorption using methyldopa-treated red cells |
a. autoadsorption using the patient's ZZAP-treated red cells
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304. HLA typing is important in screening for:
a. ABO incompatibility b. a kidney donor c. Rh incompatibility d. a blood donor |
b. a kidney donor
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305. In a hematologically stable adult with a 1.8 m^2 body surface area, one unit of platelets should increase the platelet count by:
a. 500-1000/uL b. 1500-3000/uL c. 5000-10,000/uL d. 15,000-20,000/uL |
c. 5000-10,000/uL
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306. Congestive heart failure, severe headache, and/or peripheral edema ocurring soon after transfusion in indicative of which type of transfusion reaction?
a. hemolytic b. febrile c. anaphylactic d. circulatory overload |
d. circulatory overload
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307. A 33 year old woman is found to have a positive antibody screening test during a prenatal evaluation. Which of the following techniques would be most useful in determining if the antibody involved could cause hemolytic disease of the newborn?
a. treating the serum with dithiothreitol (DTT) b. one-stage papain procedure c. two-stage papain procedure d. adsorption-elution technique |
a. treating the serum with dithiothreitol (DTT)
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308. A specimen of cord blood is submitted to the transfusion service for routine testing. The following results are obtained:
Anti-A: 4+ Anti-B: 0 Anti-A,B: 4+ Anti-D: 3+ Rh Control: 0 DAT: 2+ It is known that the father is group B, with the genotype of cde/cde. Of the following 4 antibodies, which one is the most likely cause of the positive DAT? a. anti-A b. anti-D c. anti-c d. anti-C |
c. anti-c
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309. In chronic granulomatous disease (CGD), granulocyte function is impaired. An association exists between this clinical condition and a depression of which of the following antigens?
a. Rh b. P c. Kell d. Duffy |
c. Kell
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310. One week after birth, an infant with a positive DAT and a bilirubin level of 18.5 mg/dL is in need of an exchange transfusion. Since the mother could not be located at the time, the next course of action would be to:
a. crossmatch blood using the baby's serum b. crossmatch blood using an eluate from the baby's red cells c. locate the father as a potential donor d. use group O positive blood for the exchange |
b. crossmatch blood using an eluate from the baby's red cells
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311. A person's saliva incubated with the following antibodies and tested with the appropriate A2, O, and B indicator cells, gives the following test results:
Antibody Specif. / Test Results Anti-A / Reactive Anti-B / Inhibited Anti-H / Inhibited The person's red cell ABO phenotype is: a. A b. AB c. B d. O |
c. B
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312. A blood specimen was found to be A positive with a negative antibody screen. 6 units of group A positive RBCs were crossmatched and 1 unit was incompatible in the antiglobulin phase. The same result was obtained when the test was peated. Which should be done first?
a. repeat the ABO grouping on the incompatible unit using a more sensitive technique b. test a panel of red cells that possesses low-frequency antigens c. perform a DAT on the donor d. obtain a new specimen and repeat the crossmatch |
c. perform a DAT on the donor
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313. The red cells of a nonsecretor (se/se) will most likely type as:
a. Le(a-b-) b. Le(a+b+) c. Le(a+b-) d. Le(a-b+) |
c. Le(a+b-)
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314. The serum of a group O Cde/Cde donor contains anti-D. In order to prepare specific anti-S reagent from this donor's serum, which of the following cells would be suitable for the adsorption?
a. group O, cde/cde cells b. group O, Cde/cde cells c. group A2B, CDe/cde cells d. group A1B, cde/cde cells |
d. group A1B, cde/cde cells
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315. The patient has a positive antibody screen. Prior to transfusion granulocytes MUST be:
a. washed to remove the plasma b. retyped for Rh antigen only c. crossmatched with the recipient's serum d. filtered to remove RBCs and lymphocytes |
c. crossmatched with the recipient's serum
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316. Which of the following is the proper storage requirement for Granulocytes?
a.1C to 6C b. 10C to 18C c. room temperature with constant agitation d. room temperature without agitation |
d. room temperature without agitation
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317. Once collected, Granulocytes MUST be administered within:
a. 6 hours b. 24 hours c. 7 days d. 35 days |
b. 24 hours
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318. Therapeutic plasmapheresis is performed to:
a. harvest granulocytes b. harvest platelets c. treat patients with polycythemia d. treat patients with plasma abnormalities |
d. treat patients with plasma abnormalities
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319. A reason a patient's crossmatch may be incompatible while the antibody screen is negative is:
a. the patient has an antibody against a high frequency antigen b. the incompatible donor unit has a positive DAT c. cold agglutinins are interfering in the crossmatch d. the patient's serum contains warm autoantibody |
b. the incompatible donor unit has a positive DAT
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320. A unit of very rare red cells has been deglycerolized for 10 hours. The patient's condition has stabilized and transfusion of these cells is no longer necessary. Which of the following is the most appropriate course of action?
a. urge the attending physician to transfuse the patient due to the value of the rare cells b. discard the unit c. extend the expiration time and date an additional 24 hours d. document the value of the rare cells and refreeze before 20 hours have elapsed. |
d. document the value of the rare cells and refreeze before 20 hours have elapsed.
