Basic Military Requirements Chapter 12 “Damage Control.”

Front 1

ADMINISTRATIVE ORGANIZATION OF DAMAGE CONTROL
What person coordinates the efforts of repair parties to control damage?
1. The damage control assistant
2. The operations officer
3. The executive officer
4. The weapons officer

Back 1

Under the engineer officer, the DCA coordinates the efforts of the repair parties to control damage.

Front 2

ADMINISTRATIVE ORGANIZATION OF DAMAGE CONTROL
Which of the following are duties of the administrative organization of damage
control?
1. Records and schedules for maintenance
2. Written doctrine and procedures relating to
damage control
3. Ship’s bills
4. All of the above

Back 2

All of the above

Front 3

ADMINISTRATIVE ORGANIZATION OF DAMAGE CONTROL
Which of the following are duties of the executive officer?
1. Ship’s survivability training
2. Readiness to manage casualties
3. Control and recover from damage
4. Each of the above

Back 3

Each of the above

Front 4

ADMINISTRATIVE ORGANIZATION OF DAMAGE CONTROL
What officer is designated as the ship’s damage control officer?
1. The commanding officer
2. The executive officer
3. The engineer officer
4. The operations officer

Back 4

The engineer officer is designated as the ship’s damage control officer.

Front 5

ADMINISTRATIVE ORGANIZATION OF DAMAGE CONTROL
The DCA is the primary assistant to the damage control officer. As such, the DCA has which of the following responsibilities?
1. Training the ship’s DC personnel
2. Administration of the ship’s DC organization
3. Maintain records of DC personnel PQ accomplishment for all hands
4. All of the above

Back 5

All of the above

Front 6

ADMINISTRATIVE ORGANIZATION OF DAMAGE CONTROL
What requirements must a petty officer have to be designated as the damage control petty officer (DCPO)?
1. Be a PO2 or above
2. Complete the PQS
3. Complete the fire-fighting school
4. Be designated by the LCPO

Back 6

A petty officer, who has completed the PQS, is designated as the damage control petty officer (DCPO) based on TYCOM instructions.

Front 7

ADMINISTRATIVE ORGANIZATION OF DAMAGE CONTROL
Normally, the job of DCPO is held for what period of time?
1. 12 months
2. 9 months
3. 3 months
4. 6 months

Back 7

DCPOs normally serve for a period of 6 months.

Front 8

ADMINISTRATIVE ORGANIZATION OF DAMAGE CONTROL
Which of the following is/are responsibilities of the DCPO?
1. Assist in the instruction of division personnel in damage control
2. Prepare and maintain damage control checkoff lists for their spaces
3. Make required reports
4. All of the above

Back 8

All of the above

Front 9

ADMINISTRATIVE ORGANIZATION OF DAMAGE CONTROL
What person is responsible for determining the safe entry of personnel into closed or poorly ventilated spaces?
1. The gas free engineer
2. The fire marshal
3. The DCA
4. The XO

Back 9

The gas free engineer

Front 10

ADMINISTRATIVE ORGANIZATION OF DAMAGE CONTROL
What person is designated to aid the DCA train personnel and to prevent and fight fires?
1. The gas free engineer
2. The fire marshal
3. The DCPO
4. The LCPO

Back 10

The fire marshal

Front 11

What action is taken if the fire marshal finds hazards that relate to poor housekeeping
during a daily inspection?
1. Record and advise the responsible division
2. Submit discrepancy report to DCA with copies to XO and department head
3. Have the division LCPO schedule corrective action
4. Report the hazard to the safety department

Back 11

The fire marshal submits discrepancy reports to the DCA with copies to the XO and the appropriate department head(s) and conducts follow-up
inspections to ensure compliance.

Front 12

The fire marshal has which of the following responsibilities?
1. Submitting reports citing hazards and recommendations for their correction
2. Setting up a fire watch team before regular
overhauls
3. Both 1 and 2 above
4. Inspecting the engineering department

Back 12

Both 1 and 2 above

Front 13

What is the purpose of the ship’s damage control battle organization?
1. To stand at ready for the battle to be over
2. To restore the ship to as near normal operation as possible
3. To comfort injured crew members
4. When directed, to take charge of the
weapons

Back 13

Once the ship has been damaged, the ship’s damage control battle organization is responsible for restoring the ship to as near normal operation as possible.

