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49 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
Which of the following structural components
is the backbone of a ship?
1. Stringer
2. Prow
3. Stem
4. Keel
The keel is the backbone of the ship.
Which of the following structural components divides the interior of a ship into compartments?
1. Longitudinals
2. Bulkheads
3. Strakes
4. Gunwales
The interior of a ship is divided into compartments by vertical walls, called bulkheads.
Which of the following structural components
form the ship’s hull?
1. Longitudinals
2. Bulkheads
3. Strakes
4. Gunwales
The plates that form the ship’s hull are called strakes.
The vertical distance from the bottom of the keel to the waterline of the ship is identified by what nautical term?
1. Freeboard
2. Strake
3. Draft
4. Void
DRAFT—The vertical distance from the keel to the waterline.
Which of the following structural components support decks?
1. Athwartships deck beams
2. Fore-and-aft deck girders
3. Stanchions
4. All of the above
Decks are supported by athwartships deck beams and by fore-and-aft deck girders. Further deck support is provided throughout the ship by vertical steel pillars called stanchions..
The freeing ports that let water run off during heavy weather are identified by which of the
following terms?
1. Companionways
2. Bulwarks
3. Scuppers
4. Flats
The bulwarks are fitted with freeing ports (scuppers) to permit water to run off during heavy weather.
Which of the following terms defines the first complete deck below the main deck?
1. First deck
2. Second deck
3. Third deck
4. Fourth deck
The first complete deck below the main deck is the second deck; the next, the third deck; the next, the fourth deck; and so on.
The device that bears up tight on wedges and holds watertight doors closed is identified by which of the following terms?
1. Dogs
2. Scuttle
3. Coamings
4. Belaying pins
The doors are held closed by fittings called dogs, which bear up tight on wedges.
Which of the following terms defines the horizontal openings for access through decks?
1. Hatches
2. Doors
3. Manholes
4. Scuttles
Hatches are horizontal openings for access through decks.
10. Which of the following terms defines the solid part of a ship above the main deck?
1. Superstructure
2. Upper deck
3. Forecastle
The solid part of a ship above the main deck is called the superstructure.
Which of the following is a type of mast?
1. Mizzenmast
2. Mainmast
3. Foremast
4. All of the above
All of the above
What is the purpose of running rigging?
1. For stays and shroud support
2. To support stacks
3. To hoist, lower, or control booms or boats
4. To support the mast
Lines or wires used for hoisting, lowering, or controlling booms, boats, and so on, are known as running rigging.
Commissioned ships of the U.S. Navy fly a commission pennant that is secured to what point?
1. The forecastle
2. Aft of the fantail
3. To a pigstick and hoisted to a truck
4. Level adjacent to the bridge
Commissioned ships of the U.S. Navy fly a commission pennant secured to a pigstick and hoisted to the truck
What term identifies the port and starboard halves of a yard?
1. Yardarms
2. Pigstick
3. Gaff
4. Peak
The port and starboard halves of a yard are the port and starboard yardarms.
The national ensign is flown from what part of a ship when it is anchored or moored?
1. Jackstaff
2. Flagstaff
3. Pigstick
4. Peak
When a ship is anchored or moored, the national ensign flies from the flagstaff at the stern, and the union jack flies from the jackstaff at the bow.
What is the additional ship control space used by the squadron commander or admiral called?
1. Signal bridge
2. Main control
3. Flag bridge
4. Bridge wind
Some larger classes of ships have, in addition to the navigation bridge (conn), a flag bridge for the use of the squadron commander or admiral and staff.
In what part of a ship is main control normally located?
1. Chart hours
2. Secondary conn
3. Combat information center
4. Boiler or machinery spaces
Main control is normally located below the main deck inboiler or mhinery spaces.
Ships of the U.S. Navy are divided into how many categories?
1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four
Ships of the U.S. Navy are divided into four categories that include combatant ships, auxiliary ships, combatant craft, and support craft.
How many types of ships are included in the warship category?
1. Five
2. Six
3. Seven
4. Eight
The following types of ships are included in the warship category:
• Aircraft carriers
• Battleships
• Cruisers
• Destroyers
• Frigates
• Submarines
What type of ship is the center of a modern naval task force or task group?
1. Aircraft carrier
2. Destroyer
3. Cruiser
4. Submarine
The attack carrier is an excellent long-rangeoffensive weapon and is the center of the modern naval task force or task group.
Approximately how many aircraft are
embarked on Nimitz class CVs?
1. 70
2. 75
3. 80
4. 85
The larger Nimitz class displaces about 96,000 tons and embarks about 85 aircraft.
What class of cruiser is designated as battle force capable?
1. Ticonderoga
2. Spruance
3. Arleigh Burke
The Ticonderoga (CG 47) class cruisers are built on the Spruance (DD 963) hull. Modern U.S. Navy guided-missile cruisers perform primarily a battle force
role.
Which of the following is a principle mission of a destroyer?
1. Operate offensively against submarines
and surface ships
2. Operate defensively against submarines
and surface ships
3. Both 1 and 2 above
4. Operate short-range attack against all
aircraft
The principal mission of destroyers is to operate offensively and defensively against submarines and surface ships and to take defensive action against air attacks. They also provide gunfire support for amphibious assaults and perform patrol, search, and rescue missions.
What class destroyer represents a return to
all-steel construction?
1. Kidd class
2. Spruance class
3. Arleigh Burke class
The Arleigh Burke class represents a return to all-steel construction and incorporates electromagnetic pulse hardening, enhanced firefighting features, and a collective protection system to provide protection against nuclear, chemical, or biological contamination.