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321. A mother has the red cell phenotype DCe with anti-c (titer of 32 at AHG) in her serum. The father has the phenotype DCce, and the baby is Rh-negative and not affected with hemolytic disease of the newborn. What is the baby's most probable Rh genotype?
a. dCe b. dCce c. DCe d. DCce |
a. dCe
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322. To confirm the specificity of a serum antibody identified as anti-Pa, a neutralization study was performed and the following results were obtained:
Substance / P1+RBCs Serum+P1 substance / neg Serum+saline / neg What conclusion can be made from these results? a. anti-Pa is confirmed b. anti-P1 is ruled out c. A second antibody is suspected due to the results of the negative control d. Anti-Pa cannot be confirmed due to the results of the negative control. |
d. Anti-Pa cannot be confirmed due to the results of the negative control.
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323. To prepare anti-Kell as a reagent from a serum containing anti-I and anti-Kell, the serum should be absorbed with:
a. Kell-positive, I-positive at 22C b. Kell-positive, I-negative cells at 4C c. Kell-negative, I-positive cells at 4C d. Kell-negative, I-positive cells at 37C |
c. Kell-negative, I-positive cells at 4C
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324. In a case of cold autoimmune hemolytic anemia, the patient's serum would most likely react 4+ at immediate spin with:
a. group A cells, B cells, and O cells, but not his own cells b. cord cells but not his own or other adult cells c. all cells of a group O cell panel and his own cells d. only penicillin-treated panel cells, not his own cells |
c. all cells of a group O cell panel and his own cells
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325. Which DAT result on a recently transfused patient is most associated with an anemnestic antibody response?
Poly IgG C3 Control a. +mf +mf 0 0 b. 1+ 0 1+ 0 c. 2+ 2+ 0 0 d. 4+ 4+ 4+ 0 |
a. +mf +mf 0 0
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326. For a patient who has suffered an acute hemolytic transfusion reaction, the primary treatment goal should be to:
a. prevent alloimmunization b. diminish chills and fever c. prevent hemoglobinemia d. reverse hypotension and minimize renal damage |
d. reverse hypotension and minimize renal damage
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327. A family has been typed for HLA because one of the children needs a bone marrow transplant. Typing results are listed below:
Father: A1,3; B8,35 Mother: A2,23; B12,18 Child 1: A1,2; B8,12 Child 2: A1,23; B8,18 Child 3: A3,23; B18,? What expected antigen is missing in child 3? a. A1 b. A2 c. B12 d. B35 |
d. B35
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328. In a paternity case, the child has a genetic marker that is absent in the mother and cannot be demonstrated in the alleged father. What type of paternity exclusion is this known as?
a. indirect (second order) b. direct (first order) c. prior probability d. Hardy-Weinberg |
b. direct (first order)
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329. Please refer to the other paper.
The patient probably has: a. paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria (PCH) b. paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH) c. warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia d. hereditary erythroblastic multinuclearity with a positive acidified serum test (HEMPAS) |
a. paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria (PCH)
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330. What is the approximate probability of finding compatible blood among random Rh-positive units for a patient who has anti-c and anti-K? (consider that 20% of Rh-positive donors are C-negative and 90% are K-negative)
a. 1% b. 10% c. 18% d. 45% |
c. 18%
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331. A neonate is to be transfused for the 1st time with "O" RBCs. Which of the following is appropriate when compatibility testing is performed?
a. screen and crossmatch with mom's serum b. screen and crossmatch with baby's serum c. crossmatch is NOT necessary if initial screening of mom's or baby's serum was negative d. screening or crossmatch is NOT necessary; issue group and Rh comapibility blood |
c. crossmatch is NOT necessary if initial screening of mother's or baby's serum was negative
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332. A patient who has been typed as Rh-negative has a negative antibody screen. However, crossmatching reveals an antibody that reacts 4+ in the AHG phase with 1 of 10 Rh-negative donors. What is the most likely cause of this incompatibility?
a. the patient has an antibody to a low-frequency antigen b. the donor has been mistyped for ABO c. the donor is actually Rh-positive d. the donor RBCs are polyagglutinable |
a. the patient has an antibody to a low-frequency antigen
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333. Which of the following is the correct interpretation of this saliva neutralization testing?
