Bbc: Session 3 Prep

Front 1

What are the two major etiologic agents for lobar pneumonia?

Back 1

Klebsiella pneumoniae and Strep. pneumoniae

Front 2

What are the four types of lung carcinoma?

Back 2

1. Adenocarcinoma
2. Sqaumous cell carcinoma
3. Small cell carcinoma
4. Large cell carcinoma

Front 3

Hematuris and RBC casts are usually indicative of what type of general classification of glomerulonephritis?

Back 3

nephritic

Front 4

What is the most common nephrotic syndrome in children?

Back 4

minimal change disease

Front 5

What are the three components of the staghorn renal calculus? What causes it?

Back 5

1. Magnesium
2. Ammonia
3. Phosphate

And infectious agents cause it.

Front 6

What is the causative agent of syphilis?

Back 6

Treponema pallidum

Front 7

What is the DOC for syphilis ?

Back 7

Pen G

Front 8

Which type of testicular germ cell tumor is characterized by very high production of AFP? And which type of ovarian germ cell tumor shares the same characteristics?

Back 8

Yolk sac
Endodermal sinus

Front 9

What type of ovarian tumor is characterized by by cysts lined with ciliated epithelium?

Back 9

Serous

Front 10

What are the 5 major risk factors for endometrial carcinoma?

Back 10

1. >40 yo
2. Early menarche
3. Late menopause
4. Nulliparity
5. Obesity

Front 11

What are the 5 major risk factors for breast cancer?

Back 11

1. >40 yo
2. Early menarche
3. Late menopause
4. Nulliparity
5. Obesity

Front 12

Koplik's spots in the mouth indicate what disease?

Back 12

measles

Front 13

What do cloxacillin, oxacillin, and methicullin have in common with respect to their particularly good ability to destroy certain pathogens?

Back 13

beta-lactamase resistance

Front 14

What generation of cephalosporins are cefamandole and cefoxitin?

Back 14

2nd generation

Front 15

What type of gastritis does Helicobacter pylori cause and why must it be treated as soon as possible?

Back 15

B and b/c of a risk of cancer

Front 16

What is the risk of developing colon cancer if one has familial polyposis? If one has Gardner's disease?

Back 16

almost 100% for both

Front 17

If a pt presents with lots of abdominal pain, very little or no blood in the stool, and skip lesions of the ileum on radiographic inquiry, from what disease would be most likely be suffering?

Back 17

Crohn's disease

Front 18

What are the 3 components of Charcot's triad? What does Charcot's triad indicate in terms of abdominal disease?

Back 18

1. fever
2. RUQ pain
3. jaundice

Colonitis

Front 19

What is the classification of jaundice if there is high serum unconjugated bilirubin?

Back 19

prehepatic jaundice

Front 20

What is the classification of jaundice if there is high serum conjugated bilirubin?

Back 20

posthepatic jaundice

Front 21

What is the classification of jaundice if there is high unconjugated and conjugated?

Back 21

hepatic jaundice

Front 22

What is the transmission route and incubation time for hepatitis A?

Back 22

fecal/ oral
2-6 wks

Front 23

What is the transmission route and incubation time for hepatitis B?

Back 23

parenteral
2-6 mos

Front 24

If a pt's blood tests indicate that she is pos for anti-HBsAg, does that mean that she is currently suffering from an active hep B infection?

Back 24

No, it means she has Ab to Hepatitis B

Front 25

If a pt presents with cirrhosis, new onset diabetes mellitus, and a bronze skin pigmentation, what disorder would top your list of differential diagnoses?

Back 25

Hemachromatis

Front 26

Joint involved in osteoarthritis?

Back 26

DIP

Front 27

Joint involved in rheumatoid arthritis?

Back 27

MCP and PIP

Front 28

What is the rule of 3's in regards to the thoracic vertebraes?

Back 28

T1-3,12 spinous processes are the same level as the transverse
T4-6,11 spinous processes are a half level down between its vertebra and the one below
T7-9,10 spinous processes are at the level of the tranverse process below it

Front 29

Which ribs are false?

Back 29

8-12

Front 30

What is the primary motion of the thoracic spine?

Back 30

Rotation

Front 31

What ribs move with the pump-handle motion?

Back 31

1-5

Front 32

What ribs move with the bucket-handle motion?

Back 32

6-10

Front 33

What ribs move with the caliper motion?

Back 33

11 and 12

Front 34

Name the attachments of the diaphragm. 3

Back 34

-Body and disca of L1 through L3
- Xyphoid process
- Ribs 6- 12 bilaterally

Front 35

What is the key rib in an inhalation dysfunction?

Back 35

inferior rib

Front 36

Prostaglandins and bradykinins share what common feature in terms of their effect on how we feel when we get sick or injured?

Back 36

Pain and vasodilation

Front 37

What cell type produces IL-1?

Back 37

macrophages

Front 38

What cell type does IL-1 stimulate?

Back 38

CD4 T cells

Front 39

What inheritance pattern exists for a particular disease if there is no male to male transmission and the parents of the sick child are not sick?

Back 39

X-linked recessive

Front 40

What HLA type do most with multiple sclerosis and narcolepsy share?

Back 40

DR-2

Front 41

What are the VDRL and FTA-ABS test results for an SLE pt? Why?

Back 41

Pos = cardiolipin
Neg = Treponema pallidum

VDRL is present in both SLE and Treponema pallidum.

Front 42

What clotting pathway does PTT test?

Back 42

Intrinsic and common

Front 43

What clotting pathway does PT test?

Back 43

extrinsic and common

Front 44

What clotting pathway does the bleeding time test for?

Back 44

platelet function

Front 45

What does the Coombs test evaluate?

Back 45

Anti-RBC Ab

Front 46

What specific type of macromolecule is reliant on folic acid and vtamin B12 for its synthesis? How is this related to anemia?

Back 46

DNA
Megaloblastic anemia

Front 47

Auer rods in myeloblasts is evidence of what myeloproliferative disorder?

Back 47

AML

Front 48

Are aminoglycosides most effective against gram-positives, gram-negatives, or both?

Back 48

gram negative

Front 49

What type of arterial inflammation is assoicated with hypersensitivity to tobacco?

Back 49

Thromboangitis obliterance -> Burger's disease

Front 50

What disease do blue bloaters have? Is it an obstructive or restrictive lung disease?

Back 50

Chronic bronchitis, obstructive

Front 51

What drugs are P450 inhibitors? 6

Back 51

1. Sulfonamides
2. Phenylbutazone
3. Chloramphenicol
4. Isoniazid
5. Dicumarol
6. Cimetidine

Front 52

What is the antidote for methanol poisoning?

Back 52

Ethanol

Front 53

What is the DOC for Strep pyogenes?

Back 53

Pen G

Front 54

DOC for Borrelia burgdorferi?

Back 54

Doxycycline

Front 55

In what plane does flexion occur? About what axis does it occur?

Back 55

sagittal and transverse

Front 56

What cell type is classic in Hodgkin's disease?

Back 56

Reed-Sternburg cells

Front 57

What type of arteriosclerosis is due to high serum calcium?

Back 57

Monkabreds

Front 58

What type of arteriosclerosis is due to malignant hypertension?

Back 58

hyperplastic arteriolosclerosis

Front 59

What type of arteriosclerosis is due to old age?

Back 59

hyaline arteriolosclerosis

Front 60

What type of arteriosclerosis is due to high lipid diet?

Back 60

atherosclerosis

Front 61

If a 3 yo Japanese boy presents with very red hands and soles of the feet, fever, and conjunctivitis, what arteritis does he most likely have?

Back 61

kawasaki disease