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70 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
1. Pollution can result when which of the
following types of agents is/are introduced
into the air, water, or soil?
1. Biological
2. Chemical
3. Physical
4. All of the above
4. All of the above
2. Which of the following operations causes
the most pollution?
1. Industrial
2. Municipal
3. Transportation
4. All of the above
3. Transportation
3. Which of the following materials is the
primary municipal pollutant?
1. Raw or inadequately treated sewage
2. Radioactive waste
3. Petroleum products
4. Acids
1. Raw or inadequately treated sewage
4. Which of the following modes of
transportation creates most air pollutants?
1. Trains
2. Waterborne vessels
3. Motor vehicles
4. Aircraft
3. Motor vehicles
5. Which, if any, of the following effects of
pollution is the most serious?
1. Psychological
2. Biological
3. Physical
4. None of the above
2. Biological
6. Steel erodes faster than normal when exposed
to which of the following air pollutants?
1. Pesticides
2. Herbicides
3. Zinc oxides
4. Sulfur oxides
4. Sulfur oxides
7. Most pesticides fall into which of the
following categories?
1. Selective
2. Nonselective
3. Preselective
4. Control selective
2. Nonselective
8. What is the primary pollution concern of Navy
personnel?
1. Noise pollution
2. Shore command wastes
3. Shipboard wastes
3. Shipboard wastes
9. Which of the following terms identifies
abatement?
1. Maintaining
2. Raising
3. Lowering
4. Containing
3. Lowering
10. Under the Clean Air Act, what government
body has the primary responsibility for
assuring air quality?
1. Federal government
2. Each state
3. Local municipalities
4. Department of Transportation
2. Each state
11. Virtually all Navy ships have some type of
sanitation device installed. Which of the
following types of systems retains sewage on
board for discharge ashore or in waters where
discharging is allowed?
1. Direct discharge
2. Positive flow
3. Marine sanitation
4. Collection, holding, and transfer
3. Marine sanitation
12. When operating sanitation devices in foreign
waters, Navy ships comply with which of the
following requirements?
1. Status of Forces Agreement
2. Coast Guard instructions
3. NAVFAC guidelines
4. All of the above
1. Status of Forces Agreement
13. Vessels may not discharge unpulped trash
within what minimum distance from the
U.S. coastline?
1. 20 nm
2. 25 nm
3. 30 nm
4. 35 nm
2. 25 nm
14. Submarines may discharge negatively buoyant
compacted trash not less than 12 nm from the
U.S. coastline only if the water depth is greater
than how many fathoms?
1. 1,000
2. 500
3. 100
4. 50
1. 1,000
15. The Navy’s land management program
involves which of the following efforts?
1. Migratory bird management
2. Production and sale of forest products
3. Soil and water conservation
4. Use of off-road vehicles
3. Soil and water conservation
16. From what part of the world does the U.S.
import most of its crude oil?
1. Southeast Asia
2. Central Europe
3. South America
4. Middle East
4. Middle East
17. What program provides information and
support for Navy personnel who are guests
in foreign lands?
1. Navy Sponsor Program
2. Overseas Duty Support Program
3. Navy Assistance Program
4. Navy Relocation Program
2. Overseas Duty Support Program
18. The Military Cash Awards Program
(MILCAP) provides monetary recognition
of up to what maximum amount?
1. $ 5,000
2. $10,000
3. $20,000
4. $25,000
4. $25,000
19. The Navy’s Health and Physical Readiness
Program promotes health and fitness at the
command level. As part of this program, naval
personnel are required to undergo fitness
testing at what interval?
1. Biennially
2. Annually
3. Semiannually
4. Quarterly
3. Semiannually
20. “Informing the public and members of the
naval service about Navy operations and
programs” is the mission of
1. BUPERS
2. CNO
3. PAO
4. SECNAV
4. SECNAV
21. Extravagant, careless, or needless expenditure
of government resources.
1. Fraud
2. Waste
3. Abuse
4. Mismanagement
2. Waste
22. Intentional misleading or deceitful conduct
that deprives the government of its resources
or rights.
1. Fraud
2. Waste
3. Abuse
4. Mismanagement
1. Fraud
23. Intentional wrongful or improper use of
government resources.
1. Fraud
2. Waste
3. Abuse
4. Mismanagement
3. Abuse
24. You can report fraud, waste, abuse, and
mismanagement to which of the following
offices?
1. The Navy hotline
2. The chain of command
3. The Naval Criminal Investigative Service
4. All of the above
4. All of the above
25. To maintain public confidence in its integrity,
all naval personnel must comply with the
Standards of Conduct and Professional Ethics.