Indicator Cells A B O Saliva plus anti-A + 0 0 Saliva plus anti-B 0 + 0 Salivia plus anti-H 0 0 0 a. group A secretor b. group B secretor c. group AB secretor d. group O secretor |
d. group O secretor
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334. Mixed leukocyte culture (MLC) is a biological assay for detecting which of the following?
a. HLA-A antigens b. HLA-B antigens c. HLA-D antigens d. immunoglobulins |
c. HLA-D antigens
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335. A poor increment in the platelet count 1 hour following platelet transfusion is most commonly caused by:
a. splenomegaly b. alloimmunization to HLA antigens c. disseminated intravascular coagulation d. defective platelets |
b. alloimmunization to HLA antigens
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336. Washed RBCs are indicated in which of the following situations?
a. an IgA-deficient patient with a history of transfusion-associated anaphylaxis b. a pregnant women with a history of hemolytic disease of the newborn c. a patient with a positive DAT and red cell autoantibody d. a newborn with a hematocrit of less than 30% |
a. an IgA-deficient patient with a history of transfusion-associated anaphylaxis
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337. Anti-A1 lectin (Dolichos biflorus) will react with which of the following red cells?
a. T-activated b. Tn-activated c. Oh d. Ax |
b. Tn-activated
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338. Examination of immune parameters during the course of HIV infection reveals:
a. a progressive decrease in T-helper cell numbers as clinical disease worsens b.qualitative defects in B-cell function c. a progressive increase in T-helper cell numbers as clinical disease worsens d. normal B-cell function |
a. a progressive decrease in T-helper cell numbers as clinical disease worsens
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339. Refer to the cell panel on the other paper.
Based on the results, which of the following antibodies is MOST likely present? a. anti-C b. anti-E c. anti-D d. anti-Kell |
a. anti-C
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340. One of the most effective methods for the elution of warm autoantibodies from RBCs utilizes:
a. 10% sucrose b. LISS c. an organic solvent d. distilled water |
c. an organic solvent
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341. A patient's RBCs gave the following reactions:
Anti-D: + Anti-C: + Anti-E: + Anti-c: + Anti-e: + Anti-f: 0 The most probable genotype of this patient is: a. R1R2 b. R2r^2 c. R2r d. R2R2 |
a. R1R2
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342. Which of the following wuold be most useful for removing an autoantibody for red cell phenotyping?
a. bromelin b. chloroquine c. LISS d. phthalate esters |
b. chloroquine
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343. An individual has been sensitized to the Cellano (k) antigen and has produced anti-k. What is her most probable Kell genotype?
a. KK b. Kk c. kk d. K0K0 |
a. KK
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344. Which of the following HTLA antibodies is neutralizable by pooled human plasma?
a. anti-Yta b. anti-Ch c. anti-Yk d. anti-Cs |
b. anti-Ch
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345. For serial plasmapheresis donors, the total serum protein must be at least:
a. 4.5 g/dL b. 5.0 g/dL c. 5.5 g/dL d. 6.0 g/dL |
d. 6.0 g/dL
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346. A 42 year old male of average body mass has a history of chronic anemia requiring transfusion support. Two units of RBCs are transfused. If the pretransfusion hemoglobin was 7.0 g/dL, the expected posttransfusion hemoglobulin concentration should be:
a. 8.0 g/dL b. 9.0 g/dL c. 10.0 g/dL d. 11.0 g/dL |
b. 9.0 g/dL
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347. A 56 year old femlae with cold hemagglutinin disease has a positive DAT. When the DAT is repeated using monospecific antiglobulin sera, which of the following is most likely to be detected?
a. IgM b. IgG c. C3d d. C4d |
c. C3d
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348. Which of the following best reflects the discrepancy seen when a person's red cells demonstrate the acquired-B phenotype?
Forward Reverse a. B O b. AB A c. O B d. B AB |
b. AB A
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349. Refer to the other paper.
What is the MOST LIKELY cause of this discrepancy? a. A2 with anti-A b. cold alloantibody c. cold autoantibody d. acquired-A phenomenon |
c. cold autoantibody
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350. A blood donor has the genotype hh, AB. What is his red blood cell phenotype?