Which of the following is the mission of frigates?
1. Protective screens
2. Open ocean escort and patrol
3. Defensive operations against surface ships
4. Offensive operations against subsurface
ships
The classification “frigate” designates ships used for open-ocean escort and patrol.
What class of submarines has the quitest operation?
1. Sturgeon
2. Ohio
3. Seawolf
The Seawolf’s stealth characteristics make it the world’s quietest submarine.
The Ohio class ballistic submarine has how many Trident missile tubes?
1. 16
2. 20
3. 24
4. 26
The Ohio class is the largest undersea craft developed by the Navy.The submarine has 24 tubes for the Trident missile and 4 torpedo tubes located in the bow.
The LHA carries what means of defense against surface and air attack?
1. 5-inch guns only
2. Mk 38 machine guns only
3. 5-inch guns and Mk 38 machine guns
Mk 38 machine guns only
How many troops can be embarked in, transported by, and landed by the Wasp class LHDs?
1. 1,500
2. 2,000
3. 2,500
4. 3,000
The Wasp-class LHDs are designed to embark, transport, and land 2,000 troops and their equipment using transport helicopters in conjunction with a beach assault.
What is the purpose of dock landing ships?
1. To transport amphibious craft only
2. To transport vehicles only
3. To transport troops only
4. To transport a variety of amphibious craft and vehicles with embarked crews and troops
Dock landing ships (LSDs) were designed to transport and launch a variety of amphibious craft and vehicles with embarked crews and troops.
Which of the following means is/are used by Avenger class MCMs to find, classify, and
destroy moored and bottom mines?
1. Sonar and video systems
2. Cable cutters
3. A mine-detonating device
4. Each of the above
These ships use sonar and video systems, cable cutters, and a mine-detonating device that can be released and detonated by remote control.
An ammunition supply ship.
1. AOE
2. ASR
3. AE
4. AO
An AOE is capable of supplying not only fuel and ammunition but can supply dry stores and refrigerated stores.
Supply dry and refrigerated stores.
1. AOE
2. ASR
3. AE
4. AO
An AOE is capable of supplying not only fuel and ammunition but can supply dry stores and refrigerated stores.
Combat support ship
1. AOE
2. ASR
3. AE
4. AO
The fast combat support ship (AOE) is the largest and most powerful auxiliary ship in the Navy. Unlike other replenishment ships, the AOE is designed to operate as an integral force rather than as a unit of an underway replenishment group.
Which of the following terms applies to the transfer of fuel, munitions, supplies, and personnel from one vessel to another while ships are under way?
1. Vertical replenishment
2. Horizontal replenishment
3. Replenishment at sea
4. Replenishment while under way
Replenishment at sea is the term applied to the transfer of fuel, munitions, supplies, and personnel from one vessel to another while ships are under way.
A separation of what approximate distance is maintained between the replenishment ship and the ship it’s replenishing?
1. 50 feet
2. 75 feet
3. 100 feet
4. 125 feet
A separation of about 100 feet is maintained between ships, with the replenishing ship frequently serving ships both to port and starboard.
The AOE is designed to operate at what approximate distance between itself and the ship it’s replenishing?
1. 150 feet
2. 175 feet
3. 200 feet
4. 225 feet
A separation of about 100 feet is maintained between ships, with the replenishing ship frequently serving ships both to port and starboard.
Most fleet tugs are operated by which of the following organizations?
1. U.S. Navy
2. U.S. Coast Guard
3. Army Corps of Engineers
4. Military Sealift Command
Military Sealift Command (MSC) personnel now operate most fleet tugs.
Combatant craft usually operate in what areas?
1. In open waters
2. In coastal waters
3. In intercontinental waters
4. In the deep sea
Combatant craft include patrol craft, amphibious warfare craft, and mine warfare craft. Surface patrol craft are intended for use relatively near the coast or in sheltered waters or rivers.
Support craft designations start with what letter?
1. S
2. T
3. Y
4. Z
With a few exceptions, support craft designations start with the letter Y.
Fixed-wing aircraft are divided into how many basic parts?
1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four
FUSELAGE
WINGS
EMPENNAGE
What is the primary lifting device of an aircraft?
1. Tail
2. Wings
3. Ailerons
4. Fuselage
Wings are the primary lifting devices of an aircraft, although some lift is derived from the fuselage and tail.
What are the three main parts of a helicopter?
1. Tail, rotors, and empennage
2. Tail, rotors, and fuselage
3. Main rotor, fuselage, and tail rotor
4. Main rotor, empennage, and tail rotor
FUSELAGE
MAIN ROTOR
TAIL ROTOR
Attack class planes are used in which of the following roles?
1. Nuclear strikes
2. Ground support
3. Low-level bombing
4. Each of the above
Each of the above
What class of aircraft is generally used to gain
air superiority?
1. Attack
2. Fighter
3. Patrol
4. Warning
Fighters are high-performance aircraft generally employed to gain air superiority
The E-2C Hawkeye belongs to what class of aircraft?
1. Patrol
2. Warning
3. Antisubmarine
4. Fighter
Patrol
The S-3 Viking belongs to what class of aircraft?
1. Patrol
2. Warning
3. Antisubmarine
4. Fighter
Antisubmarine
What helicopter is designated for ASW use?
1. Ch-46 Sea Knight
2. SH-2 Seasprite
3. SH-60B Seahawk
Ch-46 Sea Knight
What helicopter operates and tows mine countermeasures devices?
1. CH-46 Sea Knight
2. SH-60B Seahawk
3. CH-53D Sea Stallion
CH-53D Sea Stallion