1. True
2. False
1. True
26. If you disclose information about a person to
unauthorized personnel, you could be fined up
to what maximum amount?
1. $5,000
2. $3,000
3. $2,000
4. $1,000
1. $5,000
27. The guidance and policy for making sure
that equal opportunity works rests with
what office?
1. Command master chief
2. Commanding officer
3. Chief of Naval Operations
4. Secretary of the Navy
3. Chief of Naval Operations
28. Which of the following persons is responsible
for making equal opportunity a reality with a
command?
1. Commanding officer
2. Executive officer
3. Operations officer
4. Command master chief
1. Commanding officer
29. Your performance evaluation does not reflect
your attitude toward and your conduct in
support of the Navy’s equal opportunity
program.
1. True
2. False
2. False
30. If a Sailor takes part in insensitive practices,
he/she receives counseling on treating people
equally. If counseling isn’t effective, what
action, if any, may take place?
1. Administrative action only
2. Disciplinary action only
3. Administrative or disciplinary action
4. None
3. Administrative or disciplinary action
31. On what basis should supervisors assign
duties such as food service and compartment
cleaning?
1. Skills and abilities
2. Seniority
3. A fair, rotational basis
4. Time in service
2. Seniority
32. The Department of the Navy sets the
requirements for advancement for paygrades
E-1 through E-9. Which of the following is
the determining factor in advancement?
1. A vacancy
2. Having a high multiple
3. Passing the advancement-in-rate exam
4. All of the above
1. A vacancy
33. Navy personnel are prohibited from taking
part in a civil rights demonstration under
which of the following circumstances?
1. When the demonstration occurs during
duty hours
2. While they are in uniform
3. When the demonstration occurs
on a military reservation
4. Each of the above
4. Each of the above
34. If you cannot resolve a complaint among the
personnel involved, you can attach a written
complaint to a special request chit and forward
it through the chain of command. You must do
this within 5 days?
1. True
2. False
2. False
35. Which of the following personnel can be
victims of sexual harassment?
1. Men only
2. Women only
3. Both 1 and 2 above
3. Both 1 and 2 above
36. Which of the following phrases describes
sexual harassment?
1. Unwelcome sexual advances
2. Requests for sexual favors
3. Verbal or physical conduct that is sexual
in nature
4. Each of the above
4. Each of the above
37. Someone in a command position makes
sexual advances towards you, making it
impossible to do your job. You are being
sexually harassed.
1. True
2. False
1. True
38. Which of the following is a criteria for a
person’s behavior to be considered sexual
harassment?
1. Unwelcome
2. Sexual in nature
3. Occur or impact your work
4. Each of the above
4. Each of the above
39. Sexually explicit pictures.

1. A. Red
2. C. Green
3. B. Yellow
1. A. Red
40. Suggestive posters, calendars, and off-color
jokes.

1. A. Red
2. C. Green
3. B. Yellow
3. B. Yellow
41. What person has the responsibility of
appointing the command ombudsman?
1. Commanding officer
2. Executive officer
3. Division officer
4. Command master chief
1. Commanding officer
42. What person determines the content and
priorities of the command ombudsman
program?
1. Commanding officer
2. Executive officer
3. Division officer
4. Command master chief
1. Commanding officer
43. Which of the following statements is a
purpose of the Reenlistment Quality Control
Program?
1. To provide a personnel management
program to control rating manning
2. To issue reenlistment criteria
3. To establish standardized professional
growth points
4. All of the above
4. All of the above
44. All first-term Sailors in paygrades E-1 through
E-6 requesting reenlistment must be approved
for reenlistment through what program?
1. CREO
2. ENCORE
3. HYT
4. EEO
2. ENCORE
45. What person directs and supervises the Navy’s
voting program?
1. Chairman, Joint Chiefs of Staff
2. Chief of Naval Operations
3. Chief of Naval Personnel
4. Chief of Naval Information
3. Chief of Naval Personnel
46. Which of the following are sources that set
forth the basic disciplinary laws for the U.S.
Navy?
1. U.S. Navy Regulations
2. Standard Organization and Regulations
of the U.S. Navy
3. Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ)
4. Each of the above
4. Each of the above
47. Which of the following characteristics are
traits of a good Sailor?
1. Puts the good of the ship and the Navy
above personal likes and dislikes
2. Obeys the rules of military courtesy
and etiquette
3. Demonstrates loyalty, self-control,
honesty, and truthfulness
4. All of the above
4. All of the above
48. In what year was the Code of Conduct first
prescribed?
1. 1965
2. 1955
3. 1945
4. 1935
2. 1955
49. The Code of Conduct was adopted to provide
guidance for service personnel in which of the
following circumstances?