a. A b. B c. O d. AB |
c. O
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351. A patient had massive trauma involving replacement of one blood vlume with RBCs and crystallois. She is currently experiencing oozing from mucous membranes and surgical incisions. lab values are as follows:
PT: Normal APTT: Normal Bleeding time: Prolonged Platelet count: 20 X 10^3/uL Hemoglobin: 11.4g/dL What is the blood component of choice for this patient? a. platelets b. cryoprecipitated AHF c. Fresh frozen plasma d. prothrombin comlpex |
a. platelets
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352. A 26 year old female is admitted with anemia of undetermined origin. Blood samples are received with a crossmatch request for 6 units of RBCs. The patient is group A negative and has no history of transfusion or pregnancy. The following results were obtained:
Reagent or donor: IS / 37 / IAT SC1: 0 / 0 / 3+ SC2: 0 / 0 / 3+ Autocontrol: 0 / 0 / 0 All 6 donors: 0 / 0 / 0 The best way to find compatible blood is to: a. do an antibody ID panel b. use the saline replacement technique c. use the prewarm technique d. perform a warm autoadsorption |
d. perform a warm autoadsorption
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353. A paternity investigation produces the following red cell phenotyping results:
Person: ABO / Rh Alleged father: B / DcE Mother: O / DCe Child: O / DCce What conclusions can be made: a. there is no exclusion of paternity b. paternity may be excluded on the basis of ABO typing c. paternity may be excluded on the basis of Rh typing d. paternity may be excluded on the basis of both ABO and Rh typing |
c. paternity may be excluded on the basis of Rh typing
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354. A patient was given 2 units of blood in an emergency. The blood was type specific, but not crossmatched. Further study revealed an anti-K in the pretransfusion sample. One unit was K-positive. Serum obtained immediately posttransfusion failed to react with K-positive cells. This is due to the antibody being:
a. cleared by the spleen b. inactivated in the liver c. destroyed by the action of complement d. adsorbed by the donor cells |
d. adsorbed by the donor cells
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355. The objective, "The student will be able to prepare correctly a creatinine working standard from a stock solution," is an example of which behavioral domain?
a. psychomotor b. affective c. intellectual d. cognitive |
a. psychomotor
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356. The first step in the development of long-term objectives for a continuing education progam must include:
a. total cost of the program b. total number of hours in the program c. a list of topics to be covered d. a statement of competencies to be achieved |
d. a statement of competencies to be achieved
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357. Which of the following phenotyped individuals would be the most appropriate saliva donor to neuralize an auto anti-H in the serum of a group A, Le(a-b+) patient?
a. group A, Le(a-b-) b. group A, Le(a+b-) c. group O, Le(a+b-) d. group O, Le(a-b+) |
d. group O, Le(a-b+)
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358. A child with an E coli infection developes a positive antibody screen. Reactivity is seen at immediate spin and 37C with 1 of 10 random donor units and is unchanged by enzymes. The antibody is:
a. anti-K b. anti-M c. anti-P1 d. anti-Fya |
a. anti-K
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359. Refer to the other paper. What interpretation can be made from these results?
a. They confirm the patient has complement-sensitive PNH red cells b. they confirm the presence of a cold autoantibody c. they are inconclusive because of the normal serum may lack complement d. they are inconlusive because of a suspect acid solution |
a. They confirm the patient has complement-sensitive PNH red cells
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360. What is the most appropriate interpretation for the lab data given below?
Test: Mother / Newborn D: neg / neg D Control: neg / neg D^u: neg / neg D^u Control: neg / neg Rossette FS:1 per 5 fields/ NT a. mother is not a candidate for RhIg b. mother needs one vial of RhIg c. mother needs two virals of RhIg d. the fetal-maternal hemorrhage needs to be quantitated |
a. mother is not a candidate for RhIg
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361. Refer to the other paper.
a. 15 seconds b. 20 seconds c. 25 seconds d. 30 seconds |
b. 20 seconds
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362. Which of the following procedures would be most helpful to confirm a weak ABO subgroup?
a. adsorption-elution b. neutralization-inhibition c. elution-diffusion d. immunodiffusion-precipitation |
a. adsorption-elution
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363. Given the following data on a mother and her newborn, who would be the best source of Platelets if the newborn requires an urgent transfusion?
History: Mother / Newborn ABO/Rh: A neg / O pos Known Antibody: Anti-P1 / NT DAT: Neg / Neg Platelet Count: 412 / 6.0 ( _ X 10^3/uL) a. father b. mother c. random donor d. autologous donor |
b. mother
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364. Refer to the panel on the other paper.
A pregnant woman has a positive antibody screen and the panel results are given. What is the association of the antibodie(s) with hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN)? a. causes severe HDN b. causes mild HDN c. is not associated with HDN d. HDN cannot be determined |
c. is not associated with HDN
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365. Anti-E is ID in a panel at the AHG phase. When check cells are added to the negative tubes, no agglutination is seen. The most appropriate course of action would be to:
a. QC the AHG reagent and check cells, then repeat the panel b. open a new vial of check cells for subsequent testing that day c. open a new vial of AHG for subsequent testing that day d. record the check cell reactions and report the antibody panel results |
a. quality control the AHG reagent and check cells, then repeat the panel
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366. A multiply transfused patient developed a headache, nausea, fever, and chills during his last transfusion. What component is most appropriate to prevent this reaction in the future?
a. RBCs b. IRRD the RBCs c. Leuko-cyte-reduced RBCs d. CMV-seronegative RBCs |
c. Leuko-cyte-reduced RBCs
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367. Given the following objective: " After listening to the audiotape, the student will be able to describe the interaction between T and B lymphocytes in the immune system to the satisfaction of the instructor."