Front 14

In the damage control battle organization, what person is responsible for controlling
damage; fighting fires; CBR countermeasures; and control of stability, list, and trim?
1. The DCPO
2. The DCA
3. The XO
4. The CO

Back 14

The DCA

Front 15

What are the primary damage control battle organization unit(s)?
1. repair parties
2. Navigation crew
3. Deck crews
4. Engineering personnel

Back 15

repair parties or teams.

Front 16

What is the nerve center of the directing force for directing the damage control organization?
1. DCC or CCS
2. Bridge
3. Aft steering
4. DC locker 5

Back 16

DCC or CCS

Front 17

Main deck repair.
1. Repair 1
2. Repair 3
3. Repair 5
4. Repair 7

Back 17

Repair 1

Front 18

Propulsion repair.
1. Repair 1
2. Repair 3
3. Repair 5
4. Repair 7

Back 18

Repair 5

Front 19

Ordnance.
1. Repair 2
2. Repair 4
3. Repair 6
4. Repair 8

Back 19

Repair 6

Front 20

Electronic casualty control.
1. Repair 2
2. Repair 4
3. Repair 6
4. Repair 8

Back 20

Repair 8

Front 21

Electronic casualty control.
1. Repair 2
2. Repair 4
3. Repair 6
4. Repair 8

Back 21

Repair 8

Front 22

Each repair party should be capable of performing which of the following functions?
1. Rigging casualty power
2. Controlling flooding
3. Extinguishing all types of fires
4. Each of the above

Back 22

Each of the above

Front 23

When in port, the ship has which of the following duty section components available
to respond to any type of casualty?
1. In port emergency teams
2. Salvage teams
3. Duty DC watch
4. Deck department

Back 23

In port emergency teams

Front 24

The rescue and assistance detail must have which of the following qualifications?
1. Be qualified as an emergency team member
2. Be qualified in first aid
3. Both 1 and 2 above
4. Have passed the PRT

Back 24

All personnel assigned to the rescue and assistance detail must, as a minimum, be qualified as an emergency team member and in first aid.

Front 25

General quarters is an all hands evolution—it
is the highest state of readiness of the ship.
1. True
2. False

Back 25

True

Front 26

Which of the following statements describes a
correct GQ route to follow?
1. Forward in the passageways and down
ladders on the starboard side
2. Aft in the passageways and down ladders on the port side
3. Forward in the passageways and up ladders
on the port side
4. Aft in the passageways and up ladders on the starboard side

Back 26

Aft in the passageways and down ladders on the port side

Front 27

Which of the following is an emergency damage control communications system?
1. 2JZ
2. 6JZ
3. X40J
4. X24J

Back 27

2JZ

Front 28

What system signals override microphone control stations to notify the ship’s crew of
imminent danger?
1. Alarms for collision, chemical attack, general, and flight crash
2. General announcing system
3. DC controls
4. Bridge alarms

Back 28

Alarms for collision, chemical attack, general, and flight crash

Front 29

This alarm is sounded by the OOD or PreFly notifying ship’s company of a pending or actual flight deck emergency.
A. COLLISION
B. CHEMICAL ATTACK
C. GENERAL
D. FLIGHT CRASH

Back 29

FLIGHT CRASH

Front 30

This alarm is sounded when there is a possibility that the ship will be struck by another waterborne unit.
A. COLLISION
B. CHEMICAL ATTACK
C. GENERAL
D. FLIGHT CRASH

Back 30

COLLISION

Front 31

When this alarm is sounded, all hands report to their preassigned stations and set material condition ZEBRA.
A. COLLISION
B. CHEMICAL ATTACK
C. GENERAL
D. FLIGHT CRASH

Back 31

GENERAL

Front 32

Which of the following means of communications is used when all other methods have failed?
1. Messengers
2. Sound-powered telephones
3. Morse Code
4. Bullhorn

Back 32

Messengers

Front 33

All Navy ships have how many material conditions of readiness?
1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four

Back 33

Three

Front 34

What material condition provides the least degree of watertight integrity?
1. ZEBRA
2. YOKE
3. XRAY

Back 34

XRAY

Front 35

What material condition sets the highest degree of watertight integrity?
1. ZEBRA
2. YOKE
3. XRAY

Back 35

ZEBRA

Front 36

Which of the following fittings are closed when condition ZEBRA is set?
1. DOG Z fittings
2. Circle X fittings
3. Y fittings
4. All of the above