1. When stationed on foreign soil
2. When traveling at home and abroad
3. When facing the enemy as prisoners of war
4. All of the above
3. When facing the enemy as prisoners of war
50. In what year was Executive Order 12633
issued amending the Code of Conduct to
use neutral-gender language?
1. 1987
2. 1988
3. 1989
4. 1990
2. 1988
51. How many articles make up the Code of
Conduct?
1. Two
2. Four
3. Six
4. Eight
3. Six
52. When, if ever, may you voluntarily surrender
to the enemy?
1. If alone and completely isolated from
friendly troops
2. If no longer able to inflict casualties on
the enemy
3. If able to detain the enemy and let others
escape capture
4. Never
4. Never
53. Who may be assigned shore patrol duties?
1. Officers only
2. Petty officers only
3. Officers and petty officers
4. All Navy personnel
3. Officers and petty officers
54. In areas where different armed services are
located, the military police from each service
may be combined to form one unit. What term
identifies this unit?
1. Armed Forces Police Department
2. Armed Forces Police Detachment
3. Armed Forces Police Service
4. Armed Forces Police Group
2. Armed Forces Police Detachment
55. Aboard ship, the master-at-arms (MAA)
force is headed by the chief master-at-arms
(CMAA). The CMAA works directly for
which of the following officers?
1. Weapons officer
2. Security officer
3. Executive officer
4. Administrative officer
3. Executive officer
56. Discipline training develops which of the
following personal traits?
1. Character
2. Efficiency
3. Self-control
4. All of the above
4. All of the above
57. Discipline is important to the Navy for which
of the following reasons?
1. To instill fear of punishment
2. To decrease command responsibility
3. To provide punishment for wrongdoers
4. To enable personnel to function as a unit
with a high degree of efficiency
4. To enable personnel to function as a unit
with a high degree of efficiency
58. Punishment is administered in the Navy for
which of the following reasons?
1. To serve as an object lesson to the
wrongdoer and others
2. To pacify those who have suffered a wrong
3. To correct a wrong
4. To avenge a wrong
1. To serve as an object lesson to the
wrongdoer and others
59. What chapter of the United States Navy
Regulations describes the rights and
responsibilities of all Navy members?
1. 12
2. 11
3. 10
4. 9
2. 11
60. What person is responsible for making sure
that the Navy Regs conforms to the current
needs of the Department of the Navy?
1. The Secretary of the Navy
2. The Judge Advocate General
3. The Chief of Naval Operations
4. The Commandant of the Marine Corps
3. The Chief of Naval Operations
61. Navy Regs and changes to it are issued by
the Secretary of the Navy after what person
approves them?
1. The President
2. The Vice President
3. The Attorney General
4. The Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
1. The President
62. Failure to obey any regulation subjects the
offender to charges under what UCMJ article?
1. 91
2. 92
3. 93
4. 94
2. 92
63. What article of the Navy Regs lists the
publications that must be made available
upon request by any active-duty person?
1. 1020
2. 1010
3. 0917
4. 0818
4. 0818
64. What article of the Navy Regs gives officers
the authority necessary to perform their
duties?
1. 1021
2. 1023
3. 1025
4. 1033
1. 1021
65. Navy Regs, article 1033, Authority in a Boat,
provides which of the following officers the
authority and responsibility over all persons
embarked?
1. The senior line officer eligible for
command at sea
2. The junior line officer eligible for
command at sea
3. The senior staff officer
4. The junior staff officer
1. The senior line officer eligible for
command at sea
66. Which of the following Navy Regulations
articles outlines the authority of a sentry?
1. 1037
2. 1038
3. 1052
4. 1053
2. 1038
67. You may not be ordered to active duty without
the permission of which of the following
persons?
1. Commandant of the Marine Corps
2. Commandant of the Coast Guard
3. Chief of Naval Operations
4. Chief of Naval Personnel
4. Chief of Naval Personnel
68. Navy Regulations, article 1104, Treatment and
Release of Prisoners, prohibits cruel and/or
unusual treatment. According to this article,
prisoners must be checked on at what
minimum interval?
1. 10 hours
2. 8 hours
3. 6 hours
4. 4 hours
4. 4 hours
69. During a Saturday duty day, one of your
shipmates asks you to change watches with
him/her. You agree but fail to get permission
from proper authority. Under what article of
Navy Regs could you be charged?
1. 1138
2. 1134
3. 1133
4. 1129
2. 1134
70. Sexual harassment is offensive and illegal.
Under what article of Navy Regs may a person
be charged with sexual harassment?
1. 1166
2. 1164
3. 1162
4. 1160
1. 1166