Which of the following test questions reflects the intent of this objective? a. How are T and B lymphocytes separated in vitro? b. How many T lymphocytes does a normal person have in peripheral blood? c. What are the morphological characteristics of B lymphocytes d. How are antibodies produced after a viral infection? |
d. How are antibodies produced after a viral infection?
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368. A patient received 4 units of blood 2 years ago and now has multiple antibodies. He has not been transfused since that time. It would be most helpful to the patient to:
a. phenotype his cells to determine which additional alloantibdoies may be produced b. recommend the use of directed donors, who are more likely to be compatible c. use proteolytic enzyme to destroy the 'In vitro" activity of some of the antibodies d. freeze the patient's serum to use for antigen typing of compatible units |
a. phenotype his cells to determine which additional alloantibdoies may be produced
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369. A trauma patient who has just received 10 units of blood may develop:
a. anemia b. polycythemia c. leukocytosis d. thrombocytopenia |
d. thrombocytopenia
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370. The process of separation of antibody from its antigen is known as:
a. diffusion b. absorption c. lyophilization d. elution |
d. elution
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371. What is the most appropriate diluent for preparing a solution of 8% bovine albumin for a red cell control?
a. deionized water b. distilled water c. normal saline d. Alsever's solution |
c. normal saline
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372. A patient's serum reacts with 2 of the 3 antibody screening cells at the AHG phase. 8 of the 10 units crossmatched were incompatible at the AHG phase. All reactions are markedly enhanced by enzymes. These results are most consistent with:
a. anti-M b. anti-E c. anti-c d. anti-Fya |
c. anti-c
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373. 10 units of "A" platelets were transfused to a "AB" patient. The pretransfusion platelet count was 12x10^3/uL and the posttransfusion count was 18x10^3/uL. From this information, the lab would most likely conclude that the patient:
a. needs group AB platetls to be effective b. clinical data do not suggest a need for platelets c. has developed antibodies to the transfused platelets d. should receive irradiated platlets |
c. has developed antibodies to the transfused platelets
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374. On Monday, a patient's Kell antigen typing result was positive. 2 days later, the patient's typing was negative. The patient was transfused with 2 units of FFp on tuesday. The tech might conclude that the:
a. transfusion of FFP affected the Kell antigen b. wrong patient was drawn c. results are normal d. anti-Kell reagent was omitted on Monday |
b. wrong patient was drawn
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375. What is the most appropriate control for a positive DAT?
a. check cells and antihuman globulin b. patient cells and antihuman globulin c. check cells and saline d. patient cells and saline |
d. patient cells and saline
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376. A father dnating platelets for his son in sonnected to a continuous flow machine, which uses the principle of centrifugation to seperate platelets from whole blood. As the platelets are harvested, all other remaining elements are returned to the donor. This method of platelet collection is known as:
a. apheresis b. autologous c. homologous d. fractionation |
a. apheresis
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377. A high protein major crossmatch at the AHG phase was negative. When one drop of check cells was added, no agglutination was seen. The most likely explaination is that the:
a. albumin in the high protein tube neutralized the AHG reagents b. centrifuge speed was set too high c. residue patient serum inactivated the AHG reagents d. lab did not add enough check cells |
c. residue patient serum inactivated the AHG reagents
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378. How would the hematocrit of a patient with chronic anemia be affected by the transfusion of a unit of whole blood containing 475 mL of blood vs 2 units of RBCs each with a total volume of 250 mL?
a. patient's hematocrit would be equally affected by the whole blood or the RBCS b. RBCs would provide twice the increment in hematocrit as whole blood c. whole blood would provide twice the increment in hematocrit as the RBCs d. Whole blood would provide a change in hematocrit slightly less than the RBCs |
b. RBCs would provide twice the increment in hematocrit as whole blood
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379. Refer to the other paper.
In order to reach a conclusion, the tech should first: a. retype the pre- and post transfusion patient and donor 1 samples b. request an EDTA tube be drawn from the patient and epeat the DAT c. repeat the pretransfusion antibody screen on the patient's sample d. ID the antibody in the serum and eluate the posttransfusion sample |
d. ID the antibody in the serum and eluate the posttransfusion sample
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204.Refer to the other paper.
What is the most likely cause of the incompatibility of donor 1? a. Single alloantibody b. multiple alloantibodies c. Rh incompatibilities d. Donor 1 has a positive DAT |
a. Single alloantibody
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206. A 14 year old male trauma victim is in need to 3 units of RBCs. Refer to the other paper for the results were obtained during pretransfusion testing.