Back 36

All of the above

Front 37

What means, if any, is used by repair parties to find damage control fittings and closures in each compartment?
1. Master alfa list
2. Compartment checkoff lists
3. DC compartment checks
4. None

Back 37

Compartment checkoff lists

Front 38

The Damage Control Closure Log is maintained in which of the following locations?
1. DCC
2. Quarterdeck
3. Both 1 and 2 above
4. Engineering spaces

Back 38

Both 1 and 2 above

Front 39

Which of the following logs is a list of all DC-related fittings that don’t work properly?
1. Damage Control Closure Log
2. Fire marshal pass down log
3. Inoperative Fittings and Closures Log
4. Bridge log

Back 39

Damage Control Closure Log

Front 40

What fittings are secured when the ship is set for “darken ship”?
1. WILLIAM
2. Circle WILLIAM
3. DOG ZEBRA
4. Circle ZEBRA

Back 40

During darken ship these fittings and closures are closed to prevent light inside showing to the outside. DOG ZEBRA fittings are marked with a red Z surrounded by a black letter D.

Front 41

The emergency escape breathing device (EEBD) supplies breathable air for what
maximum period of time?
1. 10 minutes
2. 15 minutes
3. 20 minutes
4. 25 minutes

Back 41

It provides the wearer with 15 minutes of breathable air

Front 42

With training, you should be able to activate the EEBD within what maximum period of
time?
1. 10 seconds
2. 20 seconds
3. 30 seconds
4. 40 seconds

Back 42

With the proper training you should be able to activate and don an EEBD in less than 30 seconds

Front 43

Which of the following breathing devices should NOT be worn for fire-fighting
purposes?
1. OBA
2. SEED
3. SCBA

Back 43

SEED

Front 44

Which of the following is the primary fire fighting tool for respiratory protection?
1. EEBD
2. SEED
3. OBA
4. SCBA

Back 44

OBA

Front 45

From the time it is activated, each cylinder used in the self-contained breathing apparatus
(SCBA) will last approximately what length of
time?
1. 15 minutes
2. 30 minutes
3. 45 minutes
4. 60 minutes

Back 45

Generally, each bottle will last approximately 30 minutes from the time it is activated.

Front 46

Which of the following substances must be
present to start a fire?
1. Oxygen
2. Heat
3. Fuel
4. All of the above

Back 46

All of the above

Front 47

In the fire tetrahedron, how many components are necessary for combustion?
1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four

Back 47

Four

Front 48

Flammable materials give off vapors. What is the lowest temperature that these vapors burn when a spark is applied?
1. Ambient temperature
2. Room temperature
3. Flash point
4. Ignition point

Back 48

The lowest temperature at which a flammable material gives off vapors that will burn when a flame or spark is applied is called the flash point.

Front 49

What term is used to describe the lowest temperature at which spontaneous combustion occurs?
1. Flash point
2. Ignition point
3. Ambient temperature
4. Room temperature

Back 49

In other words, the ignition point is the temperature at which spontaneous combustion occurs.

Front 50

Heat from fire can be transferred by how many
methods?
1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four

Back 50

Heat from a fire is transferred by one or more of the following methods:
1. Conduction
2. Convection
3. Radiation

Front 51

What method of heat transfer occurs when heat moves from one body to another by direct
contact?
1. Conduction
2. Convection
3. Radiation
4. Reflection

Back 51

Conduction is the transfer of heat through a body or from one body to another by direct physical contact.

Front 52

What method of heat transfer occurs through the motion of smoke, hot air, and heated
gases?
1. Conduction
2. Convection
3. Radiation
4. Reflection

Back 52

Convection is the transfer of heat through the motion of circulating gases or liquids.

Front 53

What method of heat transfer occurs through the motion of smoke, hot air, and heated
gases?
1. Conduction
2. Convection
3. Radiation
4. Reflection

Back 53

Convection is the transfer of heat through the motion of circulating gases or liquids.

Front 54

Which of the following agents should be used to extinguish a class B fire?
1. Water
2. AFFF
3. PKP
4. Both 2 and 3 above

Back 54

AFFF was developed to combat class B fires.

Front 55

Which of the following agents should be used to extinguish class A or D fires?
1. Water
2. AFFF
3. PKP
4. Both 2 and 3 above

Back 55

Water in straight or fog pattern. If the fire is deep-seated, aqueous film forming foam (AFFF) is more effective than seawater and can be used as a wetting agent.