What is the FIRST step in resolving this problem? a. perform an enzyme panel on the patient's serum b. choose more donors to crossmatch c. repeat the crossmatch d. perform a DAT on donor 2 |
d. perform a DAT on donor 2
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
202. Why are donors deferred for 6 months following receipt of blood products?
a. to permit adequate screening for transfusion-acquired viral infections b. donation may cause recurrence of the condition that required transfusion c. to allow clearance of all transfused cells in the donor d. to allow donor recovery from the condition that required transfusion |
a. to permit adequate screening for transfusion-acquired viral infections
|
|
|
204. A 42 year old female is undergoing surgery tomorrow and her physician requests that 4 units of RBCs be crossmatched. Refer to the other paper for the results:
What is the most likely cause of the incompatibility of donor 1? a. Single alloantibody b. multiple alloantibodies c. Rh incompatibilities d. Donor 1 has a positive DAT |
a. Single alloantibody
|
|
|
205. Examine the following results of ABO typing tests and state the most probable cause of the discrepancy.
Pt's cells Pt's serum Anti-A= 0 A1= 2+ Anti-B= 0 B cells= 4+ Anti-A,B= +/- a. acquired B antigen b. the patient is a newborn c. chimerism d. weak subgroup of A with anti-A1 |
d. weak subgroup of A with anti-A1
|
|
|
206. A 14 year old male trauma victim is in need to 3 units of RBCs. Refer to the other paper for the results were obtained during pretransfusion testing.
What is the FIRST step in resolving this problem? a. perform an enzyme panel on the patient's serum b. choose more donors to crossmatch c. repeat the crossmatch d. perform a DAT on donor 2 |
d. perform a DAT on donor 2
|
|
|
207. The western Blot is a confirmatory test for the presence of:
a. CMV antibody b. anti-HIV-1 c. HBsAg d. serum protein abnormalities |
b. anti-HIV-1
|
|
|
208. A commonly used screening method for anti-HIV-1 detection is:
a. latex agglutination b. radioimmunoassay (RIA) c. thin-layer chromatography (TLC) d. enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) |
d. enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)
|
|
|
209. Which of the following red cell typings would most commonly be found in the black donor population?
a. Lu(a-b-) b. Jk(a-b-) c. Fy(a-b-) d. K-k- |
c. Fy(a-b-)
|
|
|
210. Refer to the other paper.
The most probablt genotype of this indivual is: a. CDe/cDE b. cDE/cde c. cDe/cde d. CDe/cde |
d. CDe/cde
|
|
|
201. Transfusion of plateletpheresis products from HLA-compatible donors is the preferred treatment for:
a. recently diagnosed cases of TTP with severe thrombocytopenia b. acute leukemia in relapse with neutropenia, thrombocytopenia and sepsis c. immune thrombocytopenia purpura d. severly thrombocytopenic patients, known to be refractory to random donor platelets |
d. severly thrombocytopenic patients, known to be refractory to random donor platelets
|
|
|
201. Transfusion of plateletpheresis products from HLA-compatible donors is the preferred treatment for:
a. recently diagnosed cases of TTP with severe thrombocytopenia b. acute leukemia in relapse with neutropenia, thrombocytopenia and sepsis c. immune thrombocytopenia purpura d. severly thrombocytopenic patients, known to be refractory to random donor platelets |
d. severly thrombocytopenic patients, known to be refractory to random donor platelets
|
|
|
202. Why are donors deferred for 6 months following receipt of blood products?
a. to permit adequate screening for transfusion-acquired viral infections b. donation may cause recurrence of the condition that required transfusion c. to allow clearance of all transfused cells in the donor d. to allow donor recovery from the condition that required transfusion |
a. to permit adequate screening for transfusion-acquired viral infections
|
|
|
202. Why are donors deferred for 6 months following receipt of blood products?
a. to permit adequate screening for transfusion-acquired viral infections b. donation may cause recurrence of the condition that required transfusion c. to allow clearance of all transfused cells in the donor d. to allow donor recovery from the condition that required transfusion |
a. to permit adequate screening for transfusion-acquired viral infections
|
|
|
203. A 37 year old female with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is admitted with anemia. Blood samples are received with a crossmatch request for 4 units of RBCs. The patient is group B negative. The following were obtained in pretransfusion testing:
IAT SC1 3+ SC2 3+ SC3 3+ The msot probable cause of these results is: a. rouleaux b. a warm autoantibody c. a cold autoantibody d. multiple alloantibodies |
b. a warm autoantibody
|
|
|
203. A 37 year old female with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is admitted with anemia. Blood samples are received with a crossmatch request for 4 units of RBCs. The patient is group B negative. The following were obtained in pretransfusion testing:
IAT SC1 3+ SC2 3+ SC3 3+ The msot probable cause of these results is: a. rouleaux b. a warm autoantibody c. a cold autoantibody d. multiple alloantibodies |
b. a warm autoantibody
|
|
|
201. Transfusion of plateletpheresis products from HLA-compatible donors is the preferred treatment for:
a. recently diagnosed cases of TTP with severe thrombocytopenia b. acute leukemia in relapse with neutropenia, thrombocytopenia and sepsis c. immune thrombocytopenia purpura d. severly thrombocytopenic patients, known to be refractory to random donor platelets |
d. severly thrombocytopenic patients, known to be refractory to random donor platelets
|
|
|
204. A 42 year old female is undergoing surgery tomorrow and her physician requests that 4 units of RBCs be crossmatched. Refer to the other paper for the results:
What is the most likely cause of the incompatibility of donor 1? a. Single alloantibody b. multiple alloantibodies c. Rh incompatibilities d. Donor 1 has a positive DAT |
a. Single alloantibody
|
|
|
202. Why are donors deferred for 6 months following receipt of blood products?
a. to permit adequate screening for transfusion-acquired viral infections b. donation may cause recurrence of the condition that required transfusion c. to allow clearance of all transfused cells in the donor d. to allow donor recovery from the condition that required transfusion |
a. to permit adequate screening for transfusion-acquired viral infections
|
|
|
205. Examine the following results of ABO typing tests and state the most probable cause of the discrepancy.
Pt's cells Pt's serum Anti-A= 0 A1= 2+ Anti-B= 0 B cells= 4+ Anti-A,B= +/- a. acquired B antigen b. the patient is a newborn c. chimerism d. weak subgroup of A with anti-A1 |
d. weak subgroup of A with anti-A1
|
|
|
205. Examine the following results of ABO typing tests and state the most probable cause of the discrepancy.
Pt's cells Pt's serum Anti-A= 0 A1= 2+ Anti-B= 0 B cells= 4+ Anti-A,B= +/- a. acquired B antigen b. the patient is a newborn c. chimerism d. weak subgroup of A with anti-A1 |
d. weak subgroup of A with anti-A1
|
|
|
203. A 37 year old female with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is admitted with anemia. Blood samples are received with a crossmatch request for 4 units of RBCs. The patient is group B negative. The following were obtained in pretransfusion testing:
IAT SC1 3+ SC2 3+ SC3 3+ The msot probable cause of these results is: a. rouleaux b. a warm autoantibody c. a cold autoantibody d. multiple alloantibodies |
b. a warm autoantibody
|
|
|
204. A 42 year old female is undergoing surgery tomorrow and her physician requests that 4 units of RBCs be crossmatched. Refer to the other paper for the results:
What is the most likely cause of the incompatibility of donor 1? a. Single alloantibody b. multiple alloantibodies c. Rh incompatibilities d. Donor 1 has a positive DAT |
a. Single alloantibody
|
|
|
207. The western Blot is a confirmatory test for the presence of:
a. CMV antibody b. anti-HIV-1 c. HBsAg d. serum protein abnormalities |
b. anti-HIV-1
|
|
|
206. A 14 year old male trauma victim is in need to 3 units of RBCs. Refer to the other paper for the results were obtained during pretransfusion testing.
What is the FIRST step in resolving this problem? a. perform an enzyme panel on the patient's serum b. choose more donors to crossmatch c. repeat the crossmatch d. perform a DAT on donor 2 |
d. perform a DAT on donor 2
|
|
|
205. Examine the following results of ABO typing tests and state the most probable cause of the discrepancy.
Pt's cells Pt's serum Anti-A= 0 A1= 2+ Anti-B= 0 B cells= 4+ Anti-A,B= +/- a. acquired B antigen b. the patient is a newborn c. chimerism d. weak subgroup of A with anti-A1 |
d. weak subgroup of A with anti-A1
|
|
|
208. A commonly used screening method for anti-HIV-1 detection is:
a. latex agglutination b. radioimmunoassay (RIA) c. thin-layer chromatography (TLC) d. enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) |
d. enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)
|
|
|
207. The western Blot is a confirmatory test for the presence of:
a. CMV antibody b. anti-HIV-1 c. HBsAg d. serum protein abnormalities |
b. anti-HIV-1
|
|
|
206. A 14 year old male trauma victim is in need to 3 units of RBCs. Refer to the other paper for the results were obtained during pretransfusion testing.
What is the FIRST step in resolving this problem? a. perform an enzyme panel on the patient's serum b. choose more donors to crossmatch c. repeat the crossmatch d. perform a DAT on donor 2 |
d. perform a DAT on donor 2
|
|
|
209. Which of the following red cell typings would most commonly be found in the black donor population?
a. Lu(a-b-) b. Jk(a-b-) c. Fy(a-b-) d. K-k- |
c. Fy(a-b-)
|
|
|
208. A commonly used screening method for anti-HIV-1 detection is:
a. latex agglutination b. radioimmunoassay (RIA) c. thin-layer chromatography (TLC) d. enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) |
d. enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)
|
|
|
207. The western Blot is a confirmatory test for the presence of:
a. CMV antibody b. anti-HIV-1 c. HBsAg d. serum protein abnormalities |
b. anti-HIV-1
|
|
|
210. An individual's RBC give the following reactions with Rh antisera:
Antisera Reaction Anti-D 4+ Anti-C 3+ Anti-E 0 Anti-c 3+ Anti-e 3+ Rh-control 0 The most probablt genotype of this indivual is: a. CDe/cDE b. cDE/cde c. cDe/cde d. CDe/cde |
d. CDe/cde
|
|
|
209. Which of the following red cell typings would most commonly be found in the black donor population?
a. Lu(a-b-) b. Jk(a-b-) c. Fy(a-b-) d. K-k- |
c. Fy(a-b-)
|
|
|
201. Transfusion of plateletpheresis products from HLA-compatible donors is the preferred treatment for:
a. recently diagnosed cases of TTP with severe thrombocytopenia b. acute leukemia in relapse with neutropenia, thrombocytopenia and sepsis c. immune thrombocytopenia purpura d. severly thrombocytopenic patients, known to be refractory to random donor platelets |
d. severly thrombocytopenic patients, known to be refractory to random donor platelets
|
|
|
208. A commonly used screening method for anti-HIV-1 detection is:
a. latex agglutination b. radioimmunoassay (RIA) c. thin-layer chromatography (TLC) d. enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) |
d. enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)
|
|
|
210. An individual's RBC give the following reactions with Rh antisera:
Antisera Reaction Anti-D 4+ Anti-C 3+ Anti-E 0 Anti-c 3+ Anti-e 3+ Rh-control 0 The most probablt genotype of this indivual is: a. CDe/cDE b. cDE/cde c. cDe/cde d. CDe/cde |
d. CDe/cde
|
|
|
202. Why are donors deferred for 6 months following receipt of blood products?
a. to permit adequate screening for transfusion-acquired viral infections b. donation may cause recurrence of the condition that required transfusion c. to allow clearance of all transfused cells in the donor d. to allow donor recovery from the condition that required transfusion |
a. to permit adequate screening for transfusion-acquired viral infections
|
|
|
209. Which of the following red cell typings would most commonly be found in the black donor population?
a. Lu(a-b-) b. Jk(a-b-) c. Fy(a-b-) d. K-k- |
c. Fy(a-b-)
|
|
|
203. A 37 year old female with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is admitted with anemia. Blood samples are received with a crossmatch request for 4 units of RBCs. The patient is group B negative. The following were obtained in pretransfusion testing:
IAT SC1 3+ SC2 3+ SC3 3+ The msot probable cause of these results is: a. rouleaux b. a warm autoantibody c. a cold autoantibody d. multiple alloantibodies |
b. a warm autoantibody
|
|
|
210. An individual's RBC give the following reactions with Rh antisera:
Antisera Reaction Anti-D 4+ Anti-C 3+ Anti-E 0 Anti-c 3+ Anti-e 3+ Rh-control 0 The most probablt genotype of this indivual is: a. CDe/cDE b. cDE/cde c. cDe/cde d. CDe/cde |
d. CDe/cde
|
|
|
204. A 42 year old female is undergoing surgery tomorrow and her physician requests that 4 units of RBCs be crossmatched. Refer to the other paper for the results:
What is the most likely cause of the incompatibility of donor 1? a. Single alloantibody b. multiple alloantibodies c. Rh incompatibilities d. Donor 1 has a positive DAT |
a. Single alloantibody
|
|
|
205. Examine the following results of ABO typing tests and state the most probable cause of the discrepancy.
Pt's cells Pt's serum Anti-A= 0 A1= 2+ Anti-B= 0 B cells= 4+ Anti-A,B= +/- a. acquired B antigen b. the patient is a newborn c. chimerism d. weak subgroup of A with anti-A1 |
d. weak subgroup of A with anti-A1
|
|
|
206. Refer to the other paper.
What is the FIRST step in resolving this problem? a. perform an enzyme panel on the patient's serum b. choose more donors to crossmatch c. repeat the crossmatch d. perform a DAT on donor 2 |
d. perform a DAT on donor 2
|
|
|
207. The western Blot is a confirmatory test for the presence of:
a. CMV antibody b. anti-HIV-1 c. HBsAg d. serum protein abnormalities |
b. anti-HIV-1
|
|
|
208. A commonly used screening method for anti-HIV-1 detection is:
a. latex agglutination b. radioimmunoassay (RIA) c. thin-layer chromatography (TLC) d. enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) |
d. enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)
|
|
|
209. Which of the following red cell typings would most commonly be found in the black donor population?
a. Lu(a-b-) b. Jk(a-b-) c. Fy(a-b-) d. K-k- |
c. Fy(a-b-)
|
|
|
210. Refer to the other paper.
The most probablt genotype of this indivual is: a. CDe/cDE b. cDE/cde c. cDe/cde d. CDe/cde |
d. CDe/cde